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Pediatric Disorders Quiz

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Kawasaki Disease?

a)

A type of bacterial infection affecting children under 5 years old

b)

Acute systemic vasculitis affecting children younger than 5 years old

c)

A genetic disorder causing heart disease in children

d)

A chronic respiratory condition in children

2.

What is the major concern associated with Kawasaki Disease?

a)

Risk of coronary artery aneurysm

b)

Development of chronic respiratory issues

c)

Increased risk of bacterial infections

d)

Permanent joint damage

3.

Which symptom is characteristic of the acute phase of Kawasaki Disease?

a)

Skin peeling on hands and feet

b)

High fever lasting longer than 5 days

c)

Symptoms resolving but elevated lab results

d)

Joint pain and thrombocytosis

4.

What is the highest risk during the subacute phase of Kawasaki Disease?

a)

Myocarditis

b)

Coronary artery aneurysm

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Arrhythmias

5.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of Kawasaki Disease?

a)

Coronary artery aneurysm

b)

Myocarditis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Arrhythmias

6.

What is the recommended treatment for Kawasaki Disease within the first 10 days?

a)

High dose antibiotics

b)

IVIG (Intravenous Immunoglobulin)

c)

Low dose aspirin only

d)

Avoiding live vaccines immediately

7.

What nursing care is essential for children with Kawasaki Disease?

a)

Administering antibiotics regularly

b)

Monitoring heart function and educating parents

c)

Providing respiratory therapy

d)

Encouraging physical activity

8.

What is the primary cause of viral croup?

a)

Haemophilus influenzae type B

b)

Para-influenza

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Allergen exposure

9.

Which of the following is NOT a key symptom of croup?

a)

Barking cough

b)

Inspiratory stridor

c)

Drooling

d)

Hoarseness

10.

What is one recommended treatment for croup?

a)

IV antibiotics

b)

Cool air outside or steam from a shower

c)

Humidified oxygen

d)

Tongue blade inspection

11.

What is the most common cause of epiglottitis?

a)

Para-influenza

b)

Haemophilus influenzae type B

c)

Allergen exposure

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

12.

Which of the following is a key symptom of epiglottitis?

a)

Barking cough

b)

Drooling

c)

Hoarseness

d)

Symptoms worse at night

13.

What is a critical precaution when dealing with epiglottitis?

a)

Use corticosteroids

b)

Inspect the throat with a tongue blade

c)

Prepare for airway management

d)

Administer epinephrine

14.

Which of the following treatments is recommended for epiglottitis?

a)

Cool air outside

b)

IV antibiotics

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Epinephrine

15.

What is the primary method used to diagnose RSV and Bronchiolitis?

a)

Blood test

b)

Nasal secretion sample via suctioning the nose

c)

Chest X-ray

d)

Urine analysis

16.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of RSV and Bronchiolitis?

a)

Rhinorrhea

b)

Cough

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Wheezing

17.

What is one of the treatments for RSV and Bronchiolitis in high-risk infants?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Palivizumab

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Antihistamines

18.

What precaution is recommended for RSV and Bronchiolitis to prevent the spread of infection?

a)

Replace toothbrush after 24 hours

b)

Contact isolation

c)

Avoid soft foods and fluids

d)

Use antibiotics

19.

Which bacteria is responsible for causing Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

a)

Group A strep bacteria

b)

E. coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Salmonella

20.

What is a common symptom of Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

a)

Poor feeding

b)

Red tonsils with exudate

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Wheezing

21.

Which of the following treatments is recommended for Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

a)

Palivizumab

b)

Penicillin or amoxicillin

c)

Humidified oxygen

d)

Antiviral medication

22.

What is one of the preventive measures for Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

a)

Prevent rheumatic fever

b)

Use humidified oxygen

c)

Avoid contact isolation

d)

Administer Palivizumab

23.

What is another name for pertussis?

a)

Scarlet fever

b)

Whooping cough

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Influenza

24.

Which part of the respiratory system is attacked by the toxins released by pertussis bacteria?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchi

c)

Cilia

d)

Larynx

25.

What sound is commonly heard at the end of a coughing spell in pertussis?

a)

A wheeze

b)

A whoop

c)

A whistle

d)

A gasp

26.

How long is a child contagious after the cough begins in pertussis?

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

3 weeks

d)

4 weeks

27.

Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment for pertussis?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Large infrequent meals

d)

Humidified air

28.

What type of disease is pertussis classified as?

a)

Non-preventable disease

b)

Vaccine-preventable disease

c)

Genetic disease

d)

Autoimmune disease

29.

What is Beta Thalassemia Major also known as?

a)

Cooley Anemia

b)

Aplastic Anemia

c)

Hemophilia A

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

30.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Beta Thalassemia Major?

a)

Pallor

b)

Jaundice

c)

Enlarged liver and spleen

d)

Petechiae

31.

What is the primary treatment for Beta Thalassemia Major?

a)

Immunosuppressive therapy

b)

Frequent transfusions

c)

Neutropenic isolation

d)

Antibiotics

32.

What is the cause of Aplastic Anemia?

a)

Bone marrow failure

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Genetic mutation in hemoglobin

d)

X-linked recessive disorder

33.

Which of the following is a symptom of Aplastic Anemia?

a)

Growth delays

b)

Fatigue

c)

Enlarged bones

d)

Jaundice

34.

What is a common treatment for Aplastic Anemia?

a)

Iron chelation

b)

Bone marrow transplant

c)

Low impact sports

d)

Antibiotics

35.

What type of disorder is Hemophilia A and B?

a)

Autosomal dominant disorder

b)

X-linked recessive clotting disorder

c)

Autosomal recessive disorder

d)

Bone marrow failure disorder

36.

Who are typically carriers of Hemophilia A and B?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Both males and females equally

d)

Neither males nor females

37.

Which group is most likely to inherit Hemophilia A and B?

a)

Females

b)

Males

c)

Both males and females equally

d)

Neither males nor females

38.

What is the deficiency associated with Hemophilia A?

a)

Factor IX

b)

Factor VIII

c)

von Willebrand factor

d)

Platelets

39.

Which of the following is a symptom of Hemophilia?

a)

Nosebleeds

b)

Hemarthrosis

c)

Menorrhagia

d)

Vesicles

40.

What is the recommended pain/fever medication for individuals with Hemophilia?

a)

Aspirin

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ibuprofen

41.

What is von Willebrand Disease primarily caused by?

a)

Factor VIII deficiency

b)

Factor IX deficiency

c)

Low levels or lack of von Willebrand factor

d)

Platelet dysfunction

42.

Which of the following is a symptom of von Willebrand Disease?

a)

Prolonged bleeding

b)

Easy bruising

c)

Vesicles

d)

Hemarthrosis

43.

What is the treatment recommendation for von Willebrand Disease to prevent excessive bleeding?

a)

Use NSAIDs

b)

Avoid aspirin/NSAIDs

c)

Use ibuprofen

d)

Avoid acetaminophen

44.

What is the cause of varicella (chickenpox)?

a)

Factor VIII deficiency

b)

von Willebrand factor deficiency

c)

Varicella-zoster virus

d)

Platelet dysfunction

45.

What is a characteristic symptom of varicella (chickenpox)?

a)

Nosebleeds

b)

Vesicles that scab over

c)

Menorrhagia

d)

Hemarthrosis

46.

Which vaccine is used to prevent chickenpox?

a)

DTaP vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

Varicella vaccine

d)

Polio vaccine

47.

What is a common symptom of diphtheria?

a)

Koplik spots in the mouth

b)

Gray membrane on the throat

c)

Parotid swelling

d)

Muscle weakness

48.

Which isolation method is recommended for measles patients in a hospital?

a)

Droplet isolation

b)

Airborne isolation

c)

Contact isolation

d)

GI tract isolation

49.

What is a potential complication of mumps in males?

a)

Koplik spots

b)

Muscle weakness

c)

Orchitis leading to infertility or sterility

d)

Airway obstruction

50.

Which virus causes measles?

a)

Enterovirus

b)

Morbillivirus

c)

Varicella virus

d)

Diphtheria toxin

51.

What is a characteristic symptom of poliomyelitis?

a)

Koplik spots

b)

Parotid swelling

c)

Muscle weakness

d)

Gray membrane on the throat

52.

Which vaccine is used to prevent mumps?

a)

DTaP vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

Varicella vaccine

d)

Polio vaccine

53.

What is the recommended treatment for the itchy rash caused by chickenpox?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Calamine lotion and soothing oatmeal baths

c)

Antiviral medication

d)

Muscle relaxants

54.

Which symptom is unique to measles and appears in the mouth?

a)

Koplik spots

b)

Parotid swelling

c)

Gray membrane

d)

Muscle weakness

55.

What is the primary mode of transmission for diphtheria?

a)

Airborne transmission

b)

Contact/Droplet transmission

c)

GI tract transmission

d)

Nervous system transmission

56.

Which virus is responsible for causing mononucleosis, also known as the 'kissing disease'?

a)

Epstein-Barr virus

b)

Human herpes-virus 6

c)

Human parvovirus

d)

Coxsackievirus

57.

What is a common symptom of Roseola (Sixth Disease)?

a)

Slapped cheek rash

b)

Febrile seizures with sudden onset high fevers

c)

Painful oral ulcers

d)

Enlarged spleen

58.

Which disease is characterized by a 'slapped cheek rash' and lacy rash on extremities?

a)

Fifth Disease

b)

Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease

c)

Roseola

d)

Mononucleosis

59.

What is the primary treatment for Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Monitor hydration and treat symptomatically

c)

Antiviral medication

d)

Surgery

60.

Which vaccines are included in childhood vaccine considerations mentioned in the text?

a)

IPV and Hepatitis B

b)

MMR, varicella, and live attenuated influenza

c)

DTaP and rotavirus

d)

HPV and meningococcal

61.

What precaution should be taken for a patient with mononucleosis to avoid complications?

a)

Avoid contact sports

b)

Increase physical activity

c)

Consume high-fat foods

d)

Take antibiotics

62.

Which disease is caused by human herpes-virus 6?

a)

Roseola

b)

Fifth Disease

c)

Mononucleosis

d)

Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease

63.

What is a common symptom of Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease?

a)

Vesicles on hands and feet

b)

Slapped cheek rash

c)

Enlarged spleen

d)

High fever with febrile seizures

64.

A nurse is caring for a child with Kawasaki disease. Which finding is most important to report to the provider?

a)

Skin peeling on the hands

b)

Irritability

c)

Decreased urine output

d)

Cracked lips

65.

The nurse should include which instruction when teaching about IVIG therapy?

a)

Live vaccines can be given at the same time

b)

Fever will not return after treatment

c)

Monitor for allergic reactions

d)

Avoid all antibiotics for 6 months

66.

What is the best method to collect a sample for pinworm diagnosis?

a)

Blood test

b)

Tape test or pinworm paddle

c)

Stool sample

d)

Urine sample

67.

Which of the following is a symptom of giardiasis?

a)

Nighttime anal itching

b)

Foul greasy stools

c)

Skin rash

d)

Decreased urine output

68.

What is the recommended treatment for giardiasis?

a)

Antibiotics for 6 months

b)

IVIG therapy

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Tape test

69.

What precaution should be taken to prevent pinworm reinfection?

a)

Avoid swallowing untreated water

b)

Treat only symptomatic individuals

c)

Ensure proper hand hygiene

d)

Use antibiotics for 6 months

70.

A child presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Oral antibiotics

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Bronchodilators

d)

Antihistamines

71.

Which action is the priority for a child suspected of epiglottitis?

a)

Obtain a throat culture

b)

Insert an IV line

c)

Prepare for airway management

d)

Give oral fluids

72.

Which precaution should a nurse implement for an infant with RSV?

a)

Droplet and contact

b)

Airborne

c)

Protective

d)

Standard only

73.

Which instruction should the nurse give parents of a child diagnosed with strep throat?

a)

Discard the toothbrush after finishing antibiotics

b)

Stop antibiotics when symptoms resolve

c)

Aspirin is recommended for pain

d)

Return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics

74.

A child with pertussis is most likely to exhibit which findings rather suddenly?

a)

Low grade fever only

b)

Barking cough

c)

High fever and rash

d)

Difficulty swallowing

75.

A child with beta thalassemia major receives frequent blood transfusions. Which complication is the priority to monitor?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Iron overload

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Dehydration

76.

Which lab finding would the nurse expect in a patient with aplastic anemia?

a)

Elevated platelets

b)

Elevated hemoglobin

c)

Low white blood cell count

d)

High reticulocyte count

77.

Which action should the nurse take for a child with joint bleeding due to hemophilia?

a)

Apply heat

b)

Apply ice

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Administer aspirin

78.

Which treatment is commonly used for von Willebrand disease?

a)

Platelet transfusion

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Warfarin

d)

Aspirin

79.

A child with varicella may return to school when:

a)

Fever resolves

b)

Rash first appears

c)

Lesions crust over

d)

Itching stops

80.

Which finding is characteristic of measles?

a)

Strawberry tongue

b)

Koplik spots

c)

Slapped cheek rash

d)

Gray throat membrane

81.

Fifth disease is commonly recognized by:

a)

Koplik spots

b)

Vesicles on hands

c)

Slapped cheek rash

d)

Diffuse petechiae

82.

Which statement indicates understanding of treatment for pinworms?

a)

Only the symptomatic child needs treatment

b)

All household members should be treated

c)

Antibiotics are the first line treatment

d)

A blood test confirms diagnosis

83.

Which symptom is expected in a child with giardiasis?

a)

Bloody stool

b)

Oily foul smelling stool

c)

Severe constipation