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Digestive System Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Digestion includes which two processes?

a)

Filtration & secretion

b)

Mechanical & chemical

c)

Absorption & peristalsis

d)

Conduction & diffusion

2.

Which structure is not part of the alimentary canal?

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Esophagus

d)

Small intestine

3.

The alimentary canal wall consists of how many layers?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

4.

The mucosa primarily functions in:

a)

Contraction

b)

Protection, secretion, absorption

c)

Blood storage

d)

Hormone production

5.

Segmentation is best described as:

a)

Mixing movement

b)

Forward propulsion

c)

Backward flow

d)

Chemical digestion

6.

Peristalsis is:

a)

Stomach churning

b)

Wave-like movement of smooth muscle

c)

Secretion of enzymes

d)

Absorption

7.

The submucosal plexus controls:

a)

Motility

b)

Secretions

c)

Absorption

d)

Hormone production

8.

The myenteric plexus controls:

a)

Absorption

b)

Secretions

c)

Motility

d)

Hormone release

9.

Parasympathetic impulses:

a)

Slow digestion

b)

Increase digestion

c)

Stop digestion

d)

Convert fat to glucose

10.

Sympathetic impulses:

a)

Increase digestion

b)

Have no effect

c)

Inhibit digestion

d)

Increase nutrient absorption

11.

The mouth begins digestion through:

a)

Only chemical processes

b)

Only mechanical processes

c)

Both mechanical & chemical digestion

d)

Absorption only

12.

The tongue's papillae function for:

a)

Sound amplification

b)

Taste and friction

c)

Hormone release

d)

Deglutition

13.

The hard palate is formed by the maxilla and:

a)

Mandible

b)

Nasal bones

c)

Palatine bones

d)

Temporal bones

14.

How many primary teeth are present?

a)

16

b)

20

c)

24

d)

32

15.

Which tooth type is used for tearing?

a)

Incisor

b)

Canine

c)

Premolar

d)

Molar

16.

Enamel is found on the:

a)

Root

b)

Cementum

c)

Crown

d)

Dentin

17.

The periodontal ligament:

a)

Stores enamel

b)

Anchors the tooth

c)

Produces saliva

d)

Forms dentin

18.

Which gland produces mostly serous secretions?

a)

Sublingual

b)

Parotid

c)

Submandibular

d)

Buccal

19.

Salivary amylase begins digestion of:

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Carbohydrates

20.

Bicarbonate in saliva helps:

a)

Absorb nutrients

b)

Buffer acids

c)

Produce enzymes

d)

Store minerals

21.

Which region of the pharynx is for air only?

a)

Oropharynx

b)

Nasopharynx

c)

Laryngopharynx

d)

Hypopharynx

22.

The lower esophageal sphincter prevents:

a)

Swallowing

b)

Acid reflux

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Digestion

23.

During swallowing, the epiglottis:

a)

Opens the airway

b)

Closes off the trachea

c)

Secretes mucus

d)

Controls taste

24.

Peristalsis begins in which swallowing stage?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

None

25.

The esophagus passes through the diaphragm at the:

a)

Aortic hiatus

b)

Esophageal hiatus

c)

Pyloric opening

d)

Cardiac notch

26.

Which region is the upper rounded portion of the stomach?

a)

Body

b)

Cardia

c)

Fundus

d)

Pylorus

27.

Rugae allow the stomach to:

a)

Absorb nutrients

b)

Expand

c)

Produce bile

d)

Neutralize acids

28.

Which enzyme begins protein digestion?

a)

Lipase

b)

Pepsin

c)

Trypsin

d)

Amylase

29.

Pepsinogen is activated by:

a)

Water

b)

HCl

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Mucus

30.

Intrinsic factor is needed to absorb:

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B₁₂

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Iron

31.

Gastrin:

a)

Inhibits gastric juices

b)

Stimulates gastric secretions

c)

Neutralizes pH

d)

Slows motility

32.

CCK:

a)

Increases gastric motility

b)

Decreases gastric motility

c)

Stimulates acid production

d)

Stimulates saliva

33.

Chyme is:

a)

Undigested food in the mouth

b)

Food mixed with gastric juice

c)

Food in the esophagus

d)

Food in the small intestine

34.

The enterogastric reflex:

a)

Speeds gastric emptying

b)

Slows gastric emptying

c)

Stops digestion

d)

Stimulates vomiting

35.

Vomiting is coordinated by the:

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Pons

d)

Hypothalamus

36.

The pancreas acts as:

a)

Only endocrine

b)

Only exocrine

c)

Both endocrine & exocrine

d)

Neither

37.

Pancreatic lipase digests:

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fats

d)

Nucleic acids

38.

Trypsinogen is activated by:

a)

Enterokinase

b)

HCl

c)

Pepsin

d)

Secretin

39.

Secretin stimulates secretion of:

a)

Mucus

b)

Enzyme-rich juice

c)

Bicarbonate-rich fluid

d)

Gastrin

40.

CCK stimulates the release of:

a)

Pepsin

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Enzyme-rich pancreatic juice

d)

Bile salts

41.

The largest internal organ is the:

a)

Heart

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Stomach

42.

Nutrient-rich blood enters the liver via the:

a)

Hepatic artery

b)

Coronary vein

c)

Hepatic portal vein

d)

Renal vein

43.

Which is not a function of the liver?

a)

Detoxification

b)

Glycogen storage

c)

Bile production

d)

Producing insulin

44.

Bile salts function to:

a)

Digest proteins

b)

Emulsify fats

c)

Produce glucose

d)

Store vitamins

45.

CCK triggers:

a)

Gastric emptying

b)

Saliva release

c)

Gallbladder contraction

d)

HCl production

46.

Gallstones form when:

a)

Too much water is in bile

b)

Bile becomes too concentrated

c)

Bile salts are absent

d)

Liver produces excess bile

47.

Which is the first part of the small intestine?

a)

Ileum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Cecum

d)

Duodenum

48.

Villi contain:

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Lacteals

c)

Both A & B

d)

Neither

49.

Brush border enzymes are located on:

a)

Villi tips

b)

Microvilli

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Submucosa

50.

Plicae circulares are:

a)

Deep folds in SI

b)

Bile ducts

c)

Sphincters

d)

Lymph nodes

51.

The ileocecal sphincter controls movement into the:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Cecum

d)

Rectum

52.

Which is not part of the colon?

a)

Ascending

b)

Transverse

c)

Cecum

d)

Rectum

53.

Haustra are:

a)

Folds in stomach

b)

Pouches of colon

c)

Glands in pancreas

d)

Enzymes in saliva

54.

Teniae coli are:

a)

Circular muscles

b)

Bands of longitudinal muscle

c)

Sphincters

d)

Lymphatic vessels

55.

Primary function of the large intestine:

a)

Protein digestion

b)

Water & electrolyte absorption

c)

Lipid digestion

d)

Vitamin synthesis

56.

Intestinal flora help produce:

a)

Vitamins K & B₁₂

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin D

57.

The defecation reflex is triggered by:

a)

Stomach stretching

b)

Rectum stretching

c)

Liver enlargement

d)

Bile release

58.

As people age, peristalsis:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stops completely

d)

Does not change

59.

Lactose intolerance increases due to reduced:

a)

Pepsin

b)

Lactase

c)

Amylase

d)

Lipase

60.

What is the primary function of carbohydrates?

a)

Hormone synthesis

b)

Immediate energy

c)

Long-term energy

d)

DNA production

61.

Why is cellulose important?

a)

Provides protein

b)

Is stored as glycogen

c)

Provides fiber

d)

Produces ATP quickly

62.

Excess glucose is stored as:

a)

Protein

b)

Glycogen

c)

Lipids

d)

Urea

63.

What is gluconeogenesis?

a)

Making glycogen

b)

Making glucose from non-carbs

c)

Breaking down lipids

d)

Breaking down proteins

64.

Which lipid type is most associated with heart disease?

a)

Unsaturated fats

b)

Saturated fats

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Steroids

65.

LDL is considered:

a)

Good cholesterol

b)

Bad cholesterol

c)

Neutral fat

d)

A vitamin

66.

Lipogenesis converts:

a)

Proteins → glucose

b)

Fats → proteins

c)

Excess carbs → fats

d)

Vitamins → fats

67.

Essential fatty acids must come from:

a)

Liver production

b)

Fat stores

c)

Diet

d)

Muscle tissue

68.

Proteins are made of:

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Sugars

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

69.

Complete proteins contain:

a)

No calories

b)

All essential amino acids

c)

Only plant-based nutrients

d)

No nitrogen

70.

Deamination removes:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Iron

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

71.

Urea forms in the:

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Lungs

72.

Carbs and proteins provide how many kcal/gram?

a)

2.2

b)

4.1

c)

6.3

d)

9.5

73.

Lipids provide how many kcal/gram?

a)

4.1

b)

7.1

c)

9.5

d)

10.5

74.

BMR is affected by all except:

a)

Body size

b)

Thyroid hormone

c)

Temperature

d)

Hair color

75.

Leptin functions to:

a)

Increase appetite

b)

Stimulate hunger

c)

Suppress appetite

d)

Increase digestion

76.

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Transport excess interstitial fluid

b)

Absorb lipids from the digestive tract

c)

Produce red blood cells

d)

Defend the body against disease

77.

Tissue fluid becomes lymph when it enters:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Lymphatic capillaries

c)

Venous sinuses

d)

The thoracic duct

78.

Lymphatic capillaries are composed of:

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Transitional epithelium

d)

Fibrous connective tissue

79.

Which of the following correctly lists the lymphatic pathway?

a)

Lymph nodes → lymphatic capillaries → trunks → vessels

b)

Vessels → capillaries → nodes → trunks

c)

Capillaries → vessels → nodes → trunks → ducts

d)

Capillaries → nodes → vessels → ducts → trunks

80.

The thoracic duct drains lymph from:

a)

Right upper body only

b)

Entire body except the right upper quadrant

c)

Left upper quadrant only

d)

Lower body only

81.

The right lymphatic duct drains into the:

a)

Right subclavian artery

b)

Left subclavian vein

c)

Right subclavian vein

d)

Superior vena cava

82.

Which structure filters pathogens from lymph?

a)

Thymus

b)

Peyer’s patches

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Spleen

83.

Which region does not contain lymph nodes?

a)

Cervical

b)

Pelvic

c)

Axillary

d)

Central nervous system

84.

The thymus is largest during:

a)

Infancy and early childhood

b)

Adolescence

85.

The hormone produced by the thymus that stimulates T cell maturation is:

a)

Interferon

b)

Defensin

c)

Thymosin

d)

Complement

86.

The white pulp of the spleen contains primarily:

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Mast cells

87.

Which is an example of innate (nonspecific) defense?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Memory cells

c)

T cell activation

d)

Inflammation

88.

Which is considered the first line of defense?

a)

Fever

b)

Mechanical barriers

c)

NK cells

d)

Complement

89.

Which innate defense releases perforins to destroy abnormal cells?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Natural killer cells

d)

Plasma cells

90.

Fever reduces pathogen growth by causing the liver and spleen to:

a)

Release antibodies

b)

Take up iron

c)

Produce complement proteins

d)

Increase inflammation

91.

Haptens become antigenic only when they:

a)

Bind to antibodies

b)

Combine with a larger molecule

c)

Are digested by macrophages

d)

Enter lymph nodes

92.

T cells are activated only when they encounter an antigen-presenting cell displaying antigen bound to:

a)

Immunoglobulin

b)

Antibody

c)

MHC protein

d)

Complement protein

93.

Helper T cells function to:

a)

Directly kill infected cells

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Activate B cells and other immune cells

d)

Release perforins

94.

Plasma cells are responsible for producing:

a)

Cytokines

b)

Complement proteins

c)

Antibodies

d)

Interferons

95.

IgA is most commonly found in:

a)

Blood

b)

Exocrine gland secretions

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Lymph nodes only

96.

Agglutination is best described as:

a)

Antibodies binding toxic portions of antigens

b)

Clumping of antigens

c)

Making antigens insoluble

d)

Destroying antigen-presenting cells

97.

The first antibody produced in a primary immune response is:

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

98.

A secondary immune response occurs:

a)

Only during infancy

b)

When exposed to an antigen for the first time

c)

After re-exposure to the same antigen

d)

Only after vaccination

99.

Autoimmunity results from:

a)

Failure to distinguish self from non-self

b)

Excessive antibody production

c)

A lack of complement proteins

d)

Overactive macrophages

100.

Edema can occur when:

a)

Filtration equals reabsorption

b)

Lymphatic flow increases

c)

Lymphatic drainage is blocked

d)

Blood pressure decreases

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