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;ecture biology exam 3rd

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of following is a function of noncoding DNA

a)

encodes protiens

b)

catalyzes enymatic reaction

c)

regulates gene expression

d)

packages histone proteins

2.

which of the following RNA types helps form peptide bonds during translation

a)

Mrna

b)

Trna

c)

Rrna

d)

Sirna

3.

what is quorum sensing

a)

the method by which bacteria detoxity reactive oxygen species

b)

a cell density dependent mechanism for coordinating gene expression

c)

he use of pili to transfer dna between cells

d)

ability of some bacteria to swim toward nutrients

4.

which term best describes an organism that grows equally well with or without oxygen

a)

Facultative anaerobe

b)

obligate aerobe

c)

obligate anaerobe

d)

Aerotolerant anaerobe

5.

which best describes an endergonic/anabolic reaction

a)

a reaction that releases energy to the surrounding

b)

a reaction that occurs spontaneously without the input of energy

c)

a reaction that requires an input of energy to proceed

d)

a reaction that results in the breakdown of large molecules in small

6.

what did griffths experiment demonstrate

a)

rna is the genetic material

b)

bacteria cannot share genetic material

c)

dna replication is semi conservative

d)

non virulent bacteria can be transformed by gentic material from dead virulent bacteria

7.

which rna type carries the amino acid to the ribosome

a)

mrna

b)

trna

c)

rrna

d)

mirna

8.

which base is found in rna but not in dna

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

uracil

d)

guanine

9.

what type of microbe prefers a basic(alkline) environement

a)

neutrophile

b)

psychrophile

c)

acidophile

d)

alkalphile

10.

during which phase of the growth curve are bacteria most susceptible to antibiotic

a)

lag

b)

log

c)

stationary

d)

death

11.

which of the following pathways generates the most ATP

a)

glycolysis

b)

krebs cycle

c)

fermentation

d)

electron transport chain

12.

what is the primary purpose of fermentation in microbes

a)

generate atp via oxidative phosphory lation

b)

regenerate NAD+ from NADH for glycolysis in absence of oxygen

c)

reduce oxygen levels in the cytoplasm

d)

breakdown fatty acids

13.

which molecule acts as the final electron aceptor in aerobic respiration

a)

pyruvate

b)

NAD+

c)

oxygen

d)

CO2

14.

what determines the host range of a virus

a)

the ability to undergo binary fission

b)

the presence of compatiable receptors on a host cell

c)

the type of nucleic acid it carries

d)

its ability to form endospores

15.

in the lysogenic cycle the viral genome integrates into the host dna and becomes a

a)

capsid

b)

plasmid

c)

persister cell

d)

prophage

16.

which of the following correctly pairs a prokaryotic structure with its function

a)

capsule-site of protein synthesis

b)

endospore-movement through host tissue

c)

plasmid-extachromosomal dna with benefical adventageous genes

d)

ribosome-stores energy

17.

what is the primary structal difference between gram positive and gram negative bacterial cell walls

a)

thickness of the peptidoglycan layer and prescens outer membrane

b)

amount of dna

c)

presences of a nucleus

d)

type of flagella

18.

which of the following is evidence that supports the endosymbotic theory

a)

mitochondira & chlorplast are only found in prokaryotic cell

b)

mitocondria & chlorplast reproduce by mitiosis

c)

eukaryotic cell uses binary fission

d)

mitochondria & chlorplast have circular dna & divide by binary fission

19.

which of the following groups of organisms is correctly match with its characteristics

a)

fungi- autotrophic, multicellular,cell wall of cellulose

b)

bacteria-prokaryotic, repordcue sexually have a nucelus

c)

algae-eukaryotic photosynthesis cell wall of cellulose

d)

prions-living,infectionous protien with rna

20.

which statement most accurately explain k

a)

microorganisms can be created in a lab to cure disease

b)

all bacteria are pathogenic and follow universal pattern

c)

a specific microorganisms can be linked to a specific disease using logical steps

d)

only viruses can be used to determine disease origin

21.

Exam 2

which resistance mechanism allows bacteria to actively remove antimicrobal agents from their cells

a)

target modification

b)

drug inactivation

c)

efflux pumps

d)

enzymatic bypass

22.

which antibody isotype is primarily found in secretions such as breast milk & tears

a)

IGA

b)

IGG

c)

IGE

d)

IGM

23.

what triggers a cytokine storm

a)

helper t cell activation

b)

overaction of regulatory t cells

c)

superantigens causing unregulated t cell activation

d)

inactivated vacciens

24.

what is the function of MHC 2 molecules

a)

present intracellular anitgens

b)

presnt antigens to cytotoxic t cells

c)

presnt antigens to helper cells

d)

identify self cells to NK cells

25.

which class of antibodies is the most abundant and can cross the placental barrier

a)

IGA

b)

IGD

c)

IGE

d)

IGG

26.

which immune cells mature in thymus

a)

b cell

b)

t cell

c)

NK cell

d)

dendritic cell

27.

what is the mode of action of b lactam antibiotics

a)

inhibt proeitn synthesis

b)

disrupt membrane integrity

c)

block folic acid synthesis

d)

inhibit peptidoglycan crosslinking

28.

which is false about newly transcribed MRNA in prokaryotes

a)

its immediately available for translation

b)

must undergo post transcriptional modification

c)

last for approximately 5 seconds before degrading

d)

acts as a messenger to translate protien for cell

29.

bactericidal antibitotics are preferred overbacteriostatic ones when treating

a)

mild skin infections in healthy individuals

b)

life threatening systemic infections in immuneocompromised patient

c)

common cold

d)

urinary tract infections

30.

a diases acquired during hospitalization called

a)

communicable

b)

nosocomical

c)

latrogenic

d)

opportunistic

31.

which innate defense mechanism utilizes opsonization to coat pathogen for easier phagocytosis(tagging)

a)

lysozyme

b)

complement system

c)

IGG

d)

interferon

32.

which type of pathogen would most likely use antigenic variation as a method of immune evasion

a)

bacteria

b)

helminths

c)

viruses

d)

fungi

33.

which virulenece factor allows a bacterium to avoid being engulfed by immune cells

a)

kinases

b)

capsules

c)

coagulase

d)

exotoxins

34.

which of the followig is suitable for use on living tissue for microbial control to prevent infection

a)

disinfectant

b)

antiseptic

c)

sterilant

d)

water

35.

transduction involves transfer of genetice material via

a)

bacteriophage

b)

naked dna

c)

viruses

d)

pili

36.

which horizontail gene transfer method requires a pilus

a)

transformation

b)

transduction

c)

conjunction

d)

all of the above

37.

which of the following types of mutation is mostly likely to have a drastic effectt on a protein function

a)

silent mutation

b)

missense mutation

c)

frameshift muation

d)

neutral mutation

38.

which of the following correctly matches central dogma biology

a)

Protien- dna-rna

b)

dna-rna-protein

c)

rna-dna-protien

d)

protien-rna-dna

39.

what is the purpose of promotor region in transcription

a)

signal end of gene

b)

to bind rna polymerase

c)

remove introns

d)

start dna replication

40.

which enzyme is responsible for unwinding dna doubble helix during replication

a)

ligase

b)

primase

c)

helicase

d)

dna polymerase

41.

exam 3

which of the following best describes borrelia burgdorferi

a)

bacillus that causes plague

b)

coccus that causes cat scratch disease

c)

spirillum that causes rocky mt spotted fever

d)

a spirochete that causes lyme diese

42.

naeglena folweri meningoenecephlatitis commonly acquired by

a)

exposure bird droppings

b)

mosquito bites

c)

ingestion of water contaminated w fecal material

d)

swimming in warm pond/streams

43.

what part of the immune system protect brain from infection but also limit access to be treatment

a)

lymph nodes

b)

microglia

c)

thymus

d)

blood brain barrier

44.

what type of nervous system infection does toxoplasma gondi most often cause

a)

encephalitus

b)

guillain barrer syndrome

c)

spinal menigitis

d)

myelitis

45.

which of the following is a fungal cause of meningitis often found immunocompromised indiviual

a)

asperigullus fumigatus

b)

coccidioides immitis

c)

histoplasma capsulation

d)

cryptococcus nefumans

46.

poliovirus is primarily spread via

a)

bloodborne transmission

b)

respiratory droplets

c)

fecal oral route

d)

vector borne transmission

47.

why is complete eradication of influenza a unlikely

a)

vaccienes cant be produced

b)

bc antigenic drift/shift and animal resvoir sustain new strains

c)

bc respiratory infectious dont dpread by aerosals

d)

bc its bacterium not a virus

48.

which bacterium is assoicated with foodborne illnes and can cross the placental barrier in pregant women

a)

bacillus cereus

b)

listeria monocytogens

c)

escherichia coli

d)

clostridum botulinum

49.

which disease if transmitted by anopheles mosquito

a)

chagas disease

b)

malaria

c)

dengue

d)

african sleeping sickness

50.

genital warts and cervical cancer are assoicated w which virus

a)

human papilloma virus

b)

cytomegalovirus

c)

herpes simplex virus 2

d)

varicella zoster virus

51.

primary vector for transmission of plague is

a)

louse

b)

tick

c)

flea

d)

mosoquito

52.

which bacterial toxins cause flaccied paralysis and is sometimes ingested in food(honey)

a)

tetanospasmim

b)

shiga toxin

c)

botulinum toxin

d)

cholera toxin

53.

which protozan cause watery foul smelly diaarrehea backpacker diarrehea and is commonly acquired from freshwater

a)

entamoeba histallytica

b)

trichomonae vaginaltis

c)

giardia lambia

d)

cryptospordium

54.

which virus is most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in adult

a)

rotavirus

b)

hepaitis a

c)

norovirus

d)

adenovirus

55.

which bacterium procedures a shiga like toxin and is linked to henolytic uremic syndrome(HUS)

a)

salmonella typhi

b)

vibrio chloerae

c)

helicobacter pylori

d)

e coli O157:H7

56.

syphilis caused by

a)

neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

treponema pallidum

c)

gardnerella vaginalis

d)

chlamydia trachomatis

57.

pelvic inflammatory disease is a complication of which 2 stis

a)

HPV & HIV

b)

Syphillis & Chlamydia

c)

Gonorrhea & Chlamydia

d)

Hepatitus B & HPV

58.

tuberculosis is transmitted via

a)

insect vector

b)

sexual contact

c)

inhalation of respiratory droplet

d)

fecal oral route

59.

which organism is responsible for walking pneumonia

a)

streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

klebsiella pneumoniae

c)

haemophillus influenzae

d)

mycoplasma pneumoniae

60.

which virus cause cold sores

a)

cytomegalovirus

b)

herpes simplex virus 1

c)

human papillomavirus

d)

epstein barr virus

61.

which microorganism is responsible for trachoma cause of blindness

a)

chlamydia trachomatius

b)

haemophilus influenza

c)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

candida albicans

62.

which of the following cause nectoring fasciltitis

a)

streptococcus pyogens

b)

mycobacterium leprae

c)

straphylococcus epidermidis

d)

bacillus anthracis

63.

which of the following disease is an autoimmune disorder that targets insulin producing b cells of pancrease

a)

systeemic lupus erythematosus

b)

multiple sclerosis

c)

type 1 diabetes mellitus

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

64.

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is best classified as which type of hypersensitivity

a)

type 3

b)

type 1

c)

type 2

d)

type 5 IV

65.

which type of hypersensitivty is mediated by IGE and results in allergic reaction such as hay fever and anaphylaxis

a)

type 2

b)

type 1

c)

type 3

d)

type5 IV