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POLYGRAPHY AND BALLISTICS

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the act of deceiving or misleading usually accomplished by lying?

a)

Prevarication

b)

Deception

c)

Perjury

d)

Fabrication

2.

Which term refers to any untruthful statement made knowingly, especially with the intent to deceive?

a)

Lie

b)

Omission

c)

Error

d)

Misinterpretation

3.

What is the Medieval Latin term for "Ordeal" which translates to "Miraculous decision"?

a)

Vox Populi

b)

Dei Indicum

c)

In Vino Veritas

d)

Lex Talionis

4.

In the "Red hot iron ordeal" practiced in North Bengal, how many times must the accused place their tongue to the hot iron?

a)

Three times

b)

Seven times

c)

Nine times

d)

Twelve times

5.

Which ordeal involves using a scale to weigh the accused before and after listening to a judge's exhortation?

a)

Ordeal of the Bier

b)

Ordeal by balance

c)

Ordeal of the Cross

d)

Ordeal of rice chewing

6.

In the "Ordeal by rice chewing," what specific kind of rice is used?

a)

Basmati

b)

Sathee

c)

Jasmine

d)

Sticky Rice

7.

In the "Ordeal of the red water," the accused is considered innocent if they:

a)

Retain the rice in their stomach

b)

Eject or vomit all the rice

c)

Faint immediately

d)

Drink all the water without pausing

8.

Which ancient trial involves a physical fight between the accuser and the accused, where the loser is adjudged guilty?

a)

Trial by Torture

b)

Trial by Combat

c)

Trial of the Eucharist

d)

Trial by Water

9.

In the "Trial of the Eucharist," it was believed that if the accused was guilty, who would prevent them from swallowing the food?

a)

St. Peter

b)

Angel Gabriel

c)

The Holy Spirit

d)

Archangel Michael

10.

In the "Ordeal of the Tiger" practiced in Siam, what happens if both the accuser and accused are spared by the tiger?

a)

Both are executed

b)

Both are set free

c)

Further elimination follows

d)

The accuser is jailed

11.

In the "Ordeal of Red hot Needle," where is the needle drawn through to test for guilt?

a)

The tongue

b)

The lips

c)

The palm

d)

The earlobe

12.

Which ordeal relies on the psychological theory that a guilty conscience will make a donkey cry?

a)

Ordeal of the Tiger

b)

Donkey’s Tail Ordeal

c)

Ordeal of the Bier

d)

Ordeal of the Cross

13.

In the "Ordeal of the Bier," what is believed to happen to the corpse's wounds if the murderer is near?

a)

They will close up

b)

They will begin to bleed again

c)

They will turn black

d)

They will disappear

14.

In Greece, what object was spun at the center of a group of suspects to point out the guilty party?

a)

A sword

b)

A shield

c)

A suspended axe

d)

A golden arrow

15.

In the "Trial by water" used in Europe and the early US, if the accused sank, they were considered:

a)

Guilty

b)

Innocent

c)

Witches

d)

Cursed

16.

Generally, truthful people answer questions immediately, while untruthful persons tend to:

a)

Shout their answer

b)

Take their time

c)

Cry immediately

d)

Laugh uncontrollably

17.

Statements like "I swear to God I didn't do it" are examples of which verbal clue?

a)

Fragmented sentences

b)

Oaths

c)

Inconsistencies

d)

Repetition

18.

Which term refers to non-verbal expressions with clearly understood meanings, like a nod or thumbs up?

a)

Manipulators

b)

Emblems

c)

Micro-expressions

d)

Fidgeting

19.

Grooming hair or picking imaginary fur from a coat are examples of what non-verbal behavior?

a)

Emblems

b)

Manipulators

c)

Oaths

d)

Illustrators

20.

Which part of the anatomy is believed to express as much emotion as any other part?

a)

The hands

b)

The mouth

c)

The eyes

d)

The forehead

21.

Who invented Brain Wave Fingerprinting?

a)

Cesare Lombroso

b)

Lawrence Farwell

c)

Leonarde Keeler

d)

John Larson

22.

What specific electrical brain wave activates when a person sees a familiar object in Brain Wave Fingerprinting?

a)

Alpha Wave

b)

P300

c)

Beta Wave

d)

Theta Wave

23.

What drug is commonly used in the administration of "truth serum"?

a)

Sodium Amytal

b)

Hyoscine hydrobromide

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Penicillin

24.

Are statements obtained under "truth serum" admissible as evidence in court?

a)

Yes, always

b)

No

c)

Only in civil cases

d)

Only if corroborated

25.

What Latin maxim means "In wine there is truth"?

a)

In vino Veritas

b)

Carpe Diem

c)

Mea Culpa

d)

Vox Populi

26.

Who introduced the Word Association Test in 1879?

a)

William Marston

b)

Sir Francis Galton

c)

Cesare Lombroso

d)

Angelo Mosso

27.

What does the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE) detect in the voice?

a)

Volume changes

b)

Laryngeal micro tremors

c)

Pitch breaks

d)

Speed of speech

28.

From which Greek words is "Polygraph" derived?

a)

"Poly" and "Graphein"

b)

"Poly" and "Graphos"

c)

"Poli" and "Graph"

d)

"Multi" and "Scribe"

29.

Who was the first person known to use the term "Polygraph"?

a)

Thomas Jefferson

b)

John Larson

c)

Leonarde Keeler

d)

William Marston

30.

Who is considered the self-proclaimed "Father of Polygraph" and developed a method of reading systolic blood pressure?

a)

Cesare Lombroso

b)

Dr. William Marston

c)

John Larson

d)

Leonarde Keeler

31.

Who is considered the real "Father of Lie Detection" for recording blood pressure, pulse, and respiration simultaneously?

a)

John A. Larson

b)

Leonarde Keeler

c)

Vittorio Benussi

d)

Angelo Mosso

32.

Who is known as the "Father of Modern Polygraph" for devising a metal recording bellows and incorporating the Galvanograph?

a)

John Larson

b)

Leonarde Keeler

c)

William Marston

d)

Cesare Lombroso

33.

Who was the first Filipino trained at the Keeler Polygraph Institute?

a)

Mr. Agustin Patricio

b)

Dr. Jose Rizal

c)

Gen. Antonio Luna

d)

Chief PNP Bato Dela Rosa

34.

Which type of lie is intended to please others, such as "that looks good on you"?

a)

White Lie

b)

Lie of Compliment

c)

Red Lie

d)

Black Lie

35.

What is a "Pathological Lie"?

a)

A lie used to obstruct justice

b)

A lie made by persons who cannot distinguish right from wrong

c)

A lie used in advertising

d)

A lie used to protect feelings

36.

Which type of liar loves to lie, views the interview as a contest, and wants to win?

a)

Panic Liars

b)

Tournament Liars

c)

Occupational Liars

d)

Psychopathic Liars

37.

Which type of liar has no conscience and shows no regret for dishonesty?

a)

Panic Liars

b)

Psychopathic Liars

c)

Ethnological Liars

d)

Black Liars

38.

The "Fight, Flight, or Freeze" response is activated by which nervous system?

a)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

b)

Sympathetic Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

39.

Which hormone is known as the stimulator of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Insulin

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Estrogen

d)

Melatonin

40.

Which polygraph component records changes in respiration?

a)

Cardiosphygmograph

b)

Galvanograph

c)

Pneumograph

d)

Kymograph

41.

What color ink is generally used for the Pneumograph tracing?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Black

42.

The Cardiosphygmograph detects changes in:

a)

Respiration

b)

Blood pressure and pulse beat

c)

Skin resistance

d)

Brain waves

43.

Which component records changes in skin resistance (sweat activity)?

a)

Pneumograph

b)

Cardiosphygmograph

c)

Galvanograph

d)

Kymograph

44.

What color ink is used for the Galvanograph tracing?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Black

45.

The Kymograph serves as what mechanism of the polygraph machine?

a)

The sensing mechanism

b)

The paper feed mechanism

c)

The recording pen

d)

The air pump

46.

What is the first phase of the Polygraph Examination?

a)

Instrumental Test

b)

Preliminary Preparation

c)

Pre-test Interview

d)

Post-test Interview

47.

During which phase does the examiner obtain the subject's consent and appraise their constitutional rights?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

48.

Can a subject be examined if they are obviously fatigued or in pain?

a)

Yes, it makes them more truthful

b)

No

c)

Yes, if they sign a waiver

d)

Only if the pain is mild

49.

During Phase III (Instrumental Test), which attachment is placed on the subject first?

a)

Pneumograph

b)

Cardiosphygmograph

c)

Galvanograph

d)

Finger Electrode

50.

What is the primary purpose of the Post-test Interview/Interrogation?

a)

To set a new schedule

b)

To obtain a confession

c)

To calibrate the machine

d)

To arrest the subject

51.

Is the Polygraph a "lie detector"?

a)

Yes, it detects lies directly

b)

No, it is a scientific diagnostic instrument

c)

Yes, it reads the mind

d)

No, it is a toy

52.

Lie-detector tests should be conducted in a room that is:

a)

Open to the public

b)

90% soundproof

c)

Filled with ornaments

d)

Noisy

53.

Questions in a polygraph test must be answerable by:

a)

Essay

b)

Yes or No

c)

Maybe

d)

Explanation

54.

"Did you eat today?" is an example of what type of question?

a)

Relevant Question

b)

Irrelevant Question

c)

Control Question

d)

Symptomatic Question

55.

"Did you steal Hazel's watch?" is an example of what type of question?

a)

Irrelevant Question

b)

Strong Relevant Question

c)

Control Question

d)

Knowledge Question

56.

"Before reaching the age of 25, have you ever stolen anything?" is an example of:

a)

Relevant Question

b)

Primary Control Question

c)

Symptomatic Question

d)

Sacrifice Question

57.

Which question type is designed to detect outside issues that might suppress responses to relevant questions?

a)

Symptomatic Question

b)

Knowledge Question

c)

Evidence-Connecting Question

d)

Guilt-Complex Question

58.

"Do you intend to answer truthfully?" is known as the:

a)

Control Question

b)

Sacrifice or DYAT Question

c)

S-K-Y Question

d)

Knowledge Question

59.

In the S-K-Y Question technique, what does 'S' stand for?

a)

Steal

b)

Suspect

c)

System

d)

Subject

60.

Which test involves the use of numbered cards to verify the instrument's accuracy and stimulate the subject?

a)

General Question Test

b)

Stimulation or Verification Test

c)

Spot Responder Test

d)

Silent Answer Test

61.

In the Silent Answer Test (SAT), the subject is instructed to:

a)

Shout the answer

b)

Answer only to themselves silently

c)

Write the answer down

d)

Nod their head

62.

What chart marking indicates the beginning of the test?

a)

X

b)

XX

c)

I

d)

/

63.

What chart marking indicates the end of the test?

a)

X

b)

XX

c)

/

d)

//

64.

What marking indicates a "Yes" answer?

a)

+

b)

Y

c)

N

d)

/

65.

A "False Positive" result occurs when:

a)

A truthful person is determined to be deceptive

b)

A deceptive person is determined to be truthful

c)

The result is inconclusive

d)

The machine breaks

66.

A "False Negative" result occurs when:

a)

A truthful person is determined to be deceptive

b)

A deceptive person is determined to be truthful

c)

The chart is unreadable

d)

The examiner makes an error

67.

What is the Philippine Supreme Court's stance on the admissibility of polygraph results (People v. A. Adviso)?

a)

Admissible as primary evidence

b)

Rejected/Not admissible

c)

Admissible if the subject consents

d)

Admissible only in civil cases

68.

Why are polygraph results generally not admissible in court?

a)

It is too expensive

b)

It has not yet attained scientific acceptance/standardization

c)

It violates human rights

d)

Examiners are not licensed

69.

In the "Ordeal of the Cross," the person who endured standing with arms crossed the longest was deemed:

a)

Guilty

b)

Truthful

c)

Strong

d)

Divine

70.

Which verbal clue involves the liar adding qualifiers like "to the best of my memory"?

a)

Fragmented/Incomplete sentences

b)

Oaths

c)

Repetition

d)

Direct answers

71.

Which non-verbal clue involves usual behaviors of touching oneself, like fixing hair?

a)

Emblems

b)

Manipulators

c)

Breathing

d)

Sweating

72.

What color ink is used for the Cardiosphygmograph tracing?

a)

Green

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

Black

73.

The "Silent Answer Test" is typically which test number in the sequence?

a)

Test I

b)

Test III

c)

Test V

d)

Test II

74.

"Do you suspect anyone in particular of stealing any of that money?" corresponds to which letter in the S-K-Y technique?

a)

S

b)

K

c)

Y

d)

None

75.

What is the chart marking for a "Sneeze"?

a)

SNF

b)

SZ

c)

C

d)

SW

76.

What is the science of the motion of projectiles?

a)

Polygraphy

b)

Ballistics

c)

Dactyloscopy

d)

Forensic Chemistry

77.

The term "Ballistics" is derived from the Greek words "ballo" and "ballein" which mean:

a)

To kill

b)

To throw

c)

To fly

d)

To hit

78.

What branch of ballistics treats the motion of the projectile while it is still inside the firearm?

a)

Internal Ballistics

b)

External Ballistics

c)

Terminal Ballistics

d)

Transitional Ballistics

79.

What is the failure of the cartridge to explode after the firing pin strikes the primer?

a)

Hangfire

b)

Misfire

c)

Ricochet

d)

Keyhole shot

80.

What is the delayed explosion of the cartridge after the firing pin strikes the primer?

a)

Misfire

b)

Hangfire

c)

Dud

d)

Squib load

81.

The unstable rotating motion of a bullet is called:

a)

Yaw

b)

Tumble

c)

Drift

d)

Velocity

82.

Which branch deals with the movement of the projectile after leaving the gun muzzle?

a)

Internal Ballistics

b)

External Ballistics

c)

Terminal Ballistics

d)

Forensic Ballistics

83.

What is the actual curved path taken by a bullet during its flight?

a)

Velocity

b)

Trajectory

c)

Recoil

d)

Drift

84.

What is the noise created at the muzzle point of the gun?

a)

Sonic Boom

b)

Muzzle Blast

c)

Echo

d)

Report

85.

What is the range where the shooter has control of his shots?

a)

Accurate Range

b)

Effective Range

c)

Maximum Range

d)

Point Blank Range

86.

What force pulls the bullet downward towards the earth's surface?

a)

Air Resistance

b)

Pull of Gravity

c)

Wind Deflection

d)

Velocity

87.

What is the bouncing of a projectile after hitting a hard surface?

a)

Penetration

b)

Ricochet

c)

Tumble

d)

Yaw

88.

A "Keyhole shot" occurs when the bullet hits the target:

a)

Head-on

b)

Sideways

c)

From a long distance

d)

At point-blank range

89.

Which branch deals with the effects of the impact of the projectile on the target?

a)

Internal Ballistics

b)

External Ballistics

c)

Terminal Ballistics

d)

Forensic Ballistics

90.

What power of the bullet results in the instantaneous death of the victim?

a)

Stopping Power

b)

Shocking Power

c)

Penetrating Power

d)

Drilling Power

91.

A "Souvenir Bullet" is one that:

a)

Is kept by the shooter

b)

Is lodged and remains in the body

c)

Passes through the body

d)

Is found at the crime scene

92.

According to the "Odd and Even Rule," if the number of wounds is even, the presumption is:

a)

A bullet is lodged

b)

No bullet is lodged

c)

The victim was shot twice

d)

The shooter used a revolver

93.

Forensic Ballistics is the study of the motion of projectiles as applied to:

a)

Physics

b)

Law

c)

Medicine

d)

Hunting

94.

Under RA 10591, is the barrel of a firearm considered a complete firearm?

a)

No

b)

Yes

c)

Only if attached to a frame

d)

Only for rifles

95.

Firearms that have no rifling inside their gun barrel are called:

a)

Rifled Bore

b)

Smooth Bore

c)

Artillery

d)

Machine Guns

96.

What are the raised portions of the bore remaining after rifling cuts?

a)

Grooves

b)

Lands

c)

Chamber

d)

Muzzle

97.

Firearms that propel projectiles with more than one inch diameter are classified as:

a)

Small Arms

b)

Artillery

c)

Handguns

d)

Shoulder Arms

98.

A short barrel rifle measuring not longer than 22 inches is called a:

a)

Musket

b)

Carbine

c)

Pistol

d)

Machine Gun

99.

A shotgun designed with a diminishing bore diameter towards the muzzle is called:

a)

Cylinder Bore

b)

Choke Bored Gun

c)

Paradox Gun

d)

Sawed-off Shotgun

100.

A handgun with a revolving cylinder is called a:

a)

Pistol

b)

Revolver

c)

Derringer

d)

Musket

101.

What type of firearm loads, closes, fires, and deloads a single cartridge?

a)

Single Barreled Shotgun

b)

Pump Action

c)

Automatic

d)

Bolt Action

102.

The term "Cartridge" is derived from the Latin word "Charta" meaning:

a)

Brass

b)

Paper

c)

Bullet

d)

Powder

103.

Which primer type has one flash hole?

a)

Berdan

b)

Boxer

c)

Battery Cup

d)

Rimfire

104.

Which primer type has two flash holes?

a)

Boxer

b)

Berdan

c)

Shotgun

d)

Rimfire

105.

What constitutes the composition of Black Powder?

a)

Potassium nitrate, Sulphur, Charcoal

b)

Nitrocellulose, Nitroglycerine, Sulfur

c)

Lead, Antimony, Barium

d)

Saltpeter, Sulfur, Carbon

106.

Which explosive burns but does not explode (Low Explosive)?

a)

Dynamite

b)

TNT

c)

Black Powder

d)

C4

107.

Which explosive detonates with a sharp crack and violent shattering effect?

a)

Low Explosive

b)

High Explosive

c)

Propellant

d)

Priming Mixture

108.

What is the most widely used military plastic explosive?

a)

TNT

b)

C4

c)

Dynamite

d)

RDX

109.

Marks determined after the manufacture of a firearm are called:

a)

Class Characteristics

b)

Individual Characteristics

c)

Factory Specifications

d)

Model Marks

110.

The diameter to which the bore was reamed is called:

a)

Bore Diameter

b)

Groove Diameter

c)

Land Width

d)

Twist Rate

111.

The number of lands and grooves inside a barrel is always:

a)

Odd

b)

Equal/The same

c)

Random

d)

Unknown

112.

The measure of the twisting of the lands and grooves is called:

a)

Direction of Twist

b)

Pitch of Rifling

c)

Depth of Grooves

d)

Width of Lands

113.

Which class characteristic refers to the direction (left or right) the bullet rotates?

a)

Pitch

b)

Direction of Twist

c)

Bore Diameter

d)

Groove Width

114.

A Colt firearm typically has which rifling characteristics?

a)

6 lands and grooves, left-hand twist

b)

5 lands and grooves, right-hand twist

c)

4 lands and grooves, left-hand twist

d)

6 lands and grooves, right-hand twist

115.

Marks found on the cylindrical surface of the fired bullet caused by the lands are called:

a)

Groove Marks

b)

Land Marks

c)

Skid Marks

d)

Shearing Marks

116.

Marks found on the base portion of the cartridge case caused by the firing pin are called:

a)

Breech Face Marks

b)

Firing Pin Marks

c)

Ejector Marks

d)

Extractor Marks

117.

Marks found at the extracting groove of the fired cartridge case are called:

a)

Ejector Marks

b)

Extractor Marks

c)

Chamber Marks

d)

Shearing Marks

118.

What instrument is used for the critical side-by-side examination of fired bullets?

a)

Stereoscopic Microscope

b)

Comparison Microscope

c)

Helixometer

d)

Chronograph

119.

What instrument measures the pitch of rifling?

a)

Caliper

b)

Helixometer

c)

Micrometer

d)

Onoscope

120.

What instrument measures the velocity of a bullet?

a)

Helixometer

b)

Chronograph

c)

Caliper

d)

Shadow Graph

121.

The internal part of the gun that houses the mechanism is called the:

a)

Barrel

b)

Frame

c)

Stock

d)

Slide

122.

The mechanism that throws the empty shell from the firearm is the:

a)

Extractor

b)

Ejector

c)

Firing Pin

d)

Trigger

123.

The part of the bore into which a cartridge is placed is the:

a)

Muzzle

b)

Chamber

c)

Lands

d)

Grooves

124.

The end of the barrel where the bullet exits is the:

a)

Breech

b)

Muzzle

c)

Chamber

d)

Throat

125.

A bullet made of lead core covered with a jacket of harder material is called:

a)

Lead Bullet

b)

Jacketed Bullet

c)

Dum-dum Bullet

d)

Wad Cutter

126.

A bullet designed to leave visible traces while in flight is called a:

a)

Incendiary Bullet

b)

Tracer Bullet

c)

Armor Piercing Bullet

d)

Explosive Bullet

127.

What type of bullet is intended to penetrate light steel armor?

a)

Ball Type

b)

Armor Piercing

c)

Tracer

d)

Hollow Point

128.

The smallest pistol in the world (Cal 2.7mm) is the:

a)

Derringer

b)

Kolibri Auto Pistol

c)

Liberator

d)

Glock 42

129.

A homemade gun is often referred to as a:

a)

Flare Gun

b)

Zip Gun

c)

Paradox Gun

d)

Harpoon Gun

130.

Ammunition completely inert and used for training is called:

a)

Dummy

b)

Drill Ammo

c)

Blank

d)

Live

131.

A cartridge without a bullet used for theatrical performance is called:

a)

Dummy

b)

Blank Ammo

c)

Drill

d)

Live

132.

The tubular container that holds the bullet, gunpowder, and primer is the:

a)

Slug

b)

Cartridge Case

c)

Wad

d)

Jacket

133.

Which cartridge case shape has a neck reduced in diameter?

a)

Straight Cased

b)

Bottlenecked

c)

Tapered

d)

Rebated

134.

The circular groove near the rim of the shell designed for withdrawal is the:

a)

Extracting Groove

b)

Primer Pocket

c)

Flash Hole

d)

Cannelure

135.

The hole in the primer pocket through which the flash ignites the powder is the:

a)

Anvil

b)

Vent or Flash Hole

c)

Battery Cup

d)

Disc

136.

The chemical wear and tear inside the barrel due to rust is called:

a)

Erosion

b)

Corrosion

c)

Fouling

d)

Leading

137.

The mechanical wear and tear due to sliding friction is called:

a)

Erosion

b)

Corrosion

c)

Rusting

d)

Pitting

138.

Who conceived the percussion ignition system in 1807?

a)

Alexander John Forsyth

b)

Hiram Berdan

c)

Edward Boxer

d)

Samuel Colt

139.

A "Smith and Wesson" firearm typically has:

a)

5 Lands/Grooves, Right Twist

b)

6 Lands/Grooves, Left Twist

c)

4 Lands/Grooves, Right Twist

d)

6 Lands/Grooves, Right Twist

140.

Marks found on the bullet caused by a loose-fit barrel are called:

a)

Skid Marks

b)

Stripping Marks

c)

Shaving Marks

d)

Slippage Marks

141.

The "Juxtaposition" position in bullet comparison means:

a)

Overlapping the images

b)

Side-by-side examination

c)

Looking at only one bullet

d)

Using a magnifying glass

142.

What is the container filled with cotton used to recover test bullets?

a)

Bullet Recovery Box

b)

Firing Chamber

c)

Water Tank

d)

Sand Bag

143.

What instrument is used to determine the bore diameter of firearms quickly?

a)

Caliper

b)

Taper Gauge

c)

Micrometer

d)

Ruler

144.

Reports in forensic ballistics must be:

a)

Biased

b)

Factual, accurate, and impartial

c)

Opinionated

d)

Vague

145.

A "Steyer Type" rifling has how many lands and grooves?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

146.

What represents the "Hierarchy of Authority" in police organization?

a)

Clear chain of command

b)

Random orders

c)

No supervision

d)

Equal power

147.

What is the "Paraffin Test" used for?

a)

To check barrel rifling

b)

To extract nitrates embedded in the skin

c)

To test bullet weight

d)

To measure velocity

148.

"TNT" stands for:

a)

Trinitrotoluene

b)

Tri-nitro-tetramine

c)

Tetra-nitro-toluene

d)

Total-nitro-time

149.

Which type of gunpowder produces a grayish smoke and leaves residue?

a)

Smokeless Powder

b)

Black Powder

c)

Flash Powder

d)

Nitrocellulose

150.
  1. The equal and opposite reaction of the gun against the forward movement of the bullet is called:

a)
  • Velocity

b)
  • Recoil

c)
  • Trajectory

d)
  • Impact