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WAAW Quiz 2025

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement is always true for antibiotics but not necessarily true for all antimicrobials?

a)

They act against bacteria only

b)

They can be natural, semi-synthetic, or synthetic

c)

They are used to treat viral infections

d)

They include agents targeting parasites and fungi

2.

An antibiotic which at optimal doses kills the target bacteria is best described as which type of agent?

a)

Broad-spectrum antibiotic

b)

Narrow-spectrum antibiotic

c)

Bactericidal agent

d)

Bacteriostatic agent

3.

Which option best describes a common bacterial resistance mechanism?

a)

Increasing drug uptake into the cell

b)

Modifying the drug’s target structure

c)

Decreasing active efflux of the drug

d)

All of the above

4.

During a recent outbreak of an infection in a small town, health officials noticed that patients who had strong immune responses were recovering faster. Which class of medication were prescribed that required active host immunity to clear the infection most effectively?

a)

Bactericidal antibiotics

b)

Bacteriostatic antibiotics

c)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

d)

Antivirals

5.

Which term describes harming the microbe while sparing the patient?

a)

Mode of action

b)

Therapeutic level

c)

Spectrum of activity

d)

Selective toxicity

6.

A patient with endocarditis needs a drug that kills rather than just inhibits bacterial growth. Which choice best fits this need?

a)

Linezolid

b)

Chloramphenicol

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Ceftriaxone

7.

All of the following antimicrobial agents act on the bacterial cell membrane, except:

a)

Gramicidin

b)

Daptomycin

c)

Polymyxins

d)

Vancomycin

8.

All of the following antimicrobial agents act on the 50S ribosomal subunit, except:

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Macrolides

c)

Streptogramins

d)

Chloramphenicol

9.

An example of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic is:

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Amikacin

10.

"I changed the cook… not the kitchen.

Your drug comes looking for the old worker
But I’ve hired someone new.

Now only the powerful drugs you hoped to save work.

What am I?"

a)

Active drug efflux through membrane pumps

b)

Mec A-mediated altered penicillin-binding protein

c)

Beta-lactamase hydrolysis of beta-lactams

d)

Loss of outer membrane porin channels

11.

In routine clinical laboratories, which antimicrobial susceptibility testing method is the "everyday thali"?
Simple, reliable, and done for almost every isolate

a)

Broth microdilution panel testing

b)

Agar dilution using multiple plates

c)

Kirby–Bauer disc diffusion method

d)

E-test gradient strip method

12.

Which technique cannot determine a minimum inhibitory concentration value for a specific antimicrobial against a microbe?

a)

E-test gradient diffusion

b)

Kirby–Bauer disc diffusion

c)

Microbroth dilution assay

d)

Macrobroth dilution assay

13.

If Drug A produces a larger zone of inhibition than Drug B in a lab test, Drug A should always be prescribed.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

All of the following are examples of intrinsic antimicrobial resistance, except:

a)

Anaerobic bacteria – Aminoglycosides

b)

Pseudomonas – Carbapenems

c)

Aerobic bacteria – Metronidazole

d)

Gram-negative bacteria – Vancomycin

15.

A major concern regarding antimicrobial resistance is that common infections can become harder to treat, increasing the risk of severe illness and death.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which action best reduces the antimicrobial resistance?

a)

Saving leftover antibiotics for later use

b)

Using over the counter antibiotics when individual feels necessary

c)

Getting vaccinated up to date

d)

Stopping of antibiotics as soon as symptoms resolve

17.

According to the World Health Organization, how is antimicrobial resistance ranked among global public health problems?

a)

Among the top 10 worldwide concerns

b)

Not considered a major problem globally

c)

Only a concern in specific regions

d)

Among the top 50 worldwide concerns

18.

In hospital settings, what is the most common route for spread of multidrug-resistant organisms?

a)

Contaminated air ventilation systems

b)

Patient-to-patient direct contact

c)

The hands of healthcare workers

d)

Contaminated food and water sources

19.

Which statement best describes antimicrobial resistance (AMR)?

a)

The human body becomes resistant to antibiotic effects

b)

The antibiotics themselves become less potent over time

c)

The bacteria or other microbes develop resistance to drugs

d)

AMR is only a concern in hospital intensive care units

20.

Which is the BEST example of mismatch between drug spectrum and suspected pathogen, contributing to resistance?

a)

Using doxycycline for atypical pneumonia

b)

Using metronidazole alone for E. coli UTI

c)

Using vancomycin for MRSA infections

d)

Using ampicillin for Enterococcus faecalis

21.

A 22-year-old female has uncomplicated cystitis due to E. coli. Antibiogram shows susceptibility to nitrofurantoin, ciprofloxacin, meropenem, and fosfomycin. Which is the best antibiotic choice?

a)

Meropenem for broad-spectrum coverage

b)

Fosfomycin as a carbapenem-sparing option

c)

Ciprofloxacin due to rapid tissue penetration

d)

Nitrofurantoin targeted for lower urinary tract

22.

A patient presents with urinary tract infection due to Klebsiella pneumoniae. Which antibiotic is LEAST appropriate for treatment?

a)

Imipenem

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Piperacillin–tazobactam

23.

A burn wound is infected with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which carbapenem should be avoided?

a)

Imipenem

b)

Meropenem

c)

Ertapenem

d)

Doripenem

24.

When is a narrow‑spectrum antimicrobial the most appropriate choice?

a)

Treatment of polymicrobial intestinal mixed infection

b)

Post‑operative prophylaxis after a surgical procedure

c)

Targeted therapy for strep throat with identified S. pyogenes

d)

Empiric therapy of pneumonia pending culture results

25.

Who can act as an antimicrobial steward in a hospital setting?

a)

Infectious disease physician

b)

Clinical microbiologists

c)

Medicine consultant

d)

Any of the above

26.

Guidelines that direct antibiotic usage within a hospital are best referred to as:

a)

Antibiotic policy

b)

Antibiotic stewardship

c)

Antibiotic audit

d)

Antibiogram

27.

An antimicrobial stewardship program in a hospital is implemented for multiple reasons. Which option is LEAST appropriate as a core reason?

a)

Rapid development of antimicrobial resistance

b)

Misuse and overuse of antimicrobials

c)

Widespread antimicrobial use in humans compared to animals

d)

Poor antimicrobial research

28.

Which is not a back-end strategy of an antimicrobial stewardship program?

a)

Prospective audit and feedback

b)

Formulary restriction

c)

It is labor intensive than front-end strategy

d)

Sustainable than front-end strategy

29.

Which of the following statements is not true of antibiotic stewardship programmes?

a)

A physician should be the leader of the team to effectively monitor appropriate therapy.

b)

A pharmacist should be on the team to improve antibiotic dispensation and monitor the quantity of antibiotics used per patient.

c)

A defined daily dose is not an essential component of the stewardship programme.

d)

Evaluating the need for treatment after a set period of initial treatment, called the ‘antibiotic time-out’, is a crucial part of stewardship programmes.

30.

The WHO AWaRe classification groups antibiotics into categories to guide optimal use, reduce antimicrobial resistance, and improve global stewardship practice. What does “Re” in the classification stand for?

a)

Reduce

b)

Reserve

c)

Restrict

d)

Reuse

31.

Which antibiotic is classified as Watch, despite being used very commonly?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Cotrimoxazole

d)

Doxycycline

32.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to dispose unused or expired antibiotics?

a)

Returning them to a pharmacy collection box

b)

Flushing them down the toilet or sink drain

c)

Disposing of them in the regular trash if incinerated

d)

Using a mail-back envelope provided by a local pharmacy

33.

In which of the following infectious diseases, antibiotics are required

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Influenza

c)

Malaria

d)

None of the above

34.

De-escalation can mean all except

a)

Changing a broad-spectrum antibiotic to one with narrower coverage

b)

Changing from combination therapy to monotherapy

c)

Stopping antibiotic therapy altogether when drugs are no longer required

d)

Switching from narrow spectrum IV antibiotic to broad spectrum oral medication

35.

The front-end or pre-prescription approach in antimicrobial stewardship is a:

a)

Non restrictive approach wherein antibiotics are prescribed by all clinicians

b)

A strategy to ensure restricted prescription of reserved antibiotics

c)

Strategy based on reviewing of prescriptions and advising clinicians to modify antibiotic based on susceptible data

d)

Strategy to advocate de-escalation of an antibiotic following empiric therapy

36.

The most appropriate practice while prescribing antibiotics to a person diagnosed with sepsis is

a)

Sending appropriate cultures and then starting antibiotics based on culture report

b)

Starting broad spectrum antibiotics immediately and then send cultures

c)

Wait to send cultures first and then Start broad spectrum antibiotics

d)

Starting broad spectrum antibiotics. Sending cultures is irrelevant

37.

Which of the following is a common side effect of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

a)

Decreased liver enzyme levels

b)

Improved gut microbiota diversity

c)

Increased risk of Clostridium difficile infection

d)

Enhanced immune response

38.

A 40-year-old man presents with acute watery diarrhea after eating outside food. He insists on getting a “strong antibiotic.” The junior doctor is considering prescribing ciprofloxacin.

What is the MOST appropriate approach?

a)

Prescribe ciprofloxacin because patient demand is high

b)

Prescribe azithromycin to avoid fluoroquinolone resistance

c)

Avoid antibiotics; counsel and manage supportively

d)

Give metronidazole empirically for all food-poisoning case

39.

A 90-year-old bedridden patient has a chronic pressure ulcer. Swab culture grows Pseudomonas, but there are no systemic signs of infection. What is the correct response?

a)

Start IV piperacillin-tazobactam because Pseudomonas is dangerous

b)

Start meropenem to prevent MDR infection

c)

Add dual antipseudomonal therapy to prevent resistance

d)

Do not treat; colonization is common — focus on wound care

40.

An 83-year-old diabetic woman has 3 episodes of UTI in 3 months. Culture repeatedly shows ESBL E. coli.

Which is the MOST important next step in stewardship?

a)

Start antibiotic prophylaxis with nitrofurantoin to prevent recurrence

b)

Start meropenem as ESBL is high risk and must be treated immediately

c)

Start an oral carbapenem-sparing agent. Repeat culture after every completed antibiotic course to ensure eradication

d)

Evaluate and treat modifiable risk factors (hydration, catheter use, glycemic control)