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Exam 3:

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To which of the following virus groups does the causative agent of Bolivian hemorrhagic fever belong?

a)

Picornavirus

b)

Rhabdovirus

c)

Orthomyxovirus

d)

Arenavirus

e)

Papovavirus

2.

Which of the following produces its pharmacological effect by inhibiting the DNA terminase complex?

a)

Eteplirsen

b)

Letermovir

c)

Entecavir

d)

Adefovir

e)

Denavir

3.

Which of the following is NOT common to Protease Inhibitors that are employed in AIDS management?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Inhibition of the cleavage of HIV-encoded gag-pol polyproteins

c)

Biotransformation by CYP 3A4

d)

Oral administration

e)

Fecal excretion

4.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Chemokine receptor inhibitor?

a)

Enfuvirtide

b)

Zanamivir

c)

Mogamulizumab

d)

Taribavirin

e)

Viradine

5.

Which of the following binds to gp120 and prevents viral connection to CD4?

a)

Pleconaril

b)

Peramivir

c)

Selzentry

d)

Ibalizumab

e)

Temsavir

6.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Zidovudine? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Muscle weakness and Fatigue

b)

Lipodystrophy

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Hepatomegaly with Steatosis

e)

Myositis

7.

Amantadine is beneficial in the management of which of the following conditions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Parkinson's disease

b)

Restless Leg Syndrome

c)

HIV/AIDS

d)

Dyskinesia

e)

Extrapyramidal Syndrome

8.

Which of the following is used to treat Hepatitis C?

a)

Nusinersen

b)

Hepcinat

c)

ara-A

d)

Braclude

e)

Hepsera

9.

Which of the following is a DNA-containing virus?

a)

Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Rabies virus

d)

Vaccinia virus

e)

Measles virus

10.

Which of the following is the causative agent of Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy?

a)

Machupo virus

b)

Variola virus

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Echovirus

e)

John Cunningham virus

11.

Which of the following is an appropriate dose of Acyclovir for the treatment of Chickenpox?

a)

800 mg PO QD

b)

400 mg PO QD

c)

200 mg IV QD

d)

200 mg IV TID

e)

400 mg PO QID

12.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the “Quad” pill?

a)

A nucleotide

b)

Emtricitabine

c)

Cobicistat

d)

Tenofovir alafenamide

e)

Elvitegravir

13.

A patient who is receiving Acyclovir 800 mg PO 5 times a day for 7-10 days is MOST LIKELY being treated for which of the following?

a)

Cold sores

b)

Genital herpes

c)

Shingles

d)

Chickenpox

e)

Infectious mononucleosis

14.

Cytarabine is beneficial in the management of which of the following conditions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Burkitt's Lymphoma

b)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

c)

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

d)

Shingles

e)

Acute Granulocytic Leukemia

15.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Atazanivir? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Scleral icterus

b)

Cholelithiasis

c)

Nephrolithiasis

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia

e)

PR interval prolongation

16.

Which of the following statements about Reyataz is FALSE?

a)

It inhibits CYP3A4

b)

It is a substrate for CYP3A4

c)

It undergoes renal excretion primarily

d)

It is administered orally with food

e)

It should not be administered concurrently with Omeprazole

17.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor?

a)

Epivir

b)

Intelence

c)

Dolutegravir

d)

Pifeltro

e)

Aptivus

18.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to increase the hepatotoxicity of Raltegravir when administered concurrently with Raltegravir?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Selzentry

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Nizoral

19.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect during therapy with Isentress?

a)

Decreased levels of creatine phosphokinase

b)

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

c)

Suicidal ideation

d)

Myopathy

e)

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

20.

Which of the following is the vector of the St. Louis encephalitis virus?

a)

Aedes egypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex tarsalis

d)

Culex univitatus

e)

Culiseta melanura

21.

Which of the following statements about Lenacapavir is FALSE?

a)

It is administered orally and intramuscularly

b)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

c)

It is administered concurrently with Islatravir

d)

It is metabolized by CYP3A4 and UGT-1A1

e)

It has a high plasma protein-binding capability

22.

Which of the following is an Antisense oligonucleotide that is employed in the treatment of Hepatitis B?

a)

Afovirsen

b)

Fomivirsen

c)

Bepirovirsen

d)

Mipomersen

e)

Eteplirsen

23.

Which of the following inhibits DNA repair enzyme APEX nuclease-1?

a)

Trifluridine

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Zidovudine

d)

Brivudine

e)

Amantadine

24.

Which of the following produces its pharmacological effect by inhibiting the protein kinase activity of CMV pUL97?

a)

Maribavir

b)

Lobucavir

c)

Cidofovir

d)

Adefovir

e)

Boceprevir

25.

Which of the following is a purine analog that is employed in the treatment of CMV-induced retinitis?

a)

Phosphonoformic acid

b)

Phosphonomethoxypropyl adenine

c)

Dihydroxypropoxymethyl guanine

d)

Glucopyranuronosyl thymidine

e)

Bromovinyl deoxyuridine

26.

When given concurrently with Zidovudine, which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to enhance the hematologic toxicity of Zidovudine?

a)

Probenecid

b)

Aspirin

c)

Indocin

d)

Tylenol

e)

Acyclovir

27.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Tenofovir?

a)

Increased bone density

b)

Fanconi syndrome

c)

Renal insufficiency

d)

Osteomalacia

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

28.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Foscavir? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

1st-degree AV block; Atrial fibrillation

b)

Seizures; Hallucination

c)

Asthenia; Fatigue

d)

Irritability; Paresthesiasis

e)

Circumoral tingling and Numbness

29.

Which of the following is a patient who is being treated with Symtuza not receiving?

a)

Cobicistat

b)

Emtricitabine

c)

Darunavir

d)

Elvitegravir

e)

Tenofovir alafenamide

30.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Apretude 200 mg/mL?

a)

One injection every 2 months

b)

One injection every 3 months

c)

Two injections every 2 months

d)

Two injections given one month apart for 2 consecutive months

e)

Three injections given one month apart for 3 consecutive months

31.

Mr. Zot’s Hepatitis C is being treated with a combination of Pibrentasivir and Glecaprevir. Which of the following was Mr. Zot receiving?

a)

Harvoni

b)

Zepatier

c)

Mavyret

d)

Epclusa

e)

Hepcinat

32.

A patient who is severely allergic to Ritonavir only should NOT be treated with which of the following?

a)

Viekira

b)

Vosevi

c)

Mavyret

d)

Technivie

e)

Epclusa

33.

Which of the following should be avoided in a patient who is severely allergic to Dolutegravir?

a)

Triumeq

b)

Dovato

c)

Juluca

d)

Cabenuva

e)

Epzicom

34.

Mr. Ziu’s HIV infection is being treated with Delstrigo; Which of the following is he not receiving?

a)

Emtricitabine

b)

Tenofovir Disproxil Fumarate

c)

Lamivudine

d)

Doravine

e)

Ritonavir

35.

Which of the following is a NS5B polymerase inhibitor that is used to treat Hepatitis C?

a)

Boceprevir

b)

Telaprevir

c)

Ombitasvir

d)

Sofosbuvir

e)

Voxilaprevir

36.

Which function does this molecule have? (Zanamivir)

a)

M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

b)

Neuraminidase Inhibitor

c)

DNA Polymerase Inhibitor

d)

RNA Polymerase Inhibitor

37.

How many chiral centers are present in Zanamivir?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

38.

The following structure is called Valcyclovir. (INSERT PHOTO) Which amino acid is attached to this molecule?

a)

Serine

b)

Proline

c)

Valine

d)

Isoleucine

e)

Alanine

39.

The drug illustrated below is Acyclovir: (INSERT PHOTO)

a)

Acyclovir is a deoxyadenine analogue

b)

Acyclovir is a deoxycytidine analogue

c)

Acyclovir is a deoxyguanosine analogue

d)

Acyclovir is a deoxyuridine analogue

e)

Acyclovir is a deoxythymidine analogue

40.

Which of the following statements about Acyclovir and Valacyclovir is/are correct?

a)

Valacyclovir is a prodrug of Acyclovir

b)

Acyclovir has greater oral bioavailability (about 55%) than Valacyclovir

c)

Acyclovir is a prodrug of Valacyclovir

41.

Which of the following compounds is/are M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor?

a)

Insert Structure

b)

Insert Structure

c)

Insert Structure

42.

Which of the following compounds is a CCR5 antagonist?

a)

Abacavir

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Efavirenz

d)

Maraviroc

e)

Raltegravir

43.

Which of the following statements about Maraviroc are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Maraviroc is a protease inhibitor

b)

Maraviroc is a CCR5 antagonist

c)

Maraviroc is a HIV integrate inhibitor

d)

Maraviroc is a fusion inhibitor

e)

Maraviroc is a neuraminidase inhibitor

44.

Which of the following statements about Didanosine is CORRECT?

a)

Didanosine is a protease inhibitor

b)

Didanosine is a CCR5 antagonist

c)

Didanosine is a HIV integrase inhibitor

d)

Didanosine has low oral bioavailability (25%)

e)

Didanosine is an oligopeptide consisting of 30 amino acids

45.

Enfuvirtide binds to the ___ rich region of the gp41 protein.

a)

Alanine

b)

Proline

c)

Glutamic Acid

d)

Aspartic Acid

e)

Tryptophan

46.

Which of the following statements about Enfuvirtide is/are correct?

a)

Enfuvirtide is a decapeptide

b)

Enfuvirtide is an oligopeptide consisting of 36 amino acids

c)

Enfuvirtide is a thymidine analog

d)

Enfuvirtide binds to the tryptophan-rich region of the gp41 protein

e)

Enfuvirtide is a CCR5 antagonist

47.

Stavudine is a:

a)

Purine analog

b)

Sulfonamide analog

c)

Peptide analog

d)

Thymidine analog

e)

All of the above

48.

Zalcitabine is a:

a)

Nucleoside analog

b)

Sulfonamide analog

c)

Peptide analog

d)

Nonnucleoside analog

e)

Carbohydrate analog

49.

Which of the following statements about Oseltamivir is CORRECT?

a)

Oseltamivir has seven chiral centers

b)

Oseltamivir is a deoxyguanosine analog

c)

Oseltamivir is a M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor

e)

Oseltamivir is a deoxyadenine analog

50.

Which of the following statements about Valacyclovir is CORRECT?

a)

Valacyclovir is a prodrug of Acyclovir. Acyclovir has the high oral bioavailability than Valacyclovir

b)

Valacyclovir is the prodrug of Acyclovir. Valacyclovir has the high oral bioavailability than Acyclovir

c)

Acyclovir is a prodrug of Valacyclovir. Acyclovir has the high oral bioavailability than Valacyclovir

d)

Valacyclovir is NOT a prodrug

e)

All of the above

51.

Which of the following statements about Famciclovir is CORRECT?

a)

Penciclovir is a pro-drug of Famciclovir

b)

Famciclovir is a viral cell wall biosynthesis inhibitor

c)

Famciclovir is a M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Famciclovir is a neuraminidase inhibitor

e)

Famciclovir is a pro-drug of Penciclovir

52.

Which of the following statements about Zidovudine are correct?

a)

Zidovudine is a protease inhibitor

b)

Zidovudine is a CCR5 antagonist

c)

Zidovudine is a HIV integrase inhibitor

d)

Zidovudine is a nucleoside analog

e)

Zidovudine is a Thymidine analog

53.

Rimantadine is a:

a)

Nucleoside analog

b)

Sulfonamide analog

c)

M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Neuraminidase Inhibitor

e)

Carbohydrate analog

54.

Which of the following statements about Posconazole is CORRECT?

a)

Posconazole is isolated from Penicillium griseofulvin

b)

Posconazole belongs to the class of triazole derived antifungal agents

c)

Posconazole is a B-lactam antibiotic

d)

Posconazole is a fungal cell wall synthesis inhibitor

e)

Posconazole is a cyclic peptide analogue

55.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is CORRECT?

a)

Amphotericin B is a weak acid

b)

Amphotericin B is a strong acid

c)

Amphotericin B is a strong base

d)

Amphotericin B is a weak base

e)

Amphotericin B is an amphoteric substance

56.

Which of the following statements about Flucytosine is CORRECT?

a)

Flucytosine is a pro-drug. Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) by human cytosine deaminase

b)

Flucytosine is a pro-drug. Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) by viral cytosine deaminase

c)

Flucytosine is a pro-drug. Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) by bacterial cytosine deaminase

d)

Flucytosine is a prodrug. Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) by fungal cytosine deaminase

e)

Flucytosine is NOT a pro-drug

57.

Which of the following statements about Ketoconazole is CORRECT?

a)

Ketoconazole is isolated from Penicillium griseofulvin

b)

Ketoconazole belongs to the class of triazole derived antifungal agents

c)

Ketoconazole is a B-lactam antibiotic

d)

Ketoconazole is a fungal cell wall synthesis inhibitor

e)

Ketoconazole belongs to the class of imidazole derived antifungal agents

58.

_____ is a sterol found in cell membranes of fungi.

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Ergosterol

c)

Beta-sitosterol

d)

Prednisolone

e)

Betamethasone

59.

Fluconazole is a fungal ____ inhibitor.

a)

Cell wall biosynthesis

b)

Beta-lactamase

c)

14a-demethylase

d)

Nucleic acid biosynthesis

e)

PABA biosynthesis

60.

The number of conjugated double bonds correlates directly with antifungal activity in vitro. Amphotericin B contains _____ conjugated double bonds.

a)

4

b)

5

c)

2

d)

7

e)

9

61.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B lipid formulations is CORRECT?

a)

Amphotericin B lipid formulation must be diluted with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)

b)

Amphotericin B lipid formulations must be diluted with 0.9% potassium chloride

c)

Amphotericin B lipid formulations must be diluted with 5% dextrose

d)

Amphotericin B lipid formulations must be diluted with 0.9% calcium chloride

e)

All of the above

62.

Griseofulvin is isolated from:

a)

Penicillium chrysogenum

b)

Penicillium griseofulvin

c)

Streptomyces erythreus

d)

Streptomyces venezuelae

e)

Streptomyces kanamyceticus

63.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Clotrimazole

a)

Inhibits Squalene Epoxidase

b)

Triazole derived antifungal agent

c)

Pyrimidine derived antifungal agent

d)

Indole derived antifungal agent

e)

Inhibits Ergosterol biosynthesis

64.

Which of the following statements about Nystatin is CORRECT?

a)

Nystatin is a weak acid

b)

Nystatin is an amphoteric substance

c)

Nystatin is a strong base

d)

Nystatin is a weak base

e)

Nystatin is a strong acid

65.

SATA: Which of the following statements about Nystatin is/are CORRECT?

a)

Nystatin contains 38 membered lactone ring

b)

Glucosamine is attached to the macrolactone ring

c)

Nystatin contains 7 conjugated trans double bonds

d)

Nystatin is an amphoteric substance

e)

Nystatin contains 4 conjugated trans double bonds

66.

SATA: Amphotericin B contains:

a)

Mycosamine

b)

38 membered lactam ring

c)

38 membered lactone ring

d)

36 membered lactone ring

e)

Galactosamine

67.

Which of the following statements about Ketoconazole are CORRECT?

a)

Acidic pH is required for Ketoconazole absorption

b)

Ketoconazole is a fungal squalene epoxidase inhibitor

c)

Ketoconazole is a 14a-demethylase inhibitor

d)

Ketoconazole is a fungal ergosterol biosynthesis inhibitor

e)

Neutral pH is required for Ketoconazole absorption

68.

Which of the following statements about Tenofovir is CORRECT?

a)

Tenofovir has low oral bioavailability (25%)

b)

Tenofovir has high oral bioavailability (90%)

c)

Tenofovir is a cytidine analog

d)

Tenofovir is a pyrimidine analog

e)

Tenofovir is a DNA polymerase inhibitor

69.

Which of the following statements about Zanamivir is CORRECT?

a)

Zanamivir has three chiral centers

b)

Zanamivir is a deoxyguanosine analog

c)

Zanamivir is a M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Zanamivir is a HIV integrase inhibitor

e)

Zanamivir is effective when administered via the nasal, intraperitoneal, and intravenous routes

70.

Lamivudine is a:

a)

Purine analog

b)

Cytidine analog

c)

Peptide analog

d)

Thymidine analog

e)

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

71.

Which of the following Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors has the lowest oral bioavailability among all Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors?

a)

Abacavir

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Zidovudine

d)

Didanosine

e)

Stavudine

72.

Fungal cell membrane contains ____ and fungal cell wall contains ____.

a)

β-(1,3)-glucan, ergosterol

b)

β-(1,3)-glucan, cholesterol

c)

Ergosterol, β-(1,3)-glucan

d)

Cholesterol, β-(1,3)-glucan

e)

Cholesterol, Ergosterol

73.

Which region of the amphotericin interacts with the cell membrane Ergosterol?

a)

Hydrophilic Region

b)

Hydroxyl Group

c)

Lipophilic Region

74.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B lipid formulations is CORRECT?

a)

Amphotericin B lipid formulations are freely soluble in water and must be given orally

b)

Amphotericin B lipid formations are freely soluble in water and must be given subcutaneously

c)

Amphotericin B lipid formulations must be diluted with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)

d)

The lipid formulations transfer Amphotericin B to ergosterol-containing fungal cell membrane more efficiently than to cholesterol-containing mammalian cells

75.

Which of the following statements about Itraconazole is/are correct? SATA

a)

Itraconazole is a fungistatic agent

b)

Itraconazole is a fungal 14a-demethylase inhibitor

c)

Poor CNS penetration

d)

Itraconazole can cross the BBB

e)

Itraconazole is a fungicidal agent

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