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Body Fluids

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which topic focuses on the distribution across body fluid compartments?

a)

Body fluid compartments distribution overview

b)

Intracellular and extracellular composition focus

c)

General functions and roles of blood

d)

Sequential steps of blood coagulation

e)

Hormonal regulation of fluid volume

2.

Which learning goal centers on comparing intracellular and extracellular fluid make-up?

a)

Describe composition of ICF and ECF

b)

Explain distribution of body compartments

c)

Summarize major blood physiological roles

d)

Outline cascade of clot formation

e)

Discuss hormones controlling volume

3.

A student aims to review why blood is essential. Which objective fits best?

a)

Summarize the functions of blood

b)

Explain distribution across compartments

c)

Describe ICF versus ECF composition

d)

Outline steps within coagulation

e)

Discuss hormonal volume regulation

4.

Which objective specifically addresses the coagulation cascade?

a)

Outline the steps of blood coagulation

b)

Summarize the functions of blood

c)

Describe intracellular and extracellular composition

d)

Explain distribution of fluid compartments

e)

Discuss hormonal control of volume

5.

Which objective targets endocrine control over body fluid volume?

a)

Discuss hormonal control of body fluid volume

b)

Outline the steps of blood coagulation

c)

Summarize the functions of blood

d)

Explain distribution of body fluid compartments

e)

Describe composition of ICF and ECF

6.

In a healthy adult, total body water is approximately what fraction of body weight?

a)

About fifty percent of body weight

b)

About sixty percent of body weight

c)

About seventy percent of body weight

d)

About eighty percent of body weight

7.

Which statement best describes age-related differences in total body water percentage?

a)

Newborns have about thirty percent water

b)

Newborns have about seventy-five percent water

c)

Elderly individuals exceed seventy percent water

d)

Elderly individuals match adult sixty percent water

8.

Proper hydration most directly supports which cellular function listed?

a)

Production of bile pigments exclusively

b)

Stability of subcellular structures

c)

Formation of bone osteons only

d)

Synthesis of hemoglobin chains

9.

Which process depends on ion gradients maintained by hydration status?

a)

Keratin deposition in hair shafts

b)

Muscle contraction and nerve transmission

c)

Glycogen storage in adipocytes

d)

Vitamin D activation in kidneys

10.

In a typical adult male, fluids account for roughly what proportion of total body mass?

a)

About forty percent of total mass

b)

About fifty percent of total mass

c)

About sixty percent of total mass

d)

About seventy percent of total mass

11.

Which compartment contains approximately two-thirds of the total body water?

a)

Plasma compartment within blood vessels

b)

Interstitial fluid surrounding cells

c)

Intracellular fluid inside cells

d)

Transcellular fluid in specialized spaces

12.

Within the extracellular fluid, the larger subcompartment by volume is which one?

a)

Plasma at about eighty percent

b)

Interstitial fluid at about eighty percent

c)

Lymph at about eighty percent

d)

Transcellular fluid at about eighty percent

13.

Which factor most consistently lowers total body water percentage when comparing healthy adults?

a)

Higher adipose tissue content

b)

Higher skeletal muscle mass

c)

Lower dietary sodium intake

d)

Higher plasma protein levels

14.

Approximately what fraction of body weight is intracellular fluid in a typical adult?

a)

About ten percent of body weight

b)

About twenty percent of body weight

c)

About forty percent of body weight

d)

About sixty percent of body weight

15.

Approximately what fraction of body weight is extracellular fluid in a typical adult?

a)

About ten percent of body weight

b)

About twenty percent of body weight

c)

About thirty percent of body weight

d)

About forty percent of body weight

16.

Which barrier primarily separates plasma from interstitial fluid?

a)

Capillary wall with endothelial junctions

b)

Cell membrane with lipid bilayer

c)

Basement membrane of epithelia

d)

Mitochondrial outer membrane

17.

Which barrier primarily separates interstitial fluid from intracellular fluid?

a)

Nuclear envelope with pores

b)

Cell membrane with transporters

c)

Capillary wall with fenestrations

d)

Lysosomal membrane with pumps

18.

Which ion is highest in concentration within the intracellular fluid under normal physiology?

a)

Sodium near one hundred forty mmol per liter

b)

Potassium near one hundred ten mmol per liter

c)

Calcium near two millimoles per liter

d)

Chloride near one hundred ten mmol per liter

19.

Which statement best contrasts sodium distribution between compartments?

a)

Sodium predominates in ICF at one hundred forty

b)

Sodium predominates in ECF at one hundred forty

c)

Sodium equal in ICF and ECF at seventy

d)

Sodium predominates in plasma at ten millimoles

20.

According to the diagrams, which combination most closely matches average daily water intake sources in adults totaling about 2 L/day?

a)

Drink 1200 mL, food 500 mL, metabolism 300 mL

b)

Drink 800 mL, food 900 mL, metabolism 300 mL

c)

Drink 1500 mL, food 300 mL, metabolism 200 mL

d)

Drink 1000 mL, food 700 mL, metabolism 300 mL

21.

Which route accounts for the largest proportion of daily water loss in the steady-state adult shown?

a)

Urine about 1200 mL per day

b)

Expired air about 500 mL per day

c)

Sweat about 200 mL per day

d)

Feces about 100 mL per day

22.

Which statement best defines insensible water loss as depicted?

a)

Loss through lungs and skin not easily measured

b)

Loss exclusively via urine collection methods

c)

Loss only during heavy exercise sessions

d)

Loss primarily through gastrointestinal secretions

23.

Average insensible water loss is approximately how much per day in adults under moderate conditions?

a)

About 500 mL per day

b)

About 100 mL per day

c)

About 1500 mL per day

d)

About 50 mL per day

24.

Which conditions are shown to increase insensible water loss?

a)

High ambient temperature, exercise, fever

b)

Low ambient temperature, sleep, fasting

c)

High humidity, rest, hypothermia

d)

Dehydration, low salt intake, anemia

25.

In a steady state, the relationship between water intake and water loss is best described as:

a)

Water intake equals water loss over time

b)

Water intake exceeds water loss consistently

c)

Water loss exceeds intake by small margin

d)

Intake fluctuates more than any outputs

26.

If extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality acutely increases, what is the immediate water shift and cellular consequence shown?

a)

Water moves from ICF to ECF causing cell dehydration

b)

Water moves from ECF to ICF causing cell edema

c)

No net water movement with unchanged cell volume

d)

Water moves into plasma only causing hemoconcentration

27.

A decrease in ECF osmolality produces which new equilibrium according to the diagram?

a)

Water enters cells leading to cellular edema

b)

Water leaves cells resulting in dehydration

c)

Water evenly redistributes with no volume change

d)

Water accumulates in interstitium without cell effect

28.

Which statement best explains why severe diarrhea rapidly leads to dehydration in the figure?

a)

Seven liters pass through the gastrointestinal tract daily

b)

Total body water content is unusually low in adults

c)

Diarrhea decreases metabolic water production markedly

d)

Sweat losses exceed all other routes under rest

29.

A febrile surgical patient in a hot ward is breathing fast. Based on the diagrams, which proactive measure most directly maintains fluid balance?

a)

Increase fluid intake to match elevated insensible losses

b)

Restrict fluids to reduce urinary output volume

c)

Administer diuretics to prevent tissue edema

d)

Reduce dietary sodium to lower ECF osmolality

30.

Which statement best defines blood in human physiology?

a)

A connective tissue composed of cells and plasma

b)

A simple tissue made only of red cells

c)

A glandular tissue secreting plasma hormones

d)

A nervous tissue carrying electrical impulses

31.

Which regulatory role is attributed to blood?

a)

Maintain pH, temperature, fluid balance

b)

Control bone growth and mineralization

c)

Initiate nerve conduction and synapses

d)

Produce bile salts in the small intestine

32.

Which protective function is provided by blood?

a)

Immune defense and coagulation

b)

Mechanical support and leverage

c)

Thermal insulation in adipose

d)

Oxygen storage in myoglobin

33.

Approximately what proportion of whole blood is plasma in healthy adults?

a)

About fifty five percent by volume

b)

About forty five percent by volume

c)

About thirty percent by volume

d)

About seventy five percent by volume

34.

Which list correctly names major plasma proteins?

a)

Albumin, globulins, fibrinogen

b)

Myosin, actin, troponin

c)

Collagen, elastin, keratin

d)

Insulin, glucagon, cortisol

35.

Which component is classified as a formed element of blood?

a)

Erythrocytes circulating in vessels

b)

Water dissolved in plasma

c)

Glucose transported to tissues

d)

Sodium ions balancing osmolarity

36.

Which pairing matches a white blood cell type with a typical role?

a)

Neutrophils performing phagocytosis

b)

Basophils producing antibodies

c)

Eosinophils forming fibrin strands

d)

Lymphocytes releasing hemoglobin

37.

Which description best fits platelets?

a)

Small irregular fragments for clotting

b)

Large nucleated cells for gas exchange

c)

Elongated fibers for contraction

d)

Spherical organelles for digestion

38.

A patient loses plasma proteins, especially albumin. Which immediate physiological consequence is most likely?

a)

Decreased oncotic pressure causing edema

b)

Increased hemoglobin improving oxygenation

c)

Elevated pH creating respiratory alkalosis

d)

Enhanced clotting due to fibrin formation

39.

Which blood function primarily involves O2 and CO2 transport via red blood cells?

a)

Respiration by erythrocyte gas exchange

b)

Nutrition through plasma solute delivery

c)

Excretion through renal and pulmonary routes

d)

Regulation of temperature and osmolarity

40.

Which process best describes blood’s role in nutrient delivery to tissues?

a)

Nutrition via plasmaborne substrates

b)

Respiration via hemoglobin binding

c)

Defense via leukocyte activity

d)

Coagulation via fibrin meshwork

41.

Removal of metabolic waste through kidneys, lungs, and skin is primarily a function of which system mediated by blood?

a)

Excretion coordinating waste elimination

b)

Homeostasis maintaining pH balance

c)

Defense producing specific antibodies

d)

Hormone transport distributing signals

42.

Maintaining acid–base and fluid balance is most directly categorized under which blood function?

a)

Homeostasis regulating internal balance

b)

Defense against invading pathogens

c)

Coagulation forming hemostatic plugs

d)

Nutrition supplying cellular metabolites

43.

Which statement best identifies a regulatory role of blood?

a)

Controls water, temperature, osmotic pressure

b)

Transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Delivers amino acids and glucose

d)

Forms fibrin to stop bleeding

44.

Which component primarily mediates immune defense within blood?

a)

White blood cells and antibodies

b)

Platelets and thrombin complexes

c)

Albumin and fatty acid binding

d)

Erythrocytes and carbonic anhydrase

45.

Which plasma protein is most responsible for maintaining plasma colloid osmotic pressure?

a)

Albumin with broad ligand binding

b)

Fibrinogen as fibrin precursor

c)

Alpha globulins transporting lipids

d)

Gamma globulins as immunoglobulins

46.

Albumin binds several ligands. Which set is most consistent with its binding profile?

a)

Fatty acids, bilirubin, Ca2+, steroids

b)

Glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, urea

c)

Iron, heme, hemoglobin, nitrate

d)

Histamine, catecholamines, peptides

47.

Gamma globulins mainly serve which role in the body?

a)

Antibodies critical for immune defense

b)

Carriers of steroid hormones

c)

Precursors for fibrin formation

d)

Buffers of extracellular pH

48.

Which sequence correctly lists the three phases of hemostasis in order?

a)

Vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation cascade

b)

Platelet plug, vascular spasm, coagulation cascade

c)

Coagulation cascade, platelet plug, vascular spasm

d)

Vascular spasm, coagulation cascade, platelet plug

49.

Which event is the main outcome of the coagulation cascade?

a)

Formation of a fibrin clot that stabilizes the plug

b)

Dilation of vessels to increase local blood flow

c)

Activation of macrophages for wound debridement

d)

Generation of nitric oxide to inhibit platelets

50.

Which factor initiates the extrinsic pathway after endothelial injury?

a)

Tissue factor exposure and factor VII activation

b)

Collagen exposure activating factor XII

c)

Platelet release of ADP and thromboxane

d)

Calcium binding to gamma-carboxylated factors

51.

Which sequence best represents the intrinsic pathway progression?

a)

XII → XI → IX → VIII → X

b)

VII → X → V → II → I

c)

X → V → II → I → XIII

d)

XII → VII → X → II → I

52.

Which step belongs to the common pathway of coagulation?

a)

Conversion of prothrombin (II) to thrombin (IIa)

b)

Activation of factor XI by HMWK and kallikrein

c)

Exposure of tissue factor with factor VIIa

d)

Cross-linking fibrinogen to fibrin by platelets

53.

Which cofactor pair assembles enzyme complexes on platelet membranes during coagulation?

a)

Factors V and VIII serve as essential cofactors

b)

Factors VII and IX serve as essential cofactors

c)

Factors XI and XIII serve as essential cofactors

d)

Factors II and I serve as essential cofactors

54.

Vitamin K–dependent gamma-carboxyglutamate residues primarily serve what role in coagulation?

a)

Anchor coagulation complexes via Ca2+ binding

b)

Activate platelets through thromboxane synthesis

c)

Trigger fibrinolysis by plasmin formation

d)

Induce vasoconstriction through endothelin release

55.

Which mnemonic helps recall the extrinsic and intrinsic initiation leading to factor X activation?

a)

TENET: Tissue factor, Eleven, Nine, Eight, Ten

b)

SEVEN-UP: Seven activates Nine using Platelets

c)

VIVA: Five initiates via Vitamin K activation

d)

CLOT: Collagen leads to One then Thirteen

56.

A deficiency of factor VIII most directly disrupts which part of the cascade?

a)

Intrinsic pathway amplification toward factor X

b)

Extrinsic pathway initiation by tissue factor

c)

Common pathway conversion of II to IIa

d)

Stabilization of fibrin by factor XIIIa

57.

Which change best explains why coagulation is localized at the injury site?

a)

Assembly of enzyme complexes on platelet surfaces

b)

Systemic vasoconstriction of upstream arteries

c)

Widespread activation of anticoagulant proteins

d)

Rapid washout of factors by high blood flow

58.

Which immediate effect follows activation of factor X to Xa in the common pathway?

a)

Prothrombin is converted to thrombin with factor V

b)

Fibrinogen is degraded by plasmin into fragments

c)

Tissue factor is released from endothelial cells

d)

Factor XII is activated by exposed subendothelium

59.

Which statement accurately links thrombin activity to clot stability?

a)

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin and activates XIII

b)

Thrombin degrades fibrin polymers and limits clotting

c)

Thrombin activates tissue plasminogen to plasmin

d)

Thrombin inhibits V and VIII to reduce amplification

60.

Which coagulation regulators are directly inactivated by Protein C with Protein S as a cofactor?

a)

Factors Va and VIIIa

b)

Factors IXa and XIa

c)

Prothrombin and fibrin

d)

Tissue factor and vWF

61.

Antithrombin III primarily inhibits which set of serine proteases in the coagulation cascade?

a)

Thrombin, IXa, Xa, XIa

b)

Va, VIIIa, XIIIa, VIIa

c)

Plasmin, kallikrein, HMWK

d)

vWF, fibrinogen, collagen

62.

A patient with obstructive jaundice develops easy bruising. Which mechanism best explains the bleeding tendency?

a)

Reduced vitamin K–dependent factors

b)

Excess fibrin polymer stability

c)

Hyperactive platelet aggregation

d)

Increased thromboxane A2 release

63.

During primary hemostasis, what molecule bridges platelets together to form the temporary plug?

a)

Fibrinogen via GPIIb/IIIa

b)

von Willebrand factor

c)

Collagen type I

d)

Thromboxane A2

64.

Which event best characterizes platelet adhesion at a site of vascular injury?

a)

vWF binding exposed collagen

b)

ADP secretion from dense granules

c)

TXA2 synthesis from arachidonic acid

d)

Fibrin cross-linking by factor XIII

65.

Platelet activation is most directly associated with which immediate release from platelets?

a)

ADP, Ca2+, and thromboxane A2

b)

vWF and factor VIII

c)

Protein C and antithrombin

d)

Plasmin and kallikrein

66.

A new anticoagulant selectively enhances antithrombin III activity. Which laboratory change is most expected?

a)

Reduced thrombin and factor Xa activity

b)

Increased factor Va activity

c)

Enhanced fibrin cross-link formation

d)

Elevated thromboxane A2 levels

67.

A patient has lifelong mucosal bleeding and prolonged bleeding time. Lab studies show defective GPIb function. Which step of primary hemostasis is impaired?

a)

Platelet adhesion to vWF-collagen

b)

Platelet activation granule release

c)

Platelet aggregation via fibrinogen

d)

Fibrin mesh stabilization

68.

Which hormone primarily increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts by inserting aquaporin-2 channels?

a)

ADH released from posterior pituitary

b)

ANP released from atrial myocytes

c)

Aldosterone from adrenal medulla

d)

Angiotensin II from pancreatic cells

69.

Aldosterone’s renal effect is best described as which combination of ion movements?

a)

Increase Na+ reabsorption and decrease K+

b)

Decrease Na+ reabsorption and increase K+

c)

Increase Na+ excretion and increase K+

d)

No change in Na+ and decrease K+

70.

Which hormone is secreted from atrial myocytes in response to stretch and promotes natriuresis?

a)

ANP increasing Na+ and water excretion

b)

ADH decreasing water excretion strongly

c)

Aldosterone increasing Na+ retention mostly

d)

Renin increasing Na+ reabsorption directly

71.

During low renal perfusion pressure, renin release initiates a cascade. Which subsequent product causes systemic arteriolar vasoconstriction?

a)

Angiotensin II formed by ACE

b)

Angiotensin I formed by renin

c)

Aldosterone from adrenal cortex

d)

ADH from posterior pituitary

72.

Which pairing of hormone and source is correct?

a)

ADH — posterior pituitary gland

b)

ANP — ventricular myocytes primarily

c)

Aldosterone — adrenal medulla region

d)

Angiotensin II — pancreatic islets mainly

73.

A patient has high plasma potassium. Which hormone’s secretion would most directly increase to promote potassium excretion?

a)

Aldosterone enhancing K+ secretion

b)

ADH reducing K+ secretion mainly

c)

ANP increasing K+ retention usually

d)

Angiotensin II blocking K+ secretion

74.

Which sequence correctly traces the RAAS pathway from trigger to effector outcomes?

a)

Low perfusion → renin → Ang I → ACE → Ang II

b)

High perfusion → renin → Ang II → ACE → Ang I

c)

Low perfusion → ACE → Ang I → renin → Ang II

d)

High sodium → renin → ACE → Ang II → Ang I

75.

Which deficiency most directly causes prolonged bleeding in Hemophilia A?

a)

Factor VIII deficiency in the coagulation cascade

b)

Platelet GPIb deficiency affecting adhesion

c)

Vitamin K deficiency impairing gamma-carboxylation

d)

Fibrinogen deficiency lowering clot firmness

76.

A patient presents with extensive ecchymoses on the arm and abdomen. Anticoagulants are being used concurrently with a lupus anticoagulant. Which pathophysiologic process best explains the bruising pattern?

a)

Autoantibody-mediated Factor VIII inhibition with impaired clotting

b)

Platelet overactivation causing microthrombi and purpura

c)

Excess ADH leading to water retention and dilutional anemia

d)

Reduced albumin causing low oncotic pressure edema

77.

Which condition most likely leads to edema by reducing plasma oncotic pressure?

a)

Hypoalbuminemia decreasing colloid osmotic pressure

b)

SIADH increasing total body sodium content

c)

Thrombosis blocking lymphatic drainage globally

d)

Hemophilia A causing capillary hydrostatic failure

78.

A postoperative patient develops an inappropriate clot in a deep vein. Which best characterizes this complication?

a)

Thrombosis due to inappropriate clot formation

b)

Hemophilia due to intrinsic pathway failure

c)

Edema due to reduced plasma proteins

d)

Hyponatremia due to renal salt wasting

79.

A patient with excessive ADH secretion shows altered fluid volume. Which paired disorder shows the opposite defect in ADH action?

a)

Diabetes insipidus with reduced ADH effect

b)

Hypoalbuminemia with excess ADH effect

c)

Thrombosis with increased ADH production

d)

Hemophilia A with absent ADH signaling

80.

Which statement best describes total body water distribution in a healthy adult?

a)

Sixty percent of body weight is total body water

b)

Forty percent of body weight is total body water

c)

Seventy percent of body weight is total body water

d)

Thirty percent of body weight is total body water

81.

A patient has hyponatremia. Which compartment is sodium the principal cation of under normal physiology?

a)

Extracellular fluid compartment

b)

Intracellular fluid compartment

c)

Transcellular fluid compartment

d)

Intravascular cell compartment

82.

Which pairing correctly matches hormone with its primary role in fluid homeostasis?

a)

ADH increases water reabsorption in kidneys

b)

ANP increases aldosterone secretion directly

c)

Aldosterone decreases sodium reabsorption distally

d)

ADH decreases collecting duct permeability

83.

A trauma patient is bleeding profusely. Which sequence best explains the initiation routes leading to the common coagulation pathway?

a)

Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge to common

b)

Common pathway activates intrinsic then extrinsic

c)

Extrinsic pathway inhibits intrinsic pathway entirely

d)

Intrinsic pathway activates fibrinolysis preceding clot