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Physics II Exam 3

Total questions: 34

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As a radiographer, you are looking at an image you had just taken, on the review monitor. The image looks marginally noisy. Your next step should be to

a)

refer to the Exposure Index# to confirm the image appearance.

b)

return to the patient and repeat the image at a higher kVp.

c)

send the image for interpretation since the radiologist’s monitor will correct the noise.

d)

repeat the image at a shorter SID to increase exposure to the detector.

2.

With digital technologies (DR/CR), perhaps the single-most important consideration when using this technology is

a)

using high-speed anode rotation.

b)

the processing speed of the digital computer.

c)

the quality of the image review monitor used by the technologist.

d)

the total amount of exposure incident upon the detector.

3.

All of the following are related EXCEPT

a)

clinical fine tuning.

b)

making phantom test exposures.

c)

selecting optimum phantom images from the internet.

d)

clinical trial.

4.

A major distinction between DR and CR receptors is that

a)

CR requires particular attention to placement of the anatomy on the receptor.

b)

DR is not affected by collimation symmetry.

c)

The latent image in CR is time-sensitive.

d)

all of the above.

5.

Extreme overexposure to a DR detector can result in

a)

an increase in diagnostic acuity.

b)

detector DEL saturation.

c)

increased quantum noise.

d)

rescaling errors.

6.

When adding annotation to a digital radiographic image, it is important to remember that

a)

the annotation needs to be added to the exam requisition as well.

b)

electronic annotation for patient laterality is unacceptable.

c)

the annotation is a temporary indication of patient condition.

d)

all electronic annotation is legally acceptable.

7.

A radiographic image that demonstrates image receptor electronics on the final image, superimposed over patient anatomy, is likely the result of

a)

overexposure data drop.

b)

improper radiographic grid alignment.

c)

backscatter radiation.

d)

Dexel saturation.

8.

The final appearance of a digital image in terms of brightness and contrast is principally due to

a)

data rescaling.

b)

the application of a look up table.

c)

window and level controls.

d)

total exposure to the detector.

9.

The tendency of technologists to use more exposure than needed, and allowing computer rescaling to compensate for it, has lead to

a)

increased image acuity.

b)

lengthened DR panel usable life.

c)

increased diagnostic fidelity.

d)

dose creep.

10.

DR and CR image receptors

a)

work well with automatic exposure control.

b)

have two classes: indirect and direct.

c)

require a reader mechanism to capture the image signal.

d)

display a quantitative measure of receptor exposure.

11.

The total amount of clinically significant diagnostic image on a medical image is referred to as

a)

image fidelity.

b)

diagnostic acuity.

c)

diagnostic efficacy.

d)

diagnostic yield.

12.

Which of the following factors would DECREASE remnant radiation exposure to a DR detector?

a)

switching from a 8:1 grid to a 4:1 grid.

b)

increasing the kVp and maintaining the same mAs.

c)

using a 8” air-gap.

d)

increasing the kvP from 75 to 87 and reducing mAs from 8mAs to 4 mAs.

13.

Fixed kVp exposure techniques systems require

a)

a minimum mA.

b)

automatic exposure control (AEC).

c)

an optimum threshold kVp.

d)

radiographic grids.

14.

According to the AAPM, a DI value of 4 indicates

a)

a mid-range exposure that is acceptable, based upon department target values.

b)

underexposure and an image that will demonstrate low brightness.

c)

optimum exposure.

d)

overexposure and an ALARA violation.

15.

A DR detector that is integral to the x-ray system means that the detector

a)

must be used with a generator interface.

b)

uses wireless technology and is connected to the system by way of a router.

c)

is built in to the design of the x-ray equipment and the radiographer cannot access it.

d)

is not “hard-wired” to the x-ray unit.

16.

Objectionable quantum noise on an image that makes its acceptance marginal, generally indicates an underexposure of

a)

25 percent.

b)

50 percent.

c)

100 percent.

d)

200 percent.

17.

Essential to ALARA compliance is

a)

optimizing LUT application.

b)

consistently using the correct focal spot size.

c)

using accurate exposure techniques based upon patient measurement.

d)

using auto-detection technology DR panels to increase patient comfort.

18.

DR detector element saturation can result in image

a)

data drop.

b)

detector shut-off to protect the patient.

c)

image reversal (solarization) due to photon saturation.

d)

improved spatial resolution.

19.

Underexposed radiographic images demonstrate

a)

decreased image brightness.

b)

photon starvation.

c)

increased contrast.

d)

the visibility of grid lines.

20.

When setting kVp levels using DR technologies, it is important to understand that

a)

higher kVp values produce a more narrow histogram.

b)

kVp levels should not exceed 80 kVp for nongrid radiography.

c)

when scatter ratios reach 50 percent or greater, radiographic grids should be used.

d)

all of the above.

21.

The visualization of clothing, hair braids, keloids, etc., is principally due to what characteristic of DR and CR detectors?

a)

an extended dynamic range

b)

low contrast resolution

c)

DEL sensitivity

d)

all of the above

22.

Elimination of extraneous light from the edges of a digital radiographic image, is achieved through

a)

adjusting window and level controls.

b)

the application of veil glare software.

c)

electronic masking.

d)

reassignment of a different look-up table.

23.

Extraneous information that appears on a medical image, that does not represent the patient and their medical condition, is referred to as

a)

an artifact.

b)

data drop.

c)

noise.

d)

signal loss.

24.

With digital detector technology, the traditional rules of exposure and image quality do not necessarily apply completely. One of these rules is that

a)

a fixed mAs-variable kVp technique system should be used exclusively.

b)

the amount of scatter formation is primarily a function of mAs rather than kVp.

c)

kVp values should be lowered compared to film-screen techniques.

d)

radiographic grids are no longer necessary.

25.

With a variable-kVp exposure technique system, the threshold kVp is typically set at

a)

30 kVp.

b)

50 kVp.

c)

70 kVp.

d)

there is no minimum kVp required.

26.

A network of computers, servers and storage devices for the distribution and display of medical images is commonly referred to as a(n) ______________ system.

a)

EMR

b)

PACS

c)

VNA

d)

RIS

27.

All of the following are true of flat screen displays used to interpret medical images EXCEPT:

a)

they come in two basic types, LED and CRT

b)

LCD monitors are angle dependent

c)

monitor quality is assessed regularly using a GSDF Standard

d)

they should be situated in reading rooms with low ambient light conditions

28.

The adoption of a DICOM standard in the medical imaging industry was designed to

a)

allow various vendors to share digital data without proprietary software constraints.

b)

eliminate small vendors from the medical marketplace based upon product quality and reliability.

c)

protect patients’ medical records and information.

d)

establish common exposure dosage values for various medical imaging procedures.

29.

Gray scale bit depth determines

a)

pixel size

b)

pixel pitch

c)

the number of gray shades

d)

image resolution

30.

Essential characteristics of a PACS include:

a)

1, 2, 4, and 5 only

b)

2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only

c)

1, 4, and 6 only

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 only

31.

The acronym PACS stands for

a)

pixel and computed system.

b)

picture and communication system.

c)

picture archiving and communication system.

d)

portable archival computer system.

32.

Production of a grainy, reticulated image that cannot be corrected in digital postprocessing is the result of

a)

failure to use a high enough mAs setting.

b)

failure to use a high enough kVp setting.

c)

failure to use the correct algorithm.

d)

failure to use the proper SID.

33.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) intends to

a)

streamline patient billing and accounts receivable for the provider.

b)

consolidate major medical insurance companies into regional insurance co-ops.

c)

protect a patient’s medical information from unauthorized usage and access.

d)

prevent the duplication of medical procedures and billings without prior authorization.

34.

Which is an advantage to the digital environment over film?

a)

Digital images can be manipulated without re-exposure to patients.

b)

Digital images can be sent to remote locations.

c)

Digital images require less physical storage.

d)

all of the above.