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AP Psychology Vocabulary: Terms 1-39

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which concept refers to the minimum stimulus intensity required to detect a particular sensation 50 percent of the time?

a)

difference threshold

b)

absolute threshold

c)

sensory adaptation

d)

signal detection

2.

Aaron Beck is best known for developing which therapeutic approach?

a)

behavioral activation therapy

b)

client-centered therapy

c)

cognitive therapy for depression

d)

psychoanalytic therapy

3.

Accommodation in cognitive development involves which process?

a)

adding details to existing schemas

b)

discarding prior schemas entirely

c)

modifying schemas to fit new information

d)

storing information without change

4.

Achievement tests are primarily designed to measure what?

a)

future learning capacity

b)

innate intelligence level

c)

what a person has learned

d)

creative problem-solving

5.

In neurons, an action potential is best described as which event?

a)

gradual chemical diffusion

b)

brief electrical impulse

c)

continuous synaptic transmission

d)

long steady polarization

6.

Acoustic encoding primarily involves processing which type of information?

a)

visual images of scenes

b)

spatial maps of places

c)

sound-based features of words

d)

motor actions and skills

7.

In classical conditioning, acquisition refers to which phase?

a)

when extinction is complete

b)

initial learning when NS becomes CS

c)

spontaneous recovery of CR

d)

generalization to similar stimuli

8.

The adaptation-level phenomenon explains judgments of stimuli (like income) relative to what?

a)

absolute physical magnitude

b)

innate sensory thresholds

c)

a prior level of experience

d)

societal averages and norms

9.

Adolescence is typically defined as the transition period from

a)

birth to early childhood

b)

childhood to adulthood

c)

adulthood to old age

d)

prenatal to neonatal

10.

Adrenal glands release which hormones that arouse the body in stress?

a)

dopamine and serotonin

b)

insulin and glucagon

c)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

thyroxine and calcitonin

11.

Aggression is best defined as

a)

assertive self-advocacy

b)

physical or verbal intent to harm

c)

competitive striving for goals

d)

emotional reactivity to threat

12.

An algorithm ensures problem solving by

a)

trial-and-error guessing

b)

intuitive pattern spotting

c)

methodical step-by-step rules

d)

creative divergent thinking

13.

Alpha waves are associated with which brain state?

a)

deep dream sleep

b)

relaxed awake state

c)

intense focused work

d)

rapid eye movement

14.

Altruism is defined as

a)

cooperation for mutual gain

b)

unselfish regard for others

c)

strategic reciprocity only

d)

obedience to social rules

15.

Amnesia primarily involves which deficit?

a)

loss of language skills

b)

loss of motor coordination

c)

loss of memory function

d)

loss of visual processing

16.

Amphetamines typically produce which effect on the nervous system?

a)

slowed brain activity

b)

enhanced neural activity

c)

blocked synaptic firing

d)

stabilized mood states

17.

The amygdala is two lima bean–sized neural clusters linked mainly to

a)

memory consolidation

b)

language production

c)

emotional processing

d)

motor coordination

18.

Anorexia nervosa involves which hallmark pattern?

a)

binge eating with purging

b)

healthy dieting motivation

c)

significant underweight yet starving

d)

overeating without weight gain

19.

Anti-anxiety drugs are primarily used to

a)

stabilize mood swings

b)

control anxiety and agitation

c)

improve memory capacity

d)

treat psychotic symptoms

20.

Antidepressant drugs work mainly by

a)

increasing insulin release

b)

altering neurotransmitter availability

c)

blocking hormone receptors

d)

stimulating the thyroid gland

21.

Antipsychotic drugs are prescribed primarily to treat

a)

panic and phobia disorders

b)

major depressive episodes

c)

schizophrenia and thought disorders

d)

obsessive-compulsive symptoms

22.

Antisocial Personality Disorder is characterized by

a)

social withdrawal and fear

b)

mood instability and swings

c)

lack of conscience and aggression

d)

compulsive rituals and order

23.

Anxiety disorders are marked by

a)

episodic psychotic breaks

b)

persistent distress and maladaptive behaviors

c)

stable euthymic mood states

d)

temporary sadness without impairment

24.

Aphasia results from brain damage that most often causes

a)

loss of balance and coordination

b)

impairments in language functions

c)

deficits in emotional regulation

d)

reduced sensory thresholds

25.

Applied research focuses on

a)

building grand theories

b)

exploring basic mechanisms

c)

solving practical problems

d)

replicating classic findings

26.

Aptitude tests aim to measure

a)

past academic achievement

b)

creative divergent thinking

c)

capacity to learn and perform

d)

current personality traits

27.

Associative learning is learning that certain events

a)

occur randomly without cause

b)

occur together in sequence

c)

occur only with rewards

d)

occur only with punishments

28.

Attachment in early development is best described as

a)

a cognitive memory schema

b)

an emotional tie with caregiver

c)

a learned social script

d)

a hereditary reflex pattern

29.

Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) typically includes which symptom cluster?

a)

inattention and distractibility

b)

compulsions and rituals

c)

hyperactivity and impulsivity

d)

delusions and hallucinations

30.

Attitudes are feelings influenced by beliefs that

a)

dictate behavior automatically

b)

predispose responses to objects

c)

eliminate bias in judgment

d)

replace emotions with logic

31.

Attribution theory examines how people explain behavior by

a)

measuring unconscious motives

b)

crediting situations or dispositions

c)

predicting future outcomes

d)

ranking personality traits

32.

Audition refers to the sense of

a)

touch on the skin

b)

smell and aroma

c)

hearing of sounds

d)

taste and flavor

33.

Autism is a childhood-onset disorder marked chiefly by

a)

deficits in communication and social interaction

b)

cyclical mood swings and euphoria

c)

progressive memory loss and confusion

d)

sudden motor tics and convulsions

34.

Which statement best defines automatic processing in memory?

a)

Effortful rehearsal of facts and procedures

b)

Unconscious encoding of incidental information

c)

Deliberate retrieval using mnemonic devices

d)

Intentional organization into semantic networks

35.

The autonomic nervous system primarily controls which functions?

a)

Voluntary skeletal muscle movement

b)

Language and symbolic reasoning

c)

Glands and internal organ activity

d)

Fine motor coordination in hands

36.

Which choice illustrates the availability heuristic?

a)

Using step-by-step algorithms for certainty

b)

Relying on base rates over vivid cases

c)

Estimating likelihood by ease of recall

d)

Sampling randomly to avoid bias

37.

What is the main role of an axon in a neuron?

a)

Receiving signals from other neurons

b)

Protecting the cell body from toxins

c)

Transmitting messages away from the soma

d)

Creating new synapses during learning

38.

During the babbling stage, infants characteristically do what?

a)

Produce meaningful word combinations

b)

Imitate adult grammar accurately

c)

Spontaneously utter various sounds

d)

Understand abstract symbolic rules

39.

Aversive conditioning aims to pair an unwanted behavior with:

a)

Neutral stimulus with no effect

b)

Pleasant reinforcement schedule

c)

Unpleasant stimulus like nausea

d)

Cognitive reappraisal technique

40.

Barbiturates primarily affect the nervous system by:

a)

Stimulating arousal and attention

b)

Depressing central nervous activity

c)

Enhancing long-term potentiation

d)

Blocking autonomic reflexes

41.

Basal metabolic rate refers to:

a)

Energy used during intense exercise

b)

Resting rate of energy expenditure

c)

Maximum oxygen uptake capacity

d)

Calories stored as body fat

42.

Basic research in psychology is best described as:

a)

Immediate application to therapy

b)

Pure science to increase knowledge

c)

Commercial product development

d)

Policy-making and legal reform

43.

Erikson’s concept of basic trust involves a sense that the world is:

a)

Chaotic but controllable with effort

b)

Predictable and reliable through caregivers

c)

Hostile unless guarded constantly

d)

Randomly shaped by genetic factors

44.

Behavior genetics focuses on:

a)

Neural circuits of reward learning

b)

Relative power of genes and environment

c)

Stages of cognitive moral development

d)

Psychological therapies for phobias

45.

Behavior therapy primarily seeks to:

a)

Interpret unconscious conflicts

b)

Eliminate unwanted behaviors

c)

Resolve family communication issues

d)

Reconstruct self-narratives

46.

Behavioral medicine integrates:

a)

Genetics with neuroscience models

b)

Sociology with political science

c)

Behavioral and medical knowledge

d)

Economics with decision theory

47.

Behavioral psychology emphasizes:

a)

Unobservable mental processes

b)

Objective study of behavior

c)

Subjective self-report methods

d)

Phenomenological experiences

48.

Behaviorism originally argued psychology should:

a)

Study conscious thought content

b)

Be an objective science of behavior

c)

Focus on introspective analysis

d)

Center on innate personality types

49.

Belief perseverance refers to:

a)

Abandoning views after disconfirmation

b)

Clinging to discredited conceptions

c)

Updating beliefs with new evidence

d)

Withholding judgment until consensus

50.

Binge-eating disorder is marked by episodes of:

a)

Overeating followed by purging

b)

Restricting intake with fasting

c)

Distress without compensatory purging

d)

Compulsive chewing without swallowing

51.

Binocular cues for depth include:

a)

Texture gradient and motion parallax

b)

Retinal disparity and convergence

c)

Lightness constancy and shading

d)

Interposition and relative height

52.

Biofeedback systems do which of the following?

a)

Automatically adjust hormone levels

b)

Record and feed back subtle physiological states

c)

Remove sensory input from the cortex

d)

Block spinal reflexes during stress

53.

Biological psychology examines:

a)

Links between biology and behavior

b)

Stages of social moral reasoning

c)

Dynamic unconscious conflict models

d)

Cultural narratives of identity

54.

Biomedical therapy primarily uses:

a)

Talk-based cognitive restructuring

b)

Prescribed medications or procedures

c)

Community reinforcement programs

d)

Exposure with response prevention

55.

The biopsychological approach integrates:

a)

Only genetic and neural factors

b)

Psychological and cultural levels

c)

Social and economic policy

d)

Philosophical and ethical theories

56.

Bipolar disorder typically involves alternating between:

a)

Phobia and compulsion cycles

b)

Hopeless depression and manic states

c)

Panic attacks and social withdrawal

d)

Hallucinations and delusions

57.

The blind spot exists because:

a)

Rod cells saturate in bright light

b)

No receptor cells at optic disc

c)

Lens focuses images imperfectly

d)

Fovea lacks cone photopigments

58.

Bottom-up processing begins with:

a)

Expectations shaping perception

b)

Sensory receptors feeding to brain

c)

Long-term memory associations

d)

Top-down predictive coding

59.

The brainstem is best described as:

a)

Newest neocortical association area

b)

Oldest part and central core of brain

c)

Primary center for moral judgment

d)

Regional hub for episodic memory

60.

Broca’s area is primarily involved in:

a)

Language comprehension and semantics

b)

Motor speech production in frontal lobe

c)

Auditory processing of phonemes

d)

Visual word form recognition

61.

Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:

a)

Restrictive fasting without binging

b)

Binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors

c)

Stable weight and healthy eating patterns

d)

Obsessive calorie counting alone

62.

The bystander effect refers to the tendency for:

a)

Individuals to help more in crowds

b)

Observers to intervene quickly

c)

People to be less likely to help

d)

Victims to refuse assistance

63.

The Cannon–Bard theory proposes that emotion results from:

a)

Sequential bodily arousal then feeling

b)

Simultaneous physiological and subjective responses

c)

Cognitive appraisal preceding arousal

d)

Learned associations shaping feelings

64.

In research, a case study is:

a)

Controlled group experiment

b)

Depth analysis of one individual

c)

Randomized double-blind trial

d)

Cross-sectional survey of many

65.

Catharsis in emotion theory suggests that:

a)

Suppressing anger reduces aggression

b)

Releasing aggressive energy relieves urges

c)

Practicing mindfulness escalates rage

d)

Distraction increases hostile impulses

66.

The central nervous system consists of:

a)

Cranial nerves and ganglia

b)

Brain and spinal cord

c)

Autonomic and somatic divisions

d)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

67.

Central route persuasion occurs when people:

a)

Focus on superficial cues

b)

Ignore message content entirely

c)

Process strong arguments thoughtfully

d)

Follow authority without question

68.

The cerebellum primarily functions to:

a)

Regulate circadian rhythms

b)

Coordinate movement and balance

c)

Store semantic long-term memory

d)

Generate emotional valence

69.

The cerebral cortex is best described as:

a)

Brainstem relay for reflex arcs

b)

Interconnected neural cell covers

c)

Hormonal control center in glands

d)

Single nucleus for information

70.

Which best illustrates change blindness during a busy street scene?

a)

Failing to notice a new billboard after glancing away

b)

Recognizing a friend despite changing hairstyle

c)

Detecting slight color shifts in traffic lights

d)

Spotting a distant bird moving across the sky

71.

Chromosomes are best described as

a)

Threadlike DNA structures carrying genes

b)

Protein clusters storing cellular energy

c)

Membrane sacs transporting nutrients

d)

RNA strands regulating enzyme action

72.

Chunking improves memory by

a)

Organizing items into manageable units

b)

Repeating information without meaning

c)

Eliminating interference from emotions

d)

Encoding details using complex imagery

73.

Circadian rhythm refers to

a)

Biological clock regulating 24-hour cycles

b)

Rapid eye movements during dream sleep

c)

Neural patterns linked to learned habits

d)

Short-term arousal from sudden stress

74.

In classical conditioning, learning occurs when an organism

a)

Links stimuli to produce automatic responses

b)

Solves problems through insight and reflection

c)

Selects behaviors based on their outcomes

d)

Recalls facts using conscious strategies

75.

The cochlea’s main function is to

a)

Convert sound into neural signals

b)

Balance head movements during walking

c)

Protect hair cells from loud noise

d)

Amplify low-frequency air vibrations

76.

A cochlear implant works by

a)

Directly stimulating the auditory nerve

b)

Enhancing the eardrum’s natural vibration

c)

Filtering background noise in the canal

d)

Strengthening middle-ear ossicle motion

77.

Cognition encompasses

a)

Mental activities like thinking and remembering

b)

Automatic reflexes such as blinking

c)

Innate drives for hunger and thirst

d)

Hormonal cycles controlling sleep

78.

Cognitive behavioral therapy integrates

a)

Changing thoughts with behavior strategies

b)

Free association with dream analysis

c)

Exposure therapy with drug treatment

d)

Biofeedback with deep relaxation only

79.

A cognitive map is

a)

Mental layout representation of environments

b)

Step-by-step plan for problem solving

c)

Schema for categorizing social roles

d)

Timeline encoding of personal memories

80.

Cognitive neuroscience focuses on

a)

Brain activity underlying cognition

b)

Social norms shaping behavior

c)

Genetic inheritance of traits

d)

Cultural rituals across societies

81.

Cognitive psychology studies

a)

Thinking, memory, and communication

b)

Physiological stress responses

c)

Animal social hierarchies

d)

Human motor development stages

82.

Cognitive therapy aims to

a)

Teach adaptive thinking patterns

b)

Uncover repressed childhood memories

c)

Condition reflexive emotional reactions

d)

Increase serotonin through diet changes

83.

Collective unconscious refers to

a)

Inherited reservoir of shared memory traces

b)

Personal store of unique life experiences

c)

Learned norms within specific cultures

d)

Group decisions made by majority vote

84.

Collectivism prioritizes

a)

Goals of one’s group and identity accordingly

b)

Individual achievement above social ties

c)

Legal rules over cultural expectations

d)

Private beliefs beyond public behavior

85.

Color constancy means

a)

Perceiving object colors as consistent

b)

Seeing colors only under daylight

c)

Detecting wavelength changes precisely

d)

Ignoring shadows in complex scenes

86.

Companionate love is characterized by

a)

Deep affectionate attachment with intertwined lives

b)

Intense passion driven by physical attraction

c)

Strategic commitment for social status

d)

Short-term infatuation with novelty

87.

A concept is

a)

Mental grouping of similar items or ideas

b)

Exact sensory image of a single object

c)

Emotional response to familiar events

d)

Rule learned through classical conditioning

88.

In conditioning, a conditioned reinforcer gains power by

a)

Association with a primary reinforcer

b)

Immediate satisfaction of biological needs

c)

Removal of unpleasant stimuli directly

d)

Scheduled delivery after fixed intervals

89.

A conditioned response is

a)

Learned reaction to a previously neutral stimulus

b)

Innate reflex triggered by loud sounds

c)

Voluntary behavior chosen for rewards

d)

Memory-based answer to a familiar cue

90.

Conduction hearing loss results from

a)

Damage to the mechanical system of the ear

b)

Loss of hair cells in the inner ear

c)

Injury to the auditory cortex pathways

d)

Impaired neurotransmitter release in synapses

91.

Cones in the eye are specialized for

a)

Daylight vision and fine detail

b)

Peripheral motion detection

c)

Night vision and dim light

d)

Depth perception and balance

92.

Confirmation bias leads people to

a)

Seek supporting evidence and ignore contradictions

b)

Randomly sample all available information

c)

Prefer novel data over familiar sources

d)

Overestimate chance over causal patterns

93.

Conflict is best defined as

a)

Perceived incompatibility of actions or goals

b)

Temporary confusion about instructions

c)

Mild annoyance with minor inconveniences

d)

Routine debate without strong stakes

94.

Conformity involves

a)

Adjusting behavior or thinking to a group standard

b)

Resisting peer pressure despite social costs

c)

Following personal values regardless of norms

d)

Accepting leadership roles within teams

95.

A confounding variable is

a)

Factor other than the independent variable that may affect results

b)

Secondary outcome measured for exploration

c)

Random error influencing data collection

d)

Control condition used for baseline

96.

Consciousness refers to

a)

Awareness of ourselves and environment

b)

Automatic processing without attention

c)

Subconscious drives shaping impulses

d)

Physiological arousal from stress

97.

Conservation in child cognition means understanding that

a)

Properties like mass and number remain despite changes in form

b)

All objects move unless forces stop them

c)

Memory improves with repeated rehearsal

d)

Language follows innate grammatical rules

98.

Content validity is the extent to which a test

a)

Samples the behavior of interest

b)

Predicts future performance

c)

Produces consistent scores

d)

Avoids cultural bias

99.

Continuous reinforcement involves

a)

Reinforcing the desired response every time

b)

Rewarding after variable intervals

c)

Punishing unwanted behaviors intermittently

d)

Pairing neutral cues with primary rewards

100.

In experiments, the control group

a)

Is not exposed to the treatment and serves as comparison

b)

Receives double the dose of the treatment

c)

Is randomly selected but given no tasks

d)

Controls the timing of the manipulations

101.

Which description best fits conversion disorder?

a)

Neurological symptoms without medical cause

b)

Chronic vessel clogging causing heart death

c)

Split awareness with alternating identities

d)

Defense mechanism refusing painful reality

102.

Coronary heart disease primarily involves what process?

a)

Clogging of coronary vessels

b)

Loss of neural connections

c)

Decrease in activity by depressants

d)

Increase in creative idea production

103.

What is the corpus callosum?

a)

Large neural fibers connecting hemispheres

b)

Branching neuron extensions for messages

c)

Protective mechanism reducing anxiety

d)

Brainwave pattern associated with deep sleep

104.

Correlation is best defined as what?

a)

Extent to which two factors vary together

b)

Causal influence from one variable to another

c)

Ability to judge distance and dimensions

d)

Post-experimental explanation to participants

105.

Which statement captures correlation coefficient?

a)

Statistical index from −1 to +1

b)

Minimum difference for detection

c)

Outcome factor measured by study

d)

Ability to see two images as one

106.

Counterconditioning aims to achieve what outcome?

a)

New responses to stimuli to reduce aversion

b)

Split consciousness allowing dual behaviors

c)

Loss of self-awareness fostering anonymity

d)

Restructuring thinking during stressful events

107.

What does a critical period refer to?

a)

Optimal time early in life for proper development

b)

Post-experimental explanation of procedures

c)

Minimum stimulus difference for detection

d)

Ability to judge distance and dimensions

108.

A cross-sectional study compares what groups?

a)

Different age groups at one time

b)

Same participants tracked over years

c)

Twins reared together and apart

d)

Experimental and control conditions

109.

Crystallized intelligence tends to do what with age?

a)

Increase with accumulated knowledge

b)

Decrease due to neural pruning

c)

Remain constant across adulthood

d)

Fluctuate with sleep brain waves

110.

CT (computed tomography) produces which output?

a)

Composite X‑ray representation of a slice

b)

Electrical activity map of brain waves

c)

Metabolic glucose consumption image

d)

Three-dimensional MRI of soft tissue

111.

Culture refers to shared what among a group?

a)

Behaviors, ideas, attitudes, and traditions

b)

Genetic molecules making up chromosomes

c)

Outcome factors measured by scientists

d)

Branching neuron extensions called dendrites

112.

Debriefing after an experiment should include what?

a)

Purpose and any deceptions explained

b)

Reinforcement schedule for responses

c)

Training to restructure stressful thoughts

d)

Measures to block unconscious distortions

113.

Defense mechanisms primarily serve which function?

a)

Reduce anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality

b)

Connect hemispheres to carry messages

c)

Measure correlation strength between variables

d)

Detect minimum stimulus differences

114.

Deindividuation most likely results in what?

a)

Loss of self-awareness in arousing situations

b)

Enhanced personal restraint during group tasks

c)

Improved critical evaluation of assumptions

d)

Creation of novel and valuable ideas

115.

Déjà vu can occur when what happens?

a)

Current cues trigger retrieval of earlier experience

b)

Unconscious denial blocks painful memories

c)

New responses are conditioned to stimuli

d)

Cultural values transmit across generations

116.

Delta waves are associated with which state?

a)

Slow brain waves during deep sleep

b)

Fast waves during alert attention

c)

Irregular waves during REM dream

d)

Suppressed waves by depressant drugs

117.

Which option best defines delusions?

a)

False beliefs of persecution or grandeur

b)

Defense to refuse painful realities

c)

Split in consciousness allowing dual acts

d)

Outcome factor measured by experiments

118.

Dendrites in neurons primarily do what?

a)

Receive messages and conduct impulses

b)

Carry signals across synapse gaps

c)

Insulate axons to speed conduction

d)

Release neurotransmitters into clefts

119.

Denial operates as what?

a)

Defense mechanism refusing painful realities

b)

Outcome factor varying with manipulation

c)

Learned ability to distinguish stimuli

d)

Stimulus eliciting response after reinforcement

120.

Depressants primarily affect behavior by doing what?

a)

Reducing neural activity and slow body functions

b)

Enhancing deep sleep delta wave frequency

c)

Producing false beliefs of grand persecution

d)

Increasing creativity and novel idea output

121.

Depth perception allows you to do what?

a)

Judge distance when images are two-dimensional

b)

Detect small differences at fifty percent threshold

c)

Pair learned responses with reinforcement

d)

Explain procedures and deceptions post-study

122.

Developmental psychology focuses on what domain?

a)

Physical, cognitive, and social change across life

b)

Neural pathways connecting brain hemispheres

c)

Defense processes that distort difficult realities

d)

Index of relationship strength between variables

123.

Which description matches developmental psychology as a science?

a)

Scientific study of change across the life span

b)

Measurement of brain waves during deep sleep

c)

Study of drugs that slow body functions

d)

Analysis of branching neuron extensions

124.

Difference threshold refers to which measurement?

a)

Minimum difference detectable half the time

b)

Statistical index ranging from −1 to +1

c)

Outcome factor responding to manipulations

d)

Ability to see two images as single depth

125.

Discrimination can mean what in social behavior?

a)

Unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group

b)

Learned ability to distinguish conditioned signals

c)

Defense process of redirecting impulses safely

d)

Loss of awareness in arousing group settings

126.

In classical conditioning, discrimination refers to what ability?

a)

Distinguish CS from similar non-signals

b)

Generalize response to related stimuli

c)

Elicit response after reinforcement given

d)

Reduce anxiety by distorting reality

127.

In operant conditioning, a discriminative stimulus is one that does what?

a)

Elicits a response after reinforcement association

b)

Blocks painful realities through denial

c)

Signals a split in consciousness events

d)

Measures index of relationship strength

128.

Displacement typically redirects impulses toward what?

a)

A safer or more acceptable target

b)

The original source of frustration

c)

Unrelated cultural traditions and values

d)

A deep sleep pattern of brain waves

129.

Dissociation involves what change in consciousness?

a)

Split awareness allowing simultaneous behaviors

b)

Complete loss of memory due to repression

c)

Enhanced critical evaluation of assumptions

d)

Unconscious blocking of painful realities

130.

Dissociative disorders are characterized by what feature?

a)

Awareness separated from memories and feelings

b)

Unjustifiable negative behavior toward groups

c)

Increased creativity producing novel ideas

d)

Ability to judge distance and dimensions

131.

Dissociative Identity Disorder includes which pattern?

a)

Two or more distinct alternating personalities

b)

Defensive refusal to accept painful realities

c)

Drug-induced slowing of body functions

d)

Brain fiber bundle connecting hemispheres

132.

DNA is best described as what?

a)

Complex molecule carrying genetic information

b)

Outcome factor measured in experiments

c)

Branching extension conducting neural messages

d)

Composite X‑ray representation of a slice

133.

Donald Meichenbaum is known for offering which training?

a)

Stress inoculation to restructure thinking

b)

Classical conditioning of discriminative signals

c)

Debriefing procedures after experiments

d)

Defense mechanisms for anxiety reduction

134.

MATCH the term to its best description.

a)

Correlation coefficient

1.

Index from −1 to +1

b)

Debriefing

2.

Post-study explanation of purpose and deception

c)

Displacement

3.

Redirecting impulses to safer target

d)

Discriminative stimulus

4.

Stimulus eliciting response after reinforcement

135.

Which of the following are defense mechanisms?

a)

Denial refusing to accept painful realities

b)

Displacement redirecting aggressive impulses

c)

Debriefing explaining procedures and deceptions

d)

Dissociation splitting awareness into streams

136.

Which scenario best illustrates a double-blind procedure in a drug study?

a)

Participants and researchers know group assignments

b)

Only participants know if they got placebo or drug

c)

Neither participants nor researchers know treatment assignment

d)

Researchers know assignments but participants do not

137.

Down syndrome is primarily associated with which genetic condition?

a)

Deletion on chromosome 15

b)

Extra copy of chromosome 21

c)

Mutation on X chromosome

d)

Trisomy on chromosome 13

138.

Which statement best captures the nature of dreams?

a)

Purely random neural firings without meaning

b)

Sequences of images, emotions, and thoughts during sleep

c)

Accurate predictions of future events during REM

d)

Continuous logical narratives remembered fully

139.

Drive-reduction theory proposes that behavior is motivated by

a)

External rewards creating learned goals

b)

Physiological needs creating internal tension

c)

Cognitive expectations shaping outcomes

d)

Cultural norms defining proper actions

140.

DSM-IV-TR is primarily used to

a)

Rank treatment effectiveness across clinics

b)

Diagnose and classify mental disorders

c)

Measure personality traits in healthy adults

d)

Predict relapse risk in substance use

141.

Dual processing refers to information being

a)

Handled on one conscious track only

b)

Simultaneously processed on separate tracks

c)

Stored in long-term memory immediately

d)

Filtered exclusively through attention

142.

An echoic memory trace typically lasts about

a)

One minute of exact auditory detail

b)

Four seconds of auditory information

c)

Half a second of visual snapshots

d)

Ten seconds of tactile sensations

143.

Which description best fits an eclectic approach to psychotherapy?

a)

Strictly using psychoanalytic methods only

b)

Combining techniques from various therapies

c)

Relying exclusively on behavioral conditioning

d)

Using medication without any talk therapy

144.

Which statement about Ecstasy (MDMA) is most accurate?

a)

A strong opiate producing respiratory depression

b)

A synthetic stimulant and mild hallucinogen

c)

A classic depressant with long-term sedation

d)

A pure psychedelic with no stimulant effects

145.

Educational psychology primarily studies

a)

How schools allocate funding budgets

b)

How social norms shape political beliefs

c)

How psychological processes affect teaching and learning

d)

How genetics determine intelligence scores

146.

Effortful processing involves

a)

Automatic encoding without attention

b)

Encoding requiring attention and conscious effort

c)

Unconscious storage of episodic details

d)

Immediate retrieval from sensory registers

147.

In Freud’s model, the ego primarily

a)

Enforces moral standards of the superego

b)

Operates entirely unconscious and instinctual

c)

Mediates demands of id, superego, and reality

d)

Suppresses pleasure to avoid anxiety

148.

Egocentrism in Piaget’s theory refers to a child’s difficulty

a)

Remembering previously learned facts

b)

Seeing another person’s point of view

c)

Balancing multiple motor tasks

d)

Following complex logical rules

149.

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is best described as

a)

Deep brain stimulation with implanted leads

b)

Brief electrical current under anesthesia for severe depression

c)

Cognitive restructuring for anxiety disorders

d)

Light therapy for seasonal affective disorder

150.

An electroencephalogram (EEG) records

a)

Blood oxygen levels in brain regions

b)

Electrical activity measured by scalp electrodes

c)

Neurotransmitter concentrations in synapses

d)

Structural images of brain tissue damage