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Exam 2: UNFINISHED

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to reach therapeutic concentrations in the bones?

a)

Ceclor

b)

Zinacef

c)

Cefobid

d)

Fortaz

e)

Cefizox

2.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which bacteria become resistant to Erythromycin?

a)

Mutation at the 50s ribosomal subunit

b)

Active efflux

c)

Hydrolysis by esterases

d)

Modification of the ribosomal target by a methylase

e)

Decreased influx

3.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY indication of Mupirocin?

a)

Rosacea

b)

Acne

c)

Dermatitis

d)

Impetigo

e)

Furunculosis

4.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in treating Buruli ulcer?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Capreomycin

c)

Sitafloxacin

d)

Tigecycline

e)

Cefaclor

5.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Tetracycline?

a)

Seysara

b)

Ketek

c)

Cleocin

d)

Dificid

e)

Ilotycin

6.

Which of the following is the active ingredient in the product A/T/S that is used to manage Acne?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Biaxin

c)

Achromycin V

d)

Dificid

e)

Azamulin

7.

Flagyl produces its pharmacological effects by interacting with which of the following enzymes?

a)

DNA gyrase

b)

Pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase

c)

Transpeptidase

d)

Isoleucyl-tRNA synthase

e)

5-Alpha reductase

8.

Which of the following inhibits Folic acid synthase and is employed in the treatment of Hansen disease?

a)

Sulfisoxazole

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Proguanil

d)

Dapsone

e)

Isoniazid

9.

Which of the following is the Sulfonamide preparation of choice for managing Burns?

a)

Silver Sulfadiazine

b)

Sulfathalidine

c)

Sulfapyridine

d)

Sulfanilamide

e)

Sulfisoxazole

10.

Which of the following Fluoroquinolones should a Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of Pneumonic plague?

a)

Finafloxacin

b)

Gatifloxacin

c)

Moxifloxacin

d)

Ozenoxacin

e)

Ofloxacin

11.

Which of the following is an indication of Flagyl? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Peptic ulcer

b)

Bacterial vaginosis

c)

Pseudomembranous colitis

d)

Dracunculus medinesis

e)

Trichomoniasis

12.

When dispensing Metronidazole, the Pharmacist should advise the patient to: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Take the drug with food

b)

Avoid concurrent ingestion of alcohol

c)

Avoid operating a dangerous machinery

d)

Expect to experience a metallic taste

e)

Expect a lighter coloration of the urine

13.

Which of the following is a 2nd-generation Cephalosporin which can reach therapeutic concentrations in the CSF?

a)

Claforan

b)

Rocephin

c)

Moxam

d)

Maxipime

e)

Zinacef

14.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Aminoglycoside?

a)
Zinplava
b)

Zemdri

c)

Benzamycin

d)

Biaxin

e)

Retapamulin

15.

Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of which of the following?

a)

Jail fever

b)

Q fever

c)

Murine fever

d)

Nine-mile fever

e)

Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

16.

During treatment for Meningeal plague, Mr. Bhash presented with severe diarrhea, abdominal distention, cyanosis, and cardiovascular collapse. Which of the following as Mr. Bhash MOST LIKELY being treated with?

a)

Omadacycline

b)

Tedizolid

c)

Colistin

d)

Tobramycin

e)

Chloramphenicol

17.

Which of the following statements about Linezolid is FALSE?

a)

It is available in the oral tablet and oral suspension forms

b)

Its half-life is about 4.5-5.5 hr

c)

It undergoes a non-enzymatic biotransformation to active carboxylic acid metabolites

d)

About 30% of the administered dose is excreted through the urinary system

e)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 31%

18.

When dispensing Zyvox, the Pharmacist should advise the patient to: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Avoid ingestion of fermented meat and red wines

b)

Get a Complete Blood Count done weekly

c)

Avoid excessive exposure to sunlight

d)

Take the drug with plenty of water

e)

Avoid operating a dangerous machinery

19.

Which of the following statements about Chloromycetin is FALSE?

a)

It is a protein synthesis inhibitor

b)

It works at the 50s ribosomal subunit level in the cytoplasm

c)

It stimulates protein synthesis within the mitochondria

d)

It causes Aplastic anemia

e)

It causes Pancytopenia

20.

Which of the following is a protozoan that Tetracycline HCl is effective against? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Balantidium coli

d)

Plasmodium falciparum

e)

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

21.

Which of the following falls within the antibacterial spectrum of Tetracycline HCl?

a)

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

b)

Chlamydia psittaci

c)

Hemophilus ducreyi

d)

Helicobacter pylori

e)

Propionibacterium acnes

22.

A Tetracycline is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in treating an infection that is caused by which of the following?

a)

Brucella abortus

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Francisella tularensis

d)

Vibrio cholerae

e)

Borrelia burgdoferi

23.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Tigecycline?

a)

Initial dose of 100 mg PO once

b)

Initial dose of 100 mg IV BID

c)

Maintenance dose of 100 mg PO BID

d)

Maintenance dose of 50 mg IV Q12H

e)

Maintenance dose of 50 mg PO QD

24.

In order to prevent the incidence of a Disulfiram-like reaction, a patient should avoid the concurrent ingestion of alcohol and which of the following?

a)

Keflex

b)

Cefotan

c)

Moxam

d)

Cefobid

e)

Zefazone

25.

Which of the following contains Doxycycline hyclate?

a)

Monodox

b)

Periostat

c)

Doryx

d)

Vibramycin suspension

e)

Acticlate

26.

When Nuzyra is employed orally in the treatment of ABSSSI, which of the following is the appropriate maintenance dose?

a)

450 mg QD

b)

200 mg QD

c)

50 mg QD

d)

300 mg QD

e)

100 mg QD

27.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is INCORRECT?

a)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 80-95%

b)

It does not penetrate the CSF

c)

It should be taken with food or milk

d)

Its pharmacokinetics is not altered by renal dysfunction

e)

Its half-life is about 15-25 hours

28.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase II?

a)

Xerava

b)

Amzeeq

c)

Xtorro

d)

Tobi

e)

Zithromax

29.

Which of the following statements about Maxipime is FALSE?

a)

It is administered IV and IM

b)

Its usual dosage is 1-2 g given every 8-12 hr

c)

It can produce glomerular and vascular changes

d)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of about 20%

e)

Its half-life is about 23 hr

30.

Which of the following is an indication of Cephalosporins? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Nosocomial secondary peritonitis caused by CAPES organisms

b)

Diabetic foot infection caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis

c)

Cellulitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Flesh-eating bacterial infection caused by Vibrio vulnificus

e)

Endocarditis caused by HACEK organisms

31.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Polymyxin B?

a)

Muscle weakness and numbness

b)

Oliguria and decreased BUN

c)

Neuromuscular blockade

d)

Circumoral paraesthesia

e)

Albuminuria and cellular casts

32.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Cefiderocol?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Seizures

c)

Asterixis

d)

Status epilepticus

e)

Hyperkalemia

33.

Which of the following is NOT an indication of Gentamicin?

a)

Chronic osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis

b)

Mycobacterium-avium intracellulare complex infection

c)

Impetigo and folliculitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Brucellosis caused by Brucella melitensis

e)

Cellulitis caused by Bacteroides melaninogenicus

34.

Which of the following about the use of Clindamycin is INCORRECT?

a)

It is used to treat Lemierre disease

b)

When combined with Primaquine, it is very effective for the treatment of PCP

c)

For the best treatment of Toxoplasmosis, it is combined with Quinine

d)

It is effective in the treatment of Babesiosis

e)

In the absence of Flagyl, it can be used to treat Bacterial vaginosis

35.

Which of the following Sulfonamide preparations is NOT matched with the condition for which it is the Sulfonamide preparation of first choice?

a)

Candida albicans-induced vaginitis → Sultrin

b)

Typhoid → Bactrim DS

c)

Malaria → Sulfadoxine

d)

Otitis Media → Sulfisoxazole

e)

Ulcerative Colitis → Azulfidine

36.

Which of the following tetracyclines is more lipophilic and have very high oral bioavailability?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Oxytetracycline

c)

Minocycline

d)

Tetracycline and Oxytetracycline

e)

A,B, and C

37.

Which sides (face) of the tetracycline interact with the 16S rRNA?

a)

Southern side of tetracycline

b)

Eastern side of tetracycline

c)

Northern side of tetracycline

d)

Western side of tetracycline

e)

No interaction with 16S rRNA

38.

Which of the following Erythromycin analogues is water soluble and used for parenteral administration (IV)?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Erythromycin lactobionate

c)

Erythromycin stearate

d)

Erythromycin palmitate

e)

All of the above

39.

SATA: Which of the following statement(s) about Azithromycin are correct?

a)

Azithromycin is very unstable because of rapid acid catalyzed internal cyclic ketal formation

b)

Azithromycin is a Beta Lactam Antibiotic

c)

Azithromycin is a Sulfonamide Analog

d)

In Azithromycin, the carbonyl moiety is absent and does not form a cyclic ketal

e)

Azithromycin has 15 membered lactone ring

40.

Alkyl substitution on the piperazine nitrogen (Ofloxacin) is reported to ________.

a)

Increase binding to GABA

b)

Increase binding to CYP450

c)

Decrease binding to GABA

d)

Decrease binding to CYP450

e)

All of the above

41.

Which of the following Fluoroquinolones has the lowest oral bioavailability?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Ofloxacin

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Moxifloxacin

e)

Norfloxacin

42.

To which class of compounds does this structure belong?

a)

Macrolide

b)

Fluoroquinolone

c)

Aminoglycoside

d)

Betalactam

e)

Tetracycline

43.

Erythromycin has ____ membered lactone ring.

a)

9

b)

12

c)

14

d)

16

e)

15

44.

Which of the following statements about Clarithromycin are CORRECT?

a)

Clarithromycin binds with bacterial 50s ribosomes and interacts with the 23s ribosomal RNA

b)

In Clarithromycin C-6 hydroxy group has been converted to a methyl ether

c)

Clarithromycin has 14 membered lactone ring & 10 chiral centers

d)

In Clarithromycin methyl ether prevents ketal formation

e)

None of the above

45.

Ciprofloxacin is a/an:

a)

Weak Base

b)

Weak Acid

c)

Amphoteric Substance

d)

Neutral Compound

e)

All of the above

46.

Sulfamethoxazole:

a)

Inhibits topoisomerase

b)

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

c)

Activates topoisomerase

d)

Activates dihydropteroate synthase

e)

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

47.

Which of the following Chloramphenicol analogues is water soluble and used for parenteral administration?

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Chloramphenicol Hemisuccinate

c)

Chloramphenicol Sodium

d)

Chloramphenicol HCl

e)

Chloramphenicol Potassium

48.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a)

Epitetracycline is inactive and toxic

b)

Anhydrotetracycline is inactive and toxic

c)

Tetracycline is inactive and toxic

d)

Oxytetracycline is inactive and toxic

e)

Epianhydrotetracycline is inactive and toxic

49.

Water Solubility of Erythromycin Salts:

a)

Erythromycin Stearate > Erythromycin Lactobionate > Erythromycin

b)

Erythromycin Stearate > Erythromycin > Erythromycin Lactobionate

c)

Erythromycin > Erythromycin Lactobionate > Erythromycin Stearate

d)

Erythromycin > Erythromycin Stearate > Erythromycin Lactobionate

e)

Erythromycin Lactobionate > Erythromycin > Erythromycin Stearate

50.

Which of the following erythromycin salt is water insoluble and used for oral route? SATA

a)

Erythromycin Ethyl Succinate

b)

Erythromycin Lactobionate

c)

Erythromycin Stearate

51.

Tetracyclines can lose approximately half their potency by the following chemical reaction. (INSERT PHOTO) What is the name of this reaction?

a)

Oxidation

b)

Dehydration

c)

Hafmann Rearrangement

d)

Epimerization

e)

Reduction

52.

When exposed to dilute acid conditions, Tetracycline undergoes ____ to yield inactive anhydrotetracycline.

a)

Oxidation

b)

Dehydration

c)

Hafmann Rearrangement

d)

Epimerization

e)

Reduction

53.

When exposed to dilute acid conditions, which of the following Tetracycline undergoes dehydration to yield inactive anhydrotetracycline?

a)

Tigecycline

b)

Minocycline

c)

Tetracycline

54.

Which of the following statements about Tetracycline is/are CORRECT?

a)

A-stereo orientation of the C-4 dimethylamino moiety of the tetracyclines is essential for pharmacological activity

b)

B-stereo orientation of the C-4 dimethylamino moiety of the tetracyclines is essential for pharmacological activity

c)

B-stereo orientation is more active than a-stereo orientation

55.

SATA: Tetracycline, Chlortetracycline, and Oxytetracycline form insoluble complexes with:

a)

Magnesium (Mg2+)

b)

Calcium (Ca2+)

c)

Iron (Fe2+)

d)

Bromine

e)

Methanol

56.

Minocycline can form insoluble salts through chelation with:

a)

Bromine

b)

Magnesium

c)

Iodine

d)

Methanol

e)

Ethanol

57.

Which of the following is MOST hydrophilic?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Iodine

c)

Methanol

d)

Ethanol

58.

Which of the following tetracyclines is MOST hydrophilic?

a)

Oxytetracycline

b)

Minocycline

c)

Tetracycline

59.

Sulfisoxazole has a pKa of 5.0. If the pH of the patient’s urine is 7.0, what is the ratio of dissociated to undissociated drug?

a)

5:95

b)

90:10

c)

1:9

d)

20:1

e)

99:1

60.

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is a widely used synergistic antimicrobial combination. What does it mean if two drugs have synergistic effects?

a)

They should not be used together because they inhibit each other

b)

It’s good to use them together because one drug changes the other drug to make it more effective

c)

They should not be used together because they would have toxic effects

d)

It’s good to use them together because they are more effective in combination.

e)

All of the above

61.

SATA: Sulfasalazine is a prodrug that undergoes reductive metabolism by gut bacteria converting the drug into

a)

Sulfapyridine

b)

Sulfacetamide

c)

Aspirin

d)

5-aminosalicylic acid

e)

Ibuprofen

62.

What is the target for the antibacterial drug Trimethoprim?

a)

Inhibits Dihydropteroate synthetase

b)

Activates Dihydropteroate synthetase

c)

Activates Dihydrofolate reductase

d)

Inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase

e)

Inhibits Tetrahydrofolate reductase

63.

Which region of the Fluoroquinolone skeleton is involved in binding interactions with the DNA/DNA-gyrase enzyme system?

a)

Region A

b)

Region B

c)

Region C

d)

Region D

64.

Which of the following statements about Erythromycin is CORRECT?

a)

Erythromycin binds with bacterial 35s ribosomes

b)

Erythromycin binds with bacterial 50s ribosomes and interacts with the 23s ribosomal RNA

c)

Erythromycin interacts with the 37s ribosomal RNA

d)

Erythromycin binds with bacterial 80s ribosomes

e)

Erythromycin binds with bacterial 30s ribosomes and interacts with the 16s ribosomal RNA

65.

Azithromycin has _____ membered lactone ring.

a)

9

b)

21

c)

15

d)

19

e)

14

66.

Chloramphenicol

a)

Binds to the 90s subunit of the bacterial ribosome

b)

Binds to the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome

c)

Binds to the 47s subunit of the bacterial ribosome

d)

Binds to the 30s subunit of the bacterial ribosome

e)

Binds to the 16s subunit of the bacterial ribosome

67.

Erythromycin is a/an:

a)

Fluoroquinolone Antibiotic

b)

Beta Lactam Antibiotic

c)

Sulfonamide Antibiotic

d)

Macrolide Antibiotic

e)

All of the above

68.

Tetracycline is a/an:

a)

Weak Base

b)

Strong Acid

c)

Amphoteric Substance

d)

Strong Base

e)

All of the above

69.

The drug illustrated below is a/an _____ analog.

a)

Fluoroquinolone

b)

Sulfonamide

c)

Beta Lactam

d)

Aminoglycoside

e)

All of the above

70.

Levofloxacin has ___ chiral center(s)

a)

1

b)

7

c)

0

d)

5

e)

4

71.

Sulfisoxazole is a/an

a)
Weak Base
b)

Weak Acid

c)

Amphoteric Substance

d)

Neutral Compound

e)

All of the above

72.

Substitution of a methoxy group at C-8 (Moxifloxacin):

a)

Increases the photosensitivity

b)

Increases oral bioavailability

c)

Decreases oral bioavailability

d)

Reduces the photosensitivity

e)

All of the above

73.

The oral absorption of all Fluoroquinolones is significantly impaired with co-administered with ______

a)

Antacids

b)

Low-Fat Meal

c)

High-Fat Meal

d)

Alcohol

e)

Grape Fruit Juice

74.

Which of the following statements about Levofloxacin is CORRECT?

a)

Ofloxacin is more potent than Levofloxacin

b)

Levofloxacin is more potent than Ofloxacin

c)

Levofloxacin inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

d)

Levofloxacin activates dihydrofolate reductase

e)

All of the above

75.

Sulfacetamide is a structural analog of _____

a)

GABA

b)

PABA

c)

GABB

d)

Folic Acid

e)

Vitamin C

76.

Tigecycline

a)

Binds with bacterial 35S ribosomes

b)

Is a macrolide antibiotic

c)

Binds with bacterial 50S ribosomes and interacts with 23S ribosomal RNA

d)

Binds with bacterial 80S and interacts with the 23S ribosomal RNA

e)

Is a tetracycline analog

77.

Erythromycin Stearate

a)

Erythromycin Stearate is a salt with enhanced water solubility that is used for injections

b)

Erythromycin Stearate is a very insoluble salt form of Erythromycin. The water insolubility helps mask the taste of the drug

c)

Erythromycin Stearate is a double ester prodrug

d)

Erythromycin Stearate is suitable for topical use

78.

the α-hydroxy aldehyde moiety is a center of instability such that Streptomycin cannot be sterilized by:

a)

Autoclaving

b)

Ultrafiltration

c)

Dehydration

d)

Hydrolysis

79.

Which of the following statements about Erythromycin is/are CORRECT?

a)

Erythromycin binds with bacterial 50s ribosomes and interacts with the 23s ribosomal RNA

b)

Erythromycin contains 14 membered lactone ring

c)

Erythromycin contains Cladinose and Desosamine

d)

Erythromycin contains 16 membered lactone ring

e)

Erythromycin contains only Desosamine

80.

SATA: Addition of a fluoro group to the 6 position of the quinolones _____

a)

Decreases Lipophilicity

b)

Decreases Hydrophilicity

c)

Increases bacterial cell wall penetration

d)

Increases lipophilicity

e)

Reduces the photosensitivity

81.

Reduction of the 2,3-double bond of the quinolones _____

a)

Decreases Lipophilicity

b)

Decreases Hydrophilicity

c)

Bacterial cell wall penetration

d)

Improves the Spectrum of Activity against gram negative organisms

e)

Inactivates the molecule

82.

SATA: Addition of a pyrrolidinyl Heterocyclic substitution at C-7 of the quinolones _____

a)

Decreases lipophilicity

b)

Improves the spectrum of activity against gram negative organisms

c)

Decreases binding affinity to GABA

d)

Increases binding affinity to GABA

e)

Bacterial Cell Wall Penetration

83.

SATA: Addition of an alkyl substitution on the piperazine nitrogen at C-7 of the quinolones _____

a)

Improves the spectrum of activity against gram negative organisms

b)

Decreases binding affinity to GABA

c)

Decreases the spectrum of activity against gram-negative organisms

d)

Improves the spectrum of activity against gram-positive organisms

e)

Decreases Lipophilicity

84.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Polymyxin B?

a)

Numbness

b)

Irritability

c)

Peripheral paresthesias

d)

Decreased BUN

e)

Albuminuria

85.

A medical team wants to treat Mr. Gua's seborrhea with a Sulfacetamide preparation that does not contain Sulfur. Which of the following should the pharmacist recommend?

a)

Klaron

b)

Plexus

c)

Prascion

d)

Rosanil

e)

Avar

86.

Which of the following is the primary indication of Besivance?

a)

Brucellosis

b)

Otitis media

c)

Otitis externa

d)

Buruli ulcer

e)

Conjunctivitis

87.

Which of the following is MOST LIEKLY to displace Sulfonamides from Albumin binding sites?

a)

Procaine

b)

Coumadin

c)

Indocin

d)

Dilantin

e)

Glyburide

88.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting DNA gyrase?

a)

Eravacycline

b)

Lincomycin

c)

Biaxin

d)

Collistin

e)

Levaquin

89.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY indication of Xtoro (Finafloxacin)

a)

Buruli ulcer

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Otitis externa

d)

Impetigo

e)

MRSA-induced ABSSSI

90.

Which of the following is NEST classified as a Pleuromutilin antibiotic?

a)

Mupirocin

b)

Lincoln

c)

Paromomycin

d)

Xenleta

e)

Zemdri

91.

Which of the following Fluorpquinolone is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of a skin infection that is caused by Mycobacterium ulcerans?

a)

Finafloxacin

b)

Delafloxacin

c)

Ozenoxacin

d)

Prulifloxacin

e)

Sitafloxacin

92.

Which of the following is the Sulfonamide of first choice for the treatment of Toxoplasmosis?

a)

Sulfadoxine

b)

Sulfadiazine

c)

Sulfamethoxazole

d)

Sulfapyridine

e)

Sulfisoxazole

93.

All of the following are classified as Aminoglycosides EXCEPT:

a)

Daptomycin

b)

Baymicin

c)

Netromycin

d)

Tobramycin

e)

Garamycin

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