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Week 2 Lectures: Electrolytes and PVD

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Movement of body fluid across cell and capillary membranes accomplished by:

a)

Filtration

b)

Active transport

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Osmosis

e)

Diffusion

2.

Which type of intravenous fluid is similar to the concentration of blood?

a)
Colloidal intravenous fluid
b)
Isotonic intravenous fluid
c)
Hypertonic intravenous fluid
d)
Hypotonic intravenous fluid
3.

Isotonic fluids include which of the following types:

a)

Lactated ringers

b)

5% dextrose

c)

0.9% saline

d)

0.225% saline 1/4 NS

4.

Which type of intravenous fluid replaces minimal fluid loss, routinely administered to maintain hydration during surgical procedures

a)

Hypertonic fluids

b)

Hypotonic fluids

c)

Isotonic fluids

5.

Which of the following types of intravenous fluids has cautions of fluid overload, heart failure, pulmonary edema, and renal impairment

a)
Isotonic intravenous fluids
b)
Dextrose intravenous fluids
c)
Colloidal intravenous fluids
d)
Hypotonic intravenous fluids
6.

Which intravenous fluid has a lower concentration of solutes than blood?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)
Lactated Ringer's
7.

The following types of fluids are apart of hypotonic?

a)

0.45% Saline 1/2 NS

b)

0.225% Saline 1/4 NS

c)

0.33% Saline 1/3 NS

d)

5% Dextrose

8.

Which of the following are the uses for hypotonic fluids?

a)

Replace minimal fluid loss, routine administered to maintain hydration during surgical procedures

b)

Provide free water for excretion of body wastes, treat cellular dehydration and replace fluid

c)

ICU, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia severe, pull excess fluid from cells

d)
Hypertonic IV fluids (e.g., 3% Saline) are used for fluid overload management.
9.

The following cautions are for which type of IV fluids?

Can cause hyponatremia, do not give to hypotonic, hypovolemia without hypernatremia, trauma, burn victims, can cause cells to rupture

a)
Colloid IV fluids
b)
Hypotonic IV fluids
c)
Isotonic IV fluids
d)
Hypertonic IV fluids
10.

Which type of IV fluid has a higher concentration of solutes than blood?

a)
Hypotonic IV fluids
b)
Isotonic IV fluids
c)
Colloid IV fluids
d)
Hypertonic IV fluids
11.

Which of the following types of fluids are hypertonic?

a)

10% Dextrose

b)

5% Saline

c)

3% Saline

d)

20% Dextrose

e)

50% Dextrose

12.

Which IV fluid is used in the ICU, for hyponatremia, hypoglycemia severe, pull excess fluid from cells (causing cells to shrink)

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)
Isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl)
13.

Which IV fluid has cautions of fluid overload, pulmonary edema, hyperglycemia, do not give to dehydrated, kidney/heart disease patients

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

14.

Which IV fluids may need diuretics in addition to fluids?

a)
Isotonic saline and colloids may need diuretics.
b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Hypertonic

15.

Your patient is in the ICU for severe burns. Which IV fluid would you not give your pt?

a)
NS (normal saline)
b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Isotonic

16.

Which IV fluid would you not give to your dehydrated patient?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)
Lactated Ringer's solution
17.

Loss of extracellular fluid volume

a)

hypervolemia

b)

hypovolemia

c)

hydration

d)

edema

18.

Loss of electrolytes along with fluid

a)

Dehydration

b)

Isotonic fluid volume deficit

c)

malnutrition

d)

fluid retention

19.

Shift from vascular space to interstitial space

a)

Second spacing

b)

Third spacing

c)

First spacing

d)

Hypertonic

20.

occurs when water and sodium are lost in equal proportions, primarily depleting the extracellular fluid (ECF) volume

a)
Isotonic dehydration
b)
Hypertonic dehydration
c)
Fluid overload
d)
Hypotonic dehydration
21.

occurs when the body loses more electrolytes than water, leading to low blood sodium and causing water to shift into cells, making them swell

a)
Hypertonic dehydration
b)
Hypotonic dehydration
c)
Isotonic dehydration
d)
Dehydration due to heat exposure
22.

body loses more water than sodium, causing high sodium levels (hypernatremia) and making the fluid outside cells too concentrated, pulling water out of them

a)

Isotonic dehydration

b)
Hypotonic dehydration
c)

Hypotonic dehydration

d)

Hypertonic dehydration

23.

Which of the following are common causes of fluid volume deficiency?

a)
Increased fluid retention and high fluid intake.
b)
Excessive sweating and high salt consumption.
c)
Frequent urination and overhydration.
d)
Excessive fluid loss and inadequate fluid intake.
24.

Which of the following are fluid volume deficit clinical manifestations?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Pale, cool skin

c)

Fever

d)

Decreased urine output

25.

What all does a basic metabolic panel test for?

a)
A basic metabolic panel tests for cholesterol and triglycerides.
b)
A basic metabolic panel tests for liver enzymes and bilirubin.
c)
A basic metabolic panel tests for glucose, calcium, electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine.
d)
A basic metabolic panel tests for complete blood count and hemoglobin.
26.

Which of the following are manifestations of chronic dehydration, commonly seen in older adults?

a)

Itchy skin, brittle hair, loss of thirst reflex

b)
Frequent urination, excessive thirst, dry mouth, blurred vision
c)
Increased appetite, weight gain, insomnia, joint pain
d)
Nausea, headaches, dizziness, muscle cramps
27.

Results from four possible forces, results from conditions that cause retention of sodium and water, swelling can be local or generalized

a)
Edema
b)
Inflammation
c)
Dehydration
d)
Hypertension
28.

Fluid volume excess can be caused by:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Excessive intake of sodium-containing foods

c)

Drugs that cause sodium retention

d)

Excess amounts of sodium-containing IV fluids

29.

Which of the following are risk factors of fluid volume excess?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart disease

c)
Liver disease
d)

IV Therapy

30.

Which of the following are good prevention measures against fluid volume excess?

a)

Diuretics, antihypertensive medications to keep fluids in balance

b)

Use saline solutions

c)

Careful intake of sodium

d)

Elevate lower extremities when sitting

e)

Weigh daily

31.

Which of the following are fluid volume excess clinical manifestations?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Weight gain >5% of body weight

c)

Heart Failure

d)

Circulatory overload symptoms

32.

Electrolytes are gained and lost in relatively equal amounts

a)

True

b)

False

33.

________ __________ values tells us concentrations of electrolytes in blood

a)
Blood test results
b)

Serum electrolyte

c)
Electrolyte assessment
d)
Serum analysis report
34.

Imbalance is typically in only one electrolyte

a)
No electrolyte imbalance
b)

False

c)

True

35.

Which of the following is the normal levels of sodium?

a)

95-105 mEq/L

b)

1.8-3.0 mg/dL

c)

135-145 mEq/L

d)

3.5-5.3 mEq/L

36.

Which electrolyte is the most abundant in extracellular fluid?

a)
Potassium
b)
Chloride
c)
Sodium
d)
Calcium
37.

Which electrolyte assists in maintaining osmotic pressure and acid-based balance?

a)
Sodium
b)
Chloride
c)
Calcium
d)
Potassium
38.

Serum sodium level >145 mEq/L

a)
Hyponatremia
b)
Hypernatremia
c)
Hyperkalemia
d)
Hypocalcemia
39.

Which electrolyte imbalance presents as increase in thirst, fever, dry mucous membranes, hypotension, tachycardia, low jugular venous pressure, and restlessness

a)
Hypernatremia
b)
Hyperkalemia
c)
Hyponatremia
d)
Hypocalcemia
40.

How is hypernatremia treated?

a)

Use fluid replacement at a moderate rate.

b)
Use diuretics to promote sodium excretion and hydration.
c)
Increase sodium intake and avoid fluid replacement.
d)
Administer hypertonic fluids and restrict water intake.
41.

Serum sodium level <135 mEq/L

a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Hypokalemia
c)
Hyponatremia
d)
Hypernatremia
42.

Which electrolyte manifests as lethargy, headaches, confusion, apprehension, seizers, diarrhea, vomiting, and coma?

a)
Hypermagnesemia
b)
Hypocalcemia
c)
Hyperkalemia
d)
Hyponatremia
43.

Which of the following is the treatment of hyponatremia?

a)

Sodium replacement and managing fluid intake

b)
Potassium supplementation
c)

Increased fluid intake and give salty foods

d)
Calcium infusion
44.

Normal potassium levels are

a)

3.5-5.3 mEq/L

b)

135-145 mEq/L

c)

9-11 mg/dL

d)

1.8-3.0 mg/dL

45.

Which electrolyte plays role in cellular depolarization, repolarization

-Moves into cell while sodium moves out of cell

a)
Potassium (K+)
b)
Calcium (Ca2+)
c)
Magnesium (Mg2+)
d)
Chloride (Cl-)
46.

Which electrolyte imbalance can lead to deadly cardiac dysrhythmias?

a)
Hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia
b)
Hyponatremia and hypernatremia
c)
Hypomagnesemia and hypermagnesemia
d)
Hyperkalemia and hypokalemia
47.

Serum potassium level >5.3 mEq/L

a)
Hypernatremia
b)
Normokalemia
c)
Hypokalemia
d)
Hyperkalemia
48.

Which electrolyte imbalance includes muscle twitching, weakness, flaccid paralysis, irritability, anxiety, low BP, tall peaked T waves, dysrhythmias, abdominal cramping, diarrhea

a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Hypercalcemia
d)
Hypokalemia
49.

Which of the following are used as management for hyperkalemia?

a)

Administration of calcium gluconate, insulin and glucose, polystyrene sulfonate

b)

Diuretics if renal excretion is normal

c)
Sodium citrate, insulin and fructose, magnesium sulfate, beta blockers, oral hydration.
d)
Calcium carbonate, insulin and water, potassium chloride, fluid restriction, oral potassium.
50.

Serum potassium level <3.5 mEq/L

a)
Normokalemia
b)
Hyperkalemia
c)
Hypocalcemia
d)
Hypokalemia
51.

Which electrolyte imbalance has the following signs and symptoms?

-alkalosis, shallow respirations, irritability, confusion and drowsiness, weakness and fatigue, arrhythmias, lethargy, thready pulse?

a)
Hypocalcemia
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Hyperkalemia
d)
Hypokalemia
52.

How do we manage hypokalemia?

a)

Replacement of potassium salts

b)
Increase sodium intake and reduce fluid intake.
c)
Use diuretics to enhance potassium levels.
d)
Administer calcium supplements for better balance.
53.

Which of the following are normal levels of calcium?

a)

9-11 mg/dL

b)

3.5-5.3 mEq/L

c)

135-145 mEq/L

d)

1.8-3.0 mg/dL

54.

Which electrolyte is responsible for neuromuscular transmission, control of muscle contraction, blood clotting, bone and teeth formation, and cellular membrane functioning?

a)
Sodium
b)
Potassium
c)
Magnesium
d)
Calcium
55.

Which electrolyte levels are controlled by vitamin D, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone?

a)

Calcium levels

b)
Iron and zinc levels
c)
Magnesium and chloride levels
d)
Sodium and potassium levels
56.

Which electrolyte deficiency has a serum calcium level >11 mg/dL?

a)

Hypermagnesemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)
Chronic kidney disease
57.

Which electrolyte imbalance manifests as confusion, muscle weakness, bone pain, kidney stones, excessive urination, cardiac arrest, arrhythmias?

a)
Hypokalemia
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Hypermagnesemia
d)
Hypercalcemia
58.

Which electrolyte imbalance has a serum calcium level of <9 mg/dL?

a)
Hyponatremia
b)
Hypocalcemia
c)
Hypokalemia
d)
Hypercalcemia
59.

Which electrolyte imbalance has manifestations of convulsions, arrhythmias, tetany, stridor, and spasms

a)
Hypocalcemia
b)
Hypomagnesemia
c)
Hyponatremia
d)
Hyperkalemia
60.

What is the management for hypocalcemia?

a)
Magnesium supplementation only
b)
Increased dietary phosphorus intake
c)

Calcium supplementation (IV) moderately and addressing underlying causes.

d)
Vitamin D therapy alone without calcium
61.

Which of the following are normal levels of magnesium?

a)

1.8-3.0 mg/dL

b)

95-105 mEq/L

c)

3.0-4.5 mg/dL

d)

9-11 mg/dL

62.

Which electrolyte is the fourth most abundant cation, 60% is found in bones, 40% in muscles, and plays role in energy production, protein synthesis, neuromuscular function

a)
potassium
b)
calcium
c)
magnesium
d)
sodium
63.

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances manifests as the following:

confusion, increased deep tendon reflex, neuromuscular irritability, seizures, muscle cramps, tremors, insomnia, and tachycardia?

a)
Hypocalcemia
b)
Hypomagnesemia
c)
Hyponatremia
d)
Hyperkalemia
64.

Which electrolyte imbalance has serum magnesium level of <1.8 mEq/L

a)
Hypomagnesemia
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Hypocalcemia
d)
Hypermagnesemia
65.

How is hypomagnesemia managed?

a)
Management involves increasing dietary fiber intake.
b)
Treatment focuses on hydration and electrolyte balance.
c)
Management includes magnesium supplementation and addressing underlying causes.
d)
Care includes vitamin D supplementation and exercise.
66.

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances manifests as flushing, decreased deep tendon reflexes, muscle weakness, lethargy, decreased respirations, bradycardia, and hypotension?

a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Hypocalcemia
d)
Hypermagnesemia
67.

Which electrolyte imbalance has serum magnesium level >3.0?

a)
Hypermagnesemia
b)
Hypomagnesemia
c)
Hyperkalemia
d)
Hyponatremia
68.

What is the management for hypermagnesemia?

a)

Discontinue magnesium intake, treat with calcium gluconate, and consider hemodialysis if severe.

b)
Increase magnesium intake and monitor levels regularly.
c)
Administer potassium and restrict fluid intake.
d)
Use diuretics and increase dietary calcium intake.
69.

What are the normal levels of chloride?

a)

95-105 mEq/L

b)

3.0-4.5 mg/dL

c)

1.8-3.0 mg/dL

d)

9-11 mg/dL

70.

Which electrolyte is the most prevalent in the extra cellular fluid, along with sodium maintains electricity of body in neutral state, with hydrogen forms hydrochloric acid in stomach to aid digestion, plays role in acid-based balance

a)
Chloride
b)
Potassium
c)
Sodium
d)
Calcium
71.

Which electrolyte imbalance has a serum chloride level >105 mEq/L

a)
Hypochloremia
b)
Hyperkalemia
c)
Hyperchloremia
d)
Hyponatremia
72.

How is hyperchloremia managed?

a)
Administer diuretics without addressing the cause.
b)
Use high-chloride fluids and monitor electrolytes.
c)
Increase chloride intake and avoid hydration.
d)

Manage by treating the underlying cause, ensuring hydration, diuretics, and dialysis.

73.

Which electrolyte imbalance has serum chloride level <95 mEq/L

a)
Hypokalemia
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Hyperchloremia
d)
Hypochloremia
74.

What is the management for hypochloremia?

a)
Increase fluid intake, avoid salty foods.
b)
Administer potassium supplements only.
c)

Increase salt in diet, add chloride to IV fluids, and treat underlying causes.

d)
Use diuretics to enhance urine output.
75.

Which of the following are normal levels of phosphate?

a)

3.0-4.5 mg/dL

b)

95-105 mEq/L

c)

1.8-3.0 mg/dL

d)

9-11 mg/dL

76.

Second most abundant mineral in body (after calcium), 85% found in bones, teeth

a)
Magnesium
b)
Calcium
c)

Phosphate

d)
Sodium
77.

Which electrolyte imbalance is rare, asymptomatic, and related to excessive intake?

>4.5 mg/dL serum phosphate

a)
Hyperphosphatemia
b)
Hypophosphatemia
c)
Hypernatremia
d)
Hyperkalemia
78.

Serum phosphate level <3.0

a)
Hyperphosphatemia
b)
Normal phosphate levels
c)
Phosphate deficiency
d)
Hypophosphatemia
79.

Which of the following is described?

Increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, clear lung sounds, decreased urine output, decreased weight?

a)

Fluid volume deficit

b)

Fluid volume excess

80.

Which of the following is described?

Normal/increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, crackles lung sounds, variable urine output, increased weight

a)

Fluid volume deficit

b)

Fluid volume excess

81.

Chloride has a strong relationship with

a)
potassium
b)
calcium
c)
magnesium
d)
sodium
82.

Calcium and _______ have an alternating effect on one another

a)
magnesium
b)
phosphorus
c)
sodium
d)
potassium
83.

What is caused by impaired blood flow to the myocardium?

-leading cause of death in the US

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)
Stroke
c)
Heart attack
d)

Coronary Artery Disease

84.

Sudden, reduced blood flow through coronary arteries, thereby resulting in reduced delivery of oxygen to cardiac tissues

a)
Coronary artery spasm
b)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

c)
Myocardial ischemia
d)
Aortic dissection
85.

Chest pain resulting from reduced coronary blood flow

-worsened and triggered by multiple conditions

a)
Angina pectoris
b)
Coronary artery disease
c)
Myocardial infarction
d)
Pericarditis
86.

What is the primary cause of CAD?

a)
Regular exercise and a healthy diet
b)
High levels of cholesterol in the blood
c)
Increased blood flow to the heart
d)
Buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries
87.

Atherosclerosis results from

a)

vessel wall injury

b)
inflammation of the heart
c)

accumulation of lipoproteins and fibrous tissue

d)
buildup of plaques in the arteries
88.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of poor perfusion?

pallor, pain, psoriasis, paresthesia, pulmonary edema, paralysis, pulselessness, poikilothermia

a)
psoriasis
b)

pulmonary edema

c)

poikilothermia

d)

paralysis

89.

The nurse is teaching a client about coronary artery disease (CAD). Which response by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

A. "Damage to the linings of my arteries can cause clots and blockage."

B. "It is a leading cause of death for men and women in the United States."

C. "It decreases quality of life but does not increase a person's risk of death."

D. "The increased levels of high-density lipoproteins decrease the risk of atherosclerosis."

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

90.

Results when oxygen is not able to meet metabolic demands

-temporary and reversible but can progress to infarction

-switch from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism

a)

Angina

b)

Myocardial necrosis

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Myocardial ischemia

91.

Chest pain from ischemia

-can be silent

-one-time event or chronic

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Myocardial ischemia

c)

Angina

d)
Chest pain from ischemia is always accompanied by nausea.
92.

this angina is predictable with amount of activity and relieved with rest/nitrates

a)
Stable angina
b)
Prinzmetal angina
c)
Microvascular angina
d)
Unstable angina
93.

This angina has an increasing frequency, duration, and severity, and pain becomes unpredictable. Higher risk for MI

a)
Silent angina
b)
Unstable angina
c)
Variant angina
d)
Stable angina
94.

Which type of angina is unpredictable and caused by artery spasm?

a)
Stable angina
b)
Microvascular angina
c)

Prinzmetal's (variant) angina

d)
Unstable angina
95.

A patient reports during a routine check-up that he is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath while performing activities. He states the pain goes away when he rests. This is known as:

A. Unstable angina

B. Variant angina

C. Stable angina

D. Prinzmetal angina

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

96.

A client who has a strong family history of coronary artery disease asks the nurse, "How can I decrease my chances of developing problems with my arteries?" Which response by the nurse is appropriate? Select all that apply

A. "You can reduce your risk by making some changes in your lifestyle, such as moderate exercise."

B. "There is little you can do except take medication to prevent coronary artery disease."

C. "As long as your cholesterol is normal, your arteries will remain clear."

D. "Keeping your blood pressure within normal levels will decrease the risk of injury to your arteries."

E."A diet high in fruits, vegetables, and unsaturated fatty acids may help protect your arteries."

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

97.

Which of the following are clinical manifestations for CAD?

a)
Cough, fever, rash, high blood pressure.
b)
Back pain, leg cramps, insomnia, arrhythmia.
c)

Chest pain (angina), fear, anxiety, tachycardia, pallor, dyspnea

d)
Headache, nausea, dizziness, stroke.
98.

What is the golden standard for diagnostic tests with CAD?

a)
CT coronary angiography
b)
Stress test
c)
Coronary angiography
d)
Echocardiogram
99.

Which of the following are diagnostic tests for CAD?

a)
CT scans, lipid panels, physical exams
b)

Coronary angiography

c)

EKG

d)

Triglycerides lab tests

100.

Which treatment for CAD involves using vein, artery section to create connection

-90% totally relieve, reduce angina

-heart stopped during surgery

a)
Angioplasty with balloon
b)
Coronary stent placement
c)
Medications for heart failure
d)
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
101.

Which treatment for CAD uses mechanical circulatory support device and is used to temporarily support cardiac function

a)
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
b)
Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy
c)
Left ventricular assist device (LVAD)
d)
Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
102.

Which of the following are types of angioplasties used to help open narrow/blocked arteries?

a)

Balloon animal placement

b)

Laser angioplasty

c)

Stent placement

d)

Balloon angioplasty

103.

How do we treat anginal attack?

a)

Treat as a potential myocardial infarction

b)

Apply oxygen

c)

Give vasodilating medication as ordered

d)

Angioplasty

104.

What are examples of short term goals for the treatment of an anginal attack?

a)
Increase blood pressure, enhance stress levels, prolong recovery time.
b)
Administer painkillers, encourage physical activity, ignore symptoms.
c)
Monitor heart rate, delay treatment, avoid rest periods.
d)

Relieve chest pain, reduce extent of myocardial damage, maintain cardiovascular stability, decrease cardiac workload

105.

Which of following are long-term management goals for angina?

a)
Focus on short-term relief, avoid lifestyle changes, increase hospital visits, ignore symptoms.
b)
Promote immediate pain relief, discourage exercise, prioritize medication over lifestyle, reduce follow-up care.
c)

Slow process of CAD, manage risk factors-BP meds, anxiety meds, anticoagulants, antilipidemic meds

d)
Increase medication dosage, limit physical activity, reduce stress levels, enhance dietary restrictions.
106.

Which of the following diets should someone who is suffering angina secondary to CAD be put on?

a)

Low sodium

b)

Low cholesterol

c)

Low caffeine

d)

Low carb

107.

Which of the following chronic conditions need to be controlled in patients with CAD?

a)
Asthma, obesity, arthritis
b)
Anemia, gout, sleep apnea
c)
Thyroid disorders, migraines, allergies
d)
Hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia
108.

Which of the following are cholesterol lowering medications?

a)

Statins

b)

Bile-acid sequestrants

c)

Niacin

d)

Fibric acid agents

e)

Organic nitrates

109.

Which of the following are antianginals?

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Organic nitrates

c)

Opioids

d)

Statins

110.

Which pharmacologic therapy inhibits a liver enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis?

-atorvastatin (Lipitor), simvastatin, pravastatin

-adverse effects: diarrhea, arthralgia and nasopharyngitis

*avoid grapefruit, monitor liver panel, educate patient on muscle pain, brown urine, or malaise

a)

Statins

b)

Bile Acid Sequestrants

c)

Niacin

d)

Fibric Acid Agents

111.

Which pharmacologic treatment has binding bile acids in the intestines (reducing cholesterol reabsorption)

-cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam

-adverse effects: bloating, constipation, reduced absorption of vitamins/minerals

-store in tightly closed container, mix with water or juice, drink ample fluids

a)

Fibric Acid Agents

b)

Statins

c)

Niacin

d)

Bile Acid Sequestrants

112.

Which pharmacologic treatment inhibits an enzyme used in triglyceride synthesis

-nicobid, nicolar, niaspan

-adverse effects: hepatoxicity, flushing, pruritis, peptic ulcer disease

-take with meal/beverage, monitor liver panel/glucose/uric acid levels, educate on alcohol intake, monitor for dizziness with position changes (usually lasts 2 weeks, prevent by taking NSAID)

a)

Niacin

b)

Fibric acid agents

c)

Bile acid sequestrants

d)

Nitrates

113.

Which pharmacologic treatment blocks triglyceride synthesis?

-Gemfibrozil, fenofibrate, fenofibric acid

-adverse effects: hepatitis, myopathy, cholelithiasis, pancreatis

-monitor liver panel, educate patient that med takes months before therapeutic effects, take with meals, do not take pregnant

a)

Fibric acid agents

b)

Nitrates

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Bile acid sequestrants

114.

Which pharmacological treatment promotes vasodilation of blood vessels and decreases preload?

-Nitroglycerin, isosorbide

-adverse effects: headache, hypotension, and dizziness

-used for short term treatment and long acting preventatives, evaluate for relief of angina

*do not use with erectile dysfunction medications and alcohol!

a)

Nitrates

b)

Fibric acid agents

c)

Niacin

d)

Bile acid sequestrants

115.

What is the medication of choice for treating acute angina?

a)
Aspirin
b)
Nitroglycerin
c)
Amiodarone
d)
Metoprolol
116.

How should you educate your patient to take nitroglycerin in terms of dosing?

4 lines
117.

Why is nitroglycerin stored in a brown jar?

a)
Nitroglycerin is stored in a brown jar to prevent evaporation.
b)
Nitroglycerin is stored in a brown jar to protect it from light.
c)
Nitroglycerin is stored in a brown jar to increase its shelf life.
d)
Nitroglycerin is stored in a brown jar to enhance its color.
118.

Umbrella term for conditions that impair blood supply to peripheral tissues, particularly the lower extremities

a)
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
b)
Peripheral artery disease
c)
Chronic venous insufficiency
d)
Arterial occlusive disease
119.

disorder of inadequate venous return over a prolonged period.

*Most common type of Peripheral Venous Disease

a)
Acute Venous Thrombosis
b)
Superficial Venous Disease
c)
Venous Stasis Ulcer
d)
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
120.

• Oxygenated Blood

• Pulses are felt on arteries

• Heart is responsible for circulation

• Blood goes away from the heart

a)
The respiratory system
b)
The digestive system
c)

Veins

d)

Arteries

121.

• Un-oxygenated Blood

• No pulses

• Muscle movement is

responsible for circulation

• Blood returns to the heart

a)
Arterial system
b)

Arteries

c)

Veins

d)
Capillary network
122.

thickening, loss of elasticity, calcification of arterial walls

a)
Atherosclerosis
b)
Hypertension
c)
Arteriosclerosis
d)
Coronary artery disease
123.

form in which deposits of fat, fibrin obstruct, harden arteries

a)
Thrombosis
b)
Atherosclerosis
c)
Cardiomyopathy
d)
Arteriosclerosis
124.

-Plaque forms, narrows vessels, and causes tissue anoxia and hypoxia

-Collaterals form, but usually inadequate to meet needs

Manifests when an artery is occluded by~60% or more

a)

Peripheral venous disease

b)
Embolism
c)
Vasculitis
d)

Peripheral Arterial Disease

125.

Which of the following are risk factors for PAD?

a)
Age, excessive alcohol, high sodium intake
b)
Regular exercise, low blood pressure, healthy diet
c)
Smoking, diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, obesity, sedentary lifestyle
d)
Genetics, high fiber intake, low cholesterol
126.

Pain that occurs with a predictable level of activity

a)
Pain from sudden movements
b)

Intermittent claudication

c)
Pain that varies daily
d)
Chronic pain without triggers
127.

Which of the following are signs of peripheral arterial disease?

a)

Ulceration and edema

b)

Thickened toenails

c)
Frequent headaches or migraines
d)

Thin, shiny, hairless skin with discolored areas

128.

Which type of pain can occur with peripheral arterial disease?

a)
Nerve pain in the arms or hands.
b)

Intermittent claudication

c)
Sharp pain in the chest area.
d)

Resting pain

129.

Arterial ulcerations often form as a result of

a)
infection from poor hygiene practices
b)
excessive moisture from prolonged sitting
c)
trauma from repetitive movements
d)
inadequate blood flow due to peripheral artery disease
130.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). Which finding should the nurse expect?

A. Decreased sensation of the upper extremities

B. Delayed capillary refill in the lower extremities

C. Wheezing upon auscultation of the lungs

D. Dilated blood vessels in the eye

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

131.

Which of the following could be used as diagnostic testing for PAD?

a)
Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) test
b)

Stress testing

c)
CT Angiography Test
d)
Doppler Ultrasound Scan
132.

Which pharmacologic treatment is used to vasodilate and prevent platelet aggregation in patients with PAD ?

a)

Cilostazol (Pletal)

b)

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

c)
Warfarin
d)
Clopidogrel
133.

Which pharmacologic treatment for PAD reduces blood viscosity and increases RBC flexibility?

a)
Aspirin
b)

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

c)
Clopidogrel
d)

Cilostazol (Pletal)

134.

Which of the following is used as pharmacologic treatment for CAD?

a)

Cilostazol (Pletal)

b)
Nitrates
c)

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

d)

Antiplatelets

e)

Statins

135.

Which of the following is important nonpharmacologic treatment for patients with CAD?

a)
Surgical interventions (bypass, stenting)
b)

Foot care

c)
Lifestyle modifications (diet, exercise, smoking cessation)
d)

Management of diabetes, hypertension, obesity

136.

Disorder of poor venous return over prolonged period

a)
Chronic venous insufficiency
b)
Venous thrombosis
c)
Chronic arterial disease
d)
Acute arterial occlusion
137.

stagnation of blood in leg

a)
Arterial blockage in the leg.
b)
Muscle cramping during exercise.
c)
Nerve compression in the leg.
d)
Venous stasis or blood pooling in the leg.
138.

Venous stasis is stagnation of blood in leg

 Leading to CVI due to increased venous pressures

 Arterial circulation is also impaired, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues

 Metabolic waste products also accumulate

 Lower-extremity skin darkens due to RBC breakdown in congested tissue

 Reduction of capillary function results in skin atrophy

-All this leads to...

a)
Acute arterial blockages or clots.
b)
Increased arterial blood flow to tissues.
c)

Necrosis of subcutaneous.

d)
Temporary skin discoloration from bruising.
139.

The following symptoms are signs of:

-edema, itching, dull leg pain, worsens when standing, brown skin pigmentation, statis dermatitis, weeping, ulcerations.

a)
Chronic venous insufficiency
b)
Deep vein thrombosis
c)

Coronary artery disease

d)
Peripheral neuropathy
140.

How do we diagnose CVI?

a)
CVI is diagnosed through blood tests and MRI scans.
b)
Diagnosis of CVI requires only a physical exam and no imaging.
c)
CVI diagnosis is based solely on patient symptoms and family history.
d)

Diagnosis of CVI involves physical examination, medical history review, and occasionally Doppler ultrasound.

141.

Which peripheral vascular disease is shown above?

a)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

b)

Coronary Arterial Disease

c)
Deep Vein Thrombosis
d)
Arterial Insufficiency
142.

Which of the following peripheral vascular diseases is described?

a)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)

b)
Raynaud's Disease
c)
Deep Vein Thrombosis
d)

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

143.

Treatment of CVI includes:

a)

Compression therapy

b)

Reduced prolonged standing or sitting

c)
Dietary supplements and herbal remedies
d)
Rest and elevation of the legs
144.

Which way do we place the legs to help with the effects of Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)?

a)
Keep the legs straight and flat on the ground.
b)
Wrap the legs tightly with bandages.
c)

Let the legs hang below the heart.

d)
Elevate the legs above the level of the heart.
145.

Which way to we place the legs to help with Coronary Arterial Disease?

a)
Cross the legs tightly.
b)
Elevate the legs.
c)
Lower the legs.
d)
Keep the legs straight.