wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

RS 212 Final Review FA25

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Team Member names

(a)  

2.

Exposure factors of 350 mA at 1/4 seconds yields:

a)

8.75 mAs

b)

9.0 mAs

c)

87.5 mAs

d)

90 mAs

3.

The body plane that divides the body into front and half parts is:

a)

axial

b)

coronal

c)

sagittal

d)

paranormal

4.

The body plane that divides the body into right and left halves is:

a)

axial

b)

coronal

c)

sagittal

d)

paranormal

5.

The body plane that divides the body into transverse sections is:

a)

axial

b)

coronal

c)

sagittal

d)

paranormal

6.

The body movement that allows for movement of the arm away from the body is known as:

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

flexion

d)

extension

7.

The movement of the arm towards the body is known as:

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

flexion

d)

extension

8.

Contracting the biceps muscle results from _____ of the arm.

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

flexion

d)

extension

9.

The fingers of the hand are located ______ to the forearm.

a)

palmar

b)

dorsal

c)

proximal

d)

distal

10.

The wrist is located ______ to the forearm.

a)

palmar

b)

dorsal

c)

distal

d)

proximal

11.

The elbow is located ______ to the forearm.

a)

palmar

b)

dorsal

c)

distal

d)

proximal

12.

The position that indicates a patient is lying on their back:

a)

lateral recumbent

b)

dorsal recumbent

c)

prone

d)

Fowlers

13.

A position that indicates a patient is laying on his/her right or left side with knees flexed is:

a)

lateral recumbent

b)

dorsal recumbent

c)

prone

d)

supine

14.

Patient laying face down is known as:

a)

supine

b)

prone

c)

Sims'

d)

Trendelenburg

15.

The projection seen here is:

a)

Posterior Anterior

b)

Lateral

c)

Decubitus

d)

None of the above

16.

What anatomical landmark corresponds with T6/7?

a)

Jugular Notch

b)

Inferior angle of the scapula

c)

Xiphoid process

d)

None of the above

17.

All of the following are positioning criteria for a PA chest projection except:

a)

Central Ray to MSP and T6-7

b)

Double inhalation

c)

90 kVp

d)

Shield placed anteriorly

18.

The following is a properly positioned chest radiograph?

a)

True

b)

False

19.

The term that describes a patient who is extremely large is:

a)

Hyposthenic

b)

Hypersthenic

c)

Asthenic

20.

Magnification of the heart is reduced during chest radiography by all of the following except:

a)

Place the patient in the PA position

b)

Use of the left lateral

c)

Seat the patient on a stool

d)

Use a 72" SID

21.

Which projection would best demonstrate a lesion in the right apex?

a)

PA

b)

Lateral

c)

Decubitus

d)

AP Axial

22.

Which projection would demonstrate an air fluid level in the right lung?

a)

PA

b)

Lateral

c)

Decubitus

d)

AP Axial

e)

None of the above

23.

The patient is suspected of having a left sided pneumothorax. He is unable to stand. What projection would be performed to confirm this pathology?

a)

Left Lateral Decubitus

b)

Right Lateral Decubitus

c)

Dorsal Decubitus

d)

Ventral Decubitus

24.

A 90 YR OLD UNSTABLE PATIENT IS IN THE DEPARTMENT FOR DYSPNEA. AFTER COMPLETING THE ROUTINE EXAM THE RADIOLOGIST REQUESTS IMAGES TO DEMONSTRATE RIGHT SIDED FLUID LEVEL. WHAT IMAGE WOULD YOU PERFORM? GIVE THE POSITIONING CRITERIA.

a)

Right lateral Decubitus

b)

Left Lateral Decubitus

c)

Dorsal Decubitus

d)

Ventral Decubitus

25.

A well aerated PA chest will demonstrate lungs filled down to the 9-10th posterior rib.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

How is rotation assessed on a PA chest radiograph?

a)

Symmetry of the Lungs

b)

Symmetry of the ribs

c)

Symmetry of the SC joint

d)

All of the above

27.

Which of the following terms is used to describes "Shortness of Breath"?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Bronchiectasis

c)

Pleurisy

d)

Atelectasis

28.

What is the positioning error seen here?

a)

Patient is rotated to the left

b)

Patient is rotated to the right

c)

Patient is positioned correctly

29.

Identify the anatomy labeled #3

a)

Olecranon

b)

Coronoid

c)

Trochlea

d)

Epicondyles

30.

This image best demonstrates the phalanges to identify anterior/posterior displacement of fractures.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Proper central ray placement for this view would be:

a)

3rd MCP

b)

2nd CMC

c)

5th MCP

d)

5th CMC

32.

Identify the projection seen here.

a)

AP

b)

AP Oblique with internal rotation

c)

AP Oblique with external rotation

d)

Lateral

33.

What is the name of the fat stripe seen here?

a)

Supinator

b)

Pronator

c)

Lateral

d)

Scaphoid

34.

What view will best demonstrate the pisiform?

a)

PA

b)

PA Oblique

c)

AP Oblique

d)

Lateral

35.

What is the proper name of the fracture seen here?

a)

Barton's

b)

Colle's

c)

Smith's

d)

None of the above

36.

A patient arrives to the Department for a chest exam with a history of pleural effusion. The technique adjustment required is:

a)

Increase exposure factors to penetrate fluid

b)

Decrease exposure factors to reduce dose

c)

Use a lower kVp for better contrast

d)

No adjustment is necessary

37.

A patient with a history of Atelectasis would require an increase in exposure factors for imaging.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Patient's with history of pneumoperitoneum would require an increase in exposure factors.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What projection is this?

a)

KUB

b)

LLD

c)

RLD

d)

Erect

40.

What is the arthrology of the metacarpophalangeal joints?

a)

Ginglymus

b)

Ellipsoidal

c)

Saddle

d)

Plane

41.

The anatomy labeled "C" is

a)

Posterior fat pad

b)

anterior fat pad

c)

supinator fat pad

d)

pronator fat pad

42.

Rheumatoid Arthritis requires a decrease in technique due to the destructive nature of the pathology.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

This is a properly positioned PA finger image.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The Olecranon can be well demonstrated on which image(s)? Select all that apply.

a)

AP

b)

Internal Oblique

c)

Lateral

d)

Partial Flexion

e)

Acute Flexion

45.

The bone labeled "D" is best demonstrated in what projection?

a)

PA Wrist

b)

AP Wrist

c)

PA Oblique Wrist

d)

AP Oblique Wrist

46.

The anatomy best demonstrated when the upper extremity is rotated 45 degrees medially is:

a)

Pisiform

b)

Radial Head

c)

Lateral Epicondyle

d)

Trapezium

47.

The tube is angled 15 degrees proximal. The pathology best demonstrated would be:

a)

Rolando's Fracture

b)

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

c)

Radial Head Fracture

d)

Coronoid Process Fracture

48.

Salter Harris classifications are used for what anatomy?

a)

Epiphysis Fractures

b)

Humerus

c)

Radius

d)

Scaphoid

49.

The gap created on an AP wrist with disruption of the scapholunar ligament can be referred to as:

a)

Terry Thomas Sign

b)

Schwarzanager Gap

c)

Wrist crater

d)

Rocky Groove

50.

The projection demonstrated here is:

a)

A) Axiolateral Elbow

b)

B) Lateral Oblique Elbow

c)

C) Lateral elbow

d)

D) Medial Oblique Elbow

51.

A radiograph of the PA scaphoid projection reveals extensive superimposition of the scaphoid and adjacent carpals. Which of the following factors can lead to this problem?

a)

A) Elevation of the hand and wrist

b)

B) Insufficient CR angle distally

c)

C) Insufficient ulnar deviation

d)

D) Slight flexion of the phalanges

52.

Which of the following best demonstrates the radial head using the trauma lateral Coyle method routine?

a)

Elbow flexed 80 Degrees, CR angled 45 degrees away from shoulder

b)

Elbow flexed 90 Degrees, CR angled 45 degrees toward shoulder

c)

Elbow flexed 90 Degrees, CR angled 30 degrees toward shoulder

d)

Elbow flexed 90 degrees, CR perpendicular to image receptor

53.

How should the humeral epicondyles be aligned for a lateral projection of the elbow?

a)

Parallel to image receptor

b)

Perpendicular to image receptor

c)

45 degrees to image receptor

d)

40 degrees to image receptor

54.

In which of the 4 quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found?

a)

RUQ

b)

RLQ

c)

LUQ

d)

LLQ

55.

The coracoid process is part of the clavicle.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which projection best demonstrates the acromioclavicular joints?

a)

AP projection with weights

b)

Lateral scapula

c)

AP shoulder

d)

PA clavicle

57.

The humerus is part of the shoulder girdle.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

The clavicle is the only long bone in the body that lies horizontally.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which radiographic view is used to assess the subacromial space?

a)

Grashey

b)

Garth

c)

Lawrence

d)

Gaynor-Hart

60.

The clavicle articulates with the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which position is used to best visualize the greater tubercle of the humerus?

a)

External rotation

b)

Internal rotation

c)

Neutral position

d)

Supine position

62.

The humeral head articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What is the purpose of the Y-view in shoulder radiography?

a)

To measure bone density

b)

To evaluate soft tissue

c)

To check for fractures

d)

To assess shoulder dislocation

64.

An AP chest X-ray typically results in greater magnification of the heart compared to a PA view.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Why is it important to take a patient history before imaging?

a)

To understand patient anxiety levels

b)

To inform technique and identify contraindications

c)

To identify food allergies

d)

To reduce patient wait time

66.

A lateral chest X-ray is performed to assess the retrocardiac space and lower lobes.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The left lateral decubitus position is used to visualize free air under the right hemidiaphragm.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What is a primary reason for using an upright position for chest X-rays?

a)

To assess air-fluid levels in the chest

b)

To speed up the procedure

c)

To increase patient comfort

d)

To reduce radiation dose

Similar Resources on Wayground

Medical Botany Exam 2 Practice

65 questions

Medical Botany Exam 2 Practice

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Final Exam Review

67 questions

Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Final Chapters Review 1010C

72 questions

Final Chapters Review 1010C

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Review for final

69 questions

Review for final

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Muscle Anatomy superficial-horse

68 questions

Muscle Anatomy superficial-horse

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Genetics AHS

65 questions

Genetics AHS

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Mule Deer

68 questions

Mule Deer

quiz

Worksheet

•

University - Professi...

Mid Term Review

70 questions

Mid Term Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University