wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Practice Final (ENV101)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Environmental science is an interdisciplinary area of study that deals with all of the following except:

a)

politics

b)

economics

c)

ethics

d)

all of these are correct

2.

An ecosystem is:

a)

the transition zone between grassland and desert.

b)

a group of interactive species and their environment.

c)

a body of freshwater.

d)

the lowland area on either side of a river.

3.

Which is the following is a correct example of interrelatedness?

a)

Wolves reintroduced → coyotes decline → rodents decline → willows increase

b)

Wolves reintroduced → elk decline → willows increase → beavers increase

c)

Wolves reintroduced → coyotes decline → rodents increase → foxes decrease

d)

Wolves reintroduced → elk decline → willows increase → beavers increase → water flow stays the same

4.

The 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change:

a)

has not been agreed to.

b)

sets 2°C as the upper limit for the increase in the temperature of the Earth.

c)

requires all countries to reduce greenhouse gas production.

d)

None of the above is correct

5.

Changing the organisms in a particular environment can lead to abiotic changes of the landscape.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Development that meets present needs without compromising future needs.

a)

sustainability

b)

eco-friendliness

c)

ecocentrism

d)

going "green"

7.

Areas with robust industrial development and low population growth:

a)

HDCs

b)

LDCs

c)

MDCs

d)

None of these

8.

Which of the following are responsible for overpopulation?

a)

HDCs

b)

LDCs

9.

Bees, butterflies, and birds pollinating plants is a ______ ecosystem service:

a)

provisioning

b)

regulating

c)

cultural

d)

supporting

e)

more than one of these

10.

Rene loves to do yoga on the beach since it is so peaceful. This is a ______ ecosystem service.

a)

provisioning

b)

regulating

c)

cultural

d)

supporting

11.

Sustainable development was first defined at:

a)

Earth Summit (1992)

b)

Kyoto Conference (1997)

c)

Paris Climate Agreement (2015)

d)

United Nations Sustainable Development Summit (2015)

12.

First conference aimed at tackling the problem of greenhouse gases & climate change:

a)

Earth Summit (1992)

b)

Kyoto Conference (1997)

c)

Paris Climate Agreement (2015)

d)

United Nations Sustainable Development Summit (2015)

13.

There is always a clear line between "right & wrong" where ethics is concerned.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Living things that are affected by a decision or outcome.

a)

stakeholders

b)

biospheres

c)

corporations

d)

biodiversals

15.

Anthropocentrism:

a)

Human-centered ethics

b)

Life-centered ethics

c)

Ecosystem-centered ethics

d)

Corporate-centered ethics

16.

Biocentrism:

a)

Human-centered ethics

b)

Life-centered ethics

c)

Ecosystem-centered ethics

d)

Corporate-centered ethics

17.

Most ecosystem-centered attitude towards the environment:

a)

development approach

b)

preservation approach

c)

conservation approach

d)

corporate approach

18.

Most balanced attitude towards the environment; includes commercial sustainable development

a)

development approach

b)

preservation approach

c)

conservation approach

d)

corporate approach

19.

The 3 "P's" of the triple bottom line include (choose all that apply):

a)

people

b)

profit

c)

principle

d)

pollution

e)

planet

20.

Movement promoting the fair treatment of ALL people with regards to the environment.

a)

environmental justice

b)

environmental equality

c)

environmental equity

d)

environmental globalization

21.

When a corporation "externalizes the cost" of environmental protection:

a)

they hire a contractor to do it

b)

the public faces the consequences

c)

they fundraise

d)

they greenwash

22.

Natural capitalism is:

a)

The idea that businesses can both expand their profits and take good care of the environment.

b)

Business profits are more important than environmental concerns.

c)

Environmental concerns are more important than business profits.

d)

Businesses can only expand their profits by not taking care of environmental concerns.

23.

Much of the current environmental crisis is rooted in:

a)

The development of environmental laws

b)

The increase in environmental justice concern

c)

The widening gap between rich and poor nations

d)

The narrowing of the gap between rich and poor nations

24.

Order of the steps in the scientific method:

a)

observe, hypothesize, experiment, collect data, & conclude

b)

observe, hypothesize, experiment, conclude, & collect data

c)

conclude, observe, experiment, hypothesize, & collect data

d)

hypothesize, observe, experiment, collect data, & conclude

25.

Correlation is not causation.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The smallest unit of matter.

a)

molecules

b)

atoms

c)

protons

d)

cells

27.

Which atomic particle is responsible for chemical bonding:

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

quark

28.

The most common element found in living things:

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

water

29.

Which of the following compounds is organic:

a)

C6H12O6

b)

H2O

c)

NaCl

d)

HCl

30.

C6H12O6 + O2 = CO2 + H2O + energy

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cell Respiration

31.

Chemical:

a)

energy of movement

b)

energy of chemical reactions

c)

energy traveling through space

d)

energy of opposing charges

e)

energy from the nucleus of atoms

32.

Nuclear:

a)

energy of movement

b)

energy of chemical reactions

c)

energy traveling through space

d)

energy of opposing charges

e)

energy from the nucleus of atoms

33.

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted:

a)

1st Law of Thermodynamics

b)

2nd Law of Thermodynamics

c)

Kinetic Molecular Theory

d)

Law of Gravity

34.

The most common type of energy loss is:

a)

heat

b)

sugar

c)

protein

d)

fat

35.

The air we breathe contains more nitrogen than oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

97% of Earth's water is found in:

a)

saltwater oceans

b)

freshwater lakes

c)

freshwater glaciers

d)

saltwater marshes

37.

All individuals of the same species in a given area.

a)

organism

b)

community

c)

population

d)

ecosystem

38.

Red squirrels live in coniferous forests, spend their time searching for nuts/ seeds, & act as a food source for owls. What is their habitat?

a)

coniferous forests

b)

act as a food source for owls

c)

nut collecting

d)

seed collecting

39.

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor:

a)

weather

b)

minerals

c)

soil

d)

fungi

40.

CO2 + H2O + Energy => C6H12O6 + O2 is the equation for:

a)

producers

b)

consumers

41.

The greatest # of individuals that an ecosystem can sustain.

a)

carrying capacity

b)

range of tolerance

c)

limiting factor

d)

population

42.

Which of the following are not limiting factors:

a)

sunlight

b)

competition

c)

disease

d)

temperature

e)

all of these are limiting factors

43.

Competition between grizzly bears occupying the best fishing spots on a river during the salmon spawning season.

a)

Interspecific

b)

Intraspecific

44.

No two species can occupy the same ecological niche at the same place/ time:

a)

carrying capacity

b)

interspecific competition

c)

competitive exclusion principle

d)

intraspecific competition

45.

Natural selection is the process that determines

a)

who an individual mates with.

b)

which scientist publishes their experiments.

c)

which individuals within a species will reproduce and pass their genes to the next generation.

d)

how active an animal is at night.

46.

At the highest trophic level, there is less energy and fewer organisms than at the lower levels.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Distinct feeding levels (flow of energy) through an ecosystem are called:

a)

trophic levels

b)

food chains

c)

food webs

d)

energy levels

48.

Omnivores, parasites, & scavengers can occupy different trophic levels depending on their food source.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Carbon sinks are common in:

a)

old trees

b)

bogs & swamps

c)

fossil fuels

d)

all of these

50.

Fossil fuels are formed from:

a)

intense heat

b)

intense pressure

c)

the remains of organisms

d)

all of these

51.

Burning fossil fuels _____ greenhouse gases & _____ global warming.

a)

increases; increases

b)

decreases; decreases

c)

increases; decreases

d)

decreases; increases

52.

When algae and Cyanobacteria have an overabundance of nitrogen, algae blooms occur. This is called:

a)

eutrophication

b)

anoxia

c)

hypoxia

d)

fish suffocation

53.

NCHOPS are recycled via:

a)

biogeochemical cycles

b)

carbon sinks

c)

eutrophication

d)

electrophoresis

54.

Which biome is characterized by organisms that are inactive during the day and burrow underground?

a)

tundra

b)

taiga

c)

rainforest

d)

desert

55.

The two major factors influencing vegetation in biomes are:

a)

precipitation and temperature

b)

soil fertility and hydrology

c)

day length and climate

d)

topography and soil type

56.

Which of the following is NOT true of climax communities?

a)

They have fewer types of interactions among organisms than successional communities

b)

They have more kinds of organisms than successional communities

c)

They have a relatively constant biomass while successional communities tend to accumulate biomass

d)

They are able to maintain their mix of species and successional communities do not

57.

Permafrost is only found in the:

a)

tropical rainforest

b)

temperate deciduous forest

c)

tundra

d)

taiga

58.

Contains epiphytic plants that are adapted for high humidity.

a)

tropical rainforests

b)

temperate deciduous forests

c)

savanna

d)

marshlands

59.

Amount of oxygen used by decomposer organisms to degrade organic molecules in aquatic ecosystems.

a)

biological oxygen demand

b)

oxygen sensitivity

c)

organophosphates

d)

50%

60.

Hurricanes, flooding, and fire are examples of disturbances that result in secondary succession.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following ecosystems contains stationary water?

a)

streams

b)

rivers

c)

estuaries

d)

lakes

62.

The process of succession can stop at any point.

a)

true

b)

false

63.

This "rock-decomposer" is called:

a)

lichen

b)

bacteria

c)

protozoa

d)

zooplankton

64.

# of individuals added to the population through reproduction.

a)

mortality

b)

morbidity

c)

natality

d)

reproducibility

65.

For fruit-bearing trees to reproduce, pairs are required. They cannot self-pollinate. This is an example of:

a)

self-pollination

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

parthenogenesis

66.
a)

Natality curve

b)

Mortality curve

c)

Growth Curve

d)

Survivorship curve

67.

Generally, the smaller the organism:

a)

the faster the breeding rate.

b)

the higher the infant mortality.

c)

the more offspring per birth.

d)

All of these are true.

68.

As population _____, competition for resources _____.

a)

increases; increases

b)

decreases; increases

c)

increases; decreases

d)

increases; stays the same

69.

In LDC's like India, the human population is growing:

a)

transitionally

b)

exponentially

c)

logistically

d)

demographically

70.

There are 2500 squirrels in one square mile surrounding Salisbury University. What characteristic of populations does this refer to?

a)

age distribution

b)

geographic range

c)

growth rare

d)

population density

71.

When an individual moves into a population from a different population:

a)

immigration

b)

emigration

c)

growth range

d)

environmental resistance

72.

Which of the following is an extrinsic limiting factor?

a)

Disease

b)

Overcrowding

c)

Intraspecific competition

d)

Genetics

73.

Environmental resistance can be triggered by:

a)

availability of raw materials

b)

availability of energy

c)

accumulation of waste products

d)

interactions between organisms

e)

all of these

74.

Small organisms with many offspring and unstable populations are usually:

a)

called r-strategists

b)

density dependent

c)

long-lived

d)

good parents

75.

LDCs suffer from _____, while HDCs suffer from _____.

a)

malnutrition; overnutrition

b)

overnutrition; malnutrition

76.

Which is usually smaller?

a)

reserve

b)

resource

77.

Oil & petrol are formed from the remains of prehistoric:

a)

plants

b)

animals

78.

The least environmentally-damaging fossil fuel is:

a)

coal

b)

natural gas

c)

nuclear power

d)

oil

79.

The time it takes for half of a specific radioactive material to spontaneously decompose (Ex: 200 million years for uranium):

a)

half-life

b)

bioshock

c)

half-rad

d)

gamma-sec

80.

The main chemical used as a coolant in nuclear power plants.

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

O2

d)

Methane

81.

Primary energy source for nearly half of the world.

a)

animal waste

b)

fuelwood

c)

hydroelectric power

d)

oil

82.

Created when flowing water is captured and turned into electricity:

a)

solar energy

b)

hydroelectric power

c)

wind power

d)

hydrologic power

83.

The biggest drawback of solar power is:

a)

land required

b)

air pollution

c)

cost of photovoltaic cells

d)

toxic byproducts

84.

Wind power is one of the oldest forms of mechanical work.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

4. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of geothermal energy?

a)

Geothermal energy only works on windy days.

b)

Geothermal energy doesn't work everywhere.

c)

Geothermal does not work if there are no rivers.

d)

Geothermal energy is produced all day.

86.

Reducing need for additional energy production & saving $$$.

a)

preservation

b)

conservation

c)

incentivization

d)

sustainability

87.

The cost of renewable energy may be high to start, but it saves money in the long run. This is called:

a)

payback period

b)

incentivization

c)

desertification

d)

conservation

88.

Which biome is more likely to survive a change in the environment?

a)

High (rich) biodiversity

b)

Low (poor) biodiversity

89.

High biodiversity reduces the number of predators and parasites in the ecosystem.

a)

True

b)

False

90.
 Which of the following activities contributes the most to carbon emissions globally?
a)
Deforestation
b)
Agriculture
c)
Burning fossil fuels
d)
Respiration
91.
Melting of glaciers and polar ice caps....
a)
will result in cooler temperatures in the Arctic
b)
will result in sea-levels rising
c)
Will have no effect on ecosystems
d)
None of the above
92.

Define biodiversity

a)

variety of life in Earth's land, freshwater, and marine ecosystems

b)

variety of ecosystems in a given area

c)

the number of different species in a given area and the number of individuals of each species that are present

d)

the variation of genes within a species or population in a given area

93.

Which of the following is a slow process of change in an ecosystem?

a)

wildfire

b)

flash flood

c)

landslide

d)

ecological succession

94.

Extinction of a single species can effect the functioning of an ecosystem.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Occurs when a species is no longer found in a geographic area it once inhabited but is still found elsewhere in the world:

a)

biological extinction

b)

endangerment

c)

local extinction

d)

ecological extinction

96.

Organisms that are less likely to become extinct:

a)

require specific resources

b)

are specialists

c)

reproduce quickly

d)

have narrow niches

97.

People that rely directly on ecosystems for food & raw materials are involved in a ______.

a)

subsistence economy

b)

subsidence economy

c)

wastewater treatment plan

d)

a free-trade economy

98.

The six major causes of biodiversity loss are summarized as:

a)

EPA

b)

ESA

c)

IUCN

d)

HIPPCO

99.

_____ is responsible for spreading thousands of invasive alien species around the world

a)

habitat loss

b)

overexploitation

c)

globalization

d)

overpopulation

100.

Watering crops by way of human-constructed structures is known as

a)

precipitation

b)

irrigation

c)

salinization

d)

fertilization

101.

Which term is used to describe low density, automobile-dependent community development that is associated with land use that has a negative impact?

a)

urban coalition

b)

urban homesteading

c)

urban planning

d)

urban sprawl

102.
People moving from the rural areas to cities is called...
a)
Ruralization
b)
Urbanization
c)
Colonization
d)
None of these
103.

Which of these items should have the biggest influence on land use decisions?

a)

Current animal populations and natural qualities of the ecosystem

b)

Amount of pollution that might be created

c)

Safety of the citizens

d)

All answers are correct

104.
Which of the following are benefits of the forest?
a)
Climate regulation
b)
Soil stabilization
c)
Healthy functions of ecosystems
d)
All of above
105.

Urban sprawl increases carbon dioxide emissions by

a)

generating more factories.

b)

increasing the need to drive.

c)

resulting in more tree growth.

d)

expanding the use of public transportation.

106.

Farm area converted to housing outside of a city:

a)

rural

b)

urban

c)

suburban

d)

subrural

107.

Colonists usually built their towns near:

a)

waterways

b)

city centers

c)

Native American farmsteads

d)

trade routes

108.

Sanitation, water, streets, schools, food inspection, fire department, police, ambulance, & health department, & transportation.

a)

municipal services

b)

city planning

c)

emergency services

d)

human rights services

109.

Act that divided use of national forests into wildlife habitat preservation, recreation, lumbering, & watershed protection.

a)

Environmental Protection Act

b)

Earth Summit

c)

Multiple Use Sustained Yield Act

d)

National Forest Registry

110.

Soil is made of

a)

weathered rocks and minerals

b)

dead plants and animals

c)

air and water

d)

all of the above

111.
It is important for soil to retain water to 
a)
withstand weathering
b)
erode more slowly
c)
help plants to grow
d)
keep it from being dry
112.

A large area of cropland seeded with one crop is a(n)

a)

monocultre

b)

polyculture

c)

organic practice

d)

traditional farming technique

113.
Which of the following would PREVENT soil erosion on a farm? 
a)
over-grazing
b)
deforestation
c)
plowing
d)
crop rotations
114.

If a soil crumbles easily, it is considered:

a)

friable

b)

textured

c)

biotic

d)

loamy

115.

Type of agriculture used by most developed countries:

a)

labor intensive

b)

mechanized monoculture

c)

mechanized polyculture

d)

terracing

116.

The majority of pesticides in the US are:

a)

insecticides

b)

rodenticides

c)

herbicides

d)

fungicides

117.

A human acquires increasing levels of toxin by eating organisms that have been contaminated. This is an example of:

a)

bioaccumulation

b)

biomagnification

c)

bioaugmentation

d)

biotechnology

118.

Often water must be treated to become _______, safe to drink

a)

pathogen

b)

potable

c)

clarified

d)

bonifide

119.

What is the best way to CONSERVE water use in an agricultural setting...

a)

low flow toilets

b)

reuse cooling water

c)

drip irrigation

d)

high power overhead irrigation

120.

What percent of all water is fresh water?

a)

3%

b)

33%

c)

72%

d)

98%

121.
Layers of sand, gravel, or rock lying below the water table are called
a)
Aquducts 
b)
Aquifinas
c)
aquifers
d)
Recharge zone
122.
Water on the top the earth can form lakes or rivers, these are termed ____.
a)
fresh water
b)
infiltration
c)
surface water
d)
groundwater
123.

Pollutants entering waterways from a general area, such as runoff from farmland or suburban communities

a)

Pollution

b)

Point Source Pollution

c)

Non-point Source Pollution

d)

Turbidity

124.

Regulation of water quality standards in the USA:

a)

Brockovich Bill

b)

Qualitative Water Usage Act

c)

Potable Drinking Water Act

d)

Clean Water Act

125.

Precipitation is another term for:

a)

climate change

b)

rain/snow

c)

evaporation

d)

transpiration

126.
Select the correct order for the water treatment process.
a)
Sedimentation - Chlorination - Filtration
b)
Sedimentation - Filtration - Chlorination
c)
Filtration - Chlorination - Sedimentation
d)
Filtration - Sedimentation - Chlorination
127.

The most common source of carbon monoxide comes from _____________________________.

a)

vehicles

b)

swamp gases

c)

industrial sources

d)

none of these

128.
The majority of air pollution comes from __________________.
a)
burning fossil fuels
b)
particulate matter
129.
What is the function of the ozone layer?
a)
to allow UV rays to get to Earth
b)
to block UV rays from getting to Earth
c)
To keep oxygen in
d)
to allow meteors to get to Earth
130.

The "Primary Air Pollutants" are __________________________________.

a)

carbon monoxide, volatile organic compounds, particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, and oxides of nitrogen

b)

radon, particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, and CFC's

c)

photochemical smog, VOC's, PM, and oxides

d)

None of these are correct

131.
What causes acid rain?
a)
High concentrations of sulfuric or nitric acid from pollution
b)
Fertilizer use
c)
Pesticide use
d)
CFCs
132.

Primary product containing lead before the 1980s:

a)

fossil fuels

b)

gasoline

c)

rubber tires

d)

ground beef

133.

Thermal inversions are usually responsible for:

a)

photochemical smog

b)

acid rain

c)

ozone hole

d)

volcanic eruptions

134.

Air quality of HDCs is _____ that of LDCs.

a)

higher than

b)

lower than

c)

the same as

135.
Any amount of CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) in the atmosphere is bad for our planet.
a)
True
b)
False
136.
The conditions in an area over a long period of time?
a)
Climate
b)
Weather
137.
Visible light reaches Earth’s surface while infrared light is trapped as heat. Which characteristic of Earth’s atmosphere causes this to happen?
a)
the hole in the ozone
b)
the greenhouse effect
c)
atmospheric pressure
d)
the inversion layer
138.

What are the main greenhouse gases?

a)

carbon dioxide, oxygen, water vapor, nitrous oxide, methane

b)

carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water vapor, sulfur dioxide

c)

methane, water vapor, carbon dioxide, oxygen

d)

methane, water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide

139.

What are the biggest source(s) of atmospheric methane?

a)

deforestation

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

melting permafrost

d)

livestock

140.

Where does most nitrous oxide emissions come from?

a)

fertilizers

b)

permafrost

c)

livestock

d)

vehicles

141.

The concentration of greenhouse gases in the earth’s atmosphere is directly linked to the average global temperature on Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

A report released in 2013 that made a clearer role of human activities to climate change.

a)

The Fifth Assessment Report

b)

The Paris Agreement

c)

The Global Warming Report

143.

Which of the following is contributing to an INCREASE in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

deforestation

b)

photosynthesis

c)

oceans

d)

all of the above

e)

the loss of animal species

144.

As temperature rises:

a)

plant and animal diseases will spread

b)

ice will form

c)

algae will die

d)

oceans will go through neutralization

145.
Which of the following are problems associated with landfills?
a)
source reduction and composting
b)
surface improvement and leachate
c)
leachate and methane production
d)
all of the above
146.
Which of the following practices would help achieve source reduction?
a)
more consumption
b)
increased use of plastics
c)
more packaging
d)
designing goods that last longer
147.

Most of the municipal solid waste in the United States is

a)

stored in landfills

b)

recycled

c)

incinerated

d)

none of the above

148.

Which countries produce the most municipal solid waste?

a)

LDCs

b)

HDCs

c)

MDCs

149.

Mass burn technology refers to:

a)

landfill use

b)

slash-and-burn agriculture

c)

incineration

d)

nuclear powerplant decommission

150.

In LDCs, conservation is a priority.

a)

True

b)

False

Similar Resources on Wayground

WISC-IV Question Bank

152 questions

WISC-IV Question Bank

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Semester 1 Forensics

151 questions

Semester 1 Forensics

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

SorSU Qualifying Examination in Fisheries (Incoming 2nd Year)

150 questions

SorSU Qualifying Examination in Fisheries (Incoming 2nd Year)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Neuro Week #9

149 questions

Neuro Week #9

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Functions of Lipids and Intro to Amino Acids

150 questions

Functions of Lipids and Intro to Amino Acids

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Test II

148 questions

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Test II

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

PIPE QUIZ GAME

145 questions

PIPE QUIZ GAME

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Page 1

150 questions

Page 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University