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Worksheets

MWH Honors Final Review

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How did the black death spread over the oceans

a)

By Birds

b)

Over trade routes

c)

Missionary work

d)

Captured fighters

2.

How did the Plague spread

a)

Soldiers returning from the Crusades

b)

Rats on trading ships

c)

Airborne, meaning spread through the air

d)

Fleas who bit infected rats

3.

Where did it originate?

a)

North Africa

b)

Central Asia

c)

The Americas

d)

Europe

4.

How did the Plague contribute to the decline of Feudalism

a)

Stopped all legal reforms which gave power back to its original owners

b)

Desperate need for workers and now workers could demand more rights

c)

Gave more power to the clergy allowing them to gain more land and taxes

d)

Killed off everyone in the Feudal system

5.
The Silk Road was what?
a)
One road that was the color of silk. 
b)
A network of roads used for trading.
c)
A road that only silk was traded on.
d)
The name of the first road in Asia. 
6.

What religious movement created a new form of Christianity called "Protestantism"?

a)

Renaissance

b)

Reformation

c)

Indulgence

d)

Patrons

7.

Who invented the Printing Press?

a)

WIlliam Shakespeare

b)

Shredder

c)

Michaelangelo

d)

Johannes Gutenberg

8.

A "rebirth" or renewal in the classical art of Europe is known as the...

a)

Indulgence

b)

Renaissance

c)

Reformation

d)

Honeymoon

9.

Which branch of Christianity did Martin Luther start?

a)

Catholicism

b)

Buddhism

c)

Lutheranism

d)

Protestantism

10.

What is it called when someone pays a fee to be forgiven of their sins?

a)

Feudalism

b)

Indulgence

c)

Bigotry

d)

Heresy

11.

Who was very AGAINST the selling of indulgences?

a)

Martin Luther

b)

Queen Elizabeth I

c)

Queen Mary I

d)

King Clement

12.

What movement shifted the focus from religion to a focus on man and art?

a)

Taoism

b)

Romanism

c)

Humanism

d)

Protestants

13.

Which two civilizations led the Renaissance?

a)

Rome and Greece

b)

Russia and China

c)

China and India

d)

India and Greece

14.

How did art change during the Renaissance?

a)

There was no real change

b)

It was not popular with the masses

c)

No one really painted during this time

d)

Artwork became more realistic and lifelike

15.

What did the Catholic Church do to Martin Luther for protesting?

a)

They made him pope

b)

They excommunicated him

c)

They killed him

d)

They thanked him

16.

What did the Catholic Church do to Martin Luther for protesting?

a)

They made him pope

b)

They excommunicated him

c)

They killed him

d)

They thanked him

17.

Why was the printing press so important?

a)

It made books less expensive

b)

More people learned to read

c)

Books could be printed and spread ideas quickly

d)

All of the above

18.
Why was Leonardo da Vinci considered a Renaissance Man?
a)
He studied different subjects like math, anatomy, art, and engineering.
b)
He was a man born during the Renaissance.
c)
He only focused on painting and sculpting.
d)
He wrote many works about humanity and the inner struggle of emotions.
19.
Why did Henry VIII create the Church of England?
a)
Divorce his wife
b)
Start war with Pope
c)
Religious differences with Catholics
d)
Liked Lutheranism
20.
Which of Henry VIII'a daughters became a successful English queen?
a)
Elizabeth I
b)
Mary I
c)
Joanna I
d)
Victoria I
21.

Before the Reformation, Christian churches were ___________

a)

Jewish

b)

Roman Catholic

c)

Muslim

d)

None of the Above

22.

What are the three main reasons why Europeans began to explore more of the world?

a)

God, Gold, and Glory

b)

Power, Peace, and Prosperity

c)

Science, Art, and Literature

d)

War, Wealth, and Wisdom

23.

Fill in the blank: Europeans wanted to spread ________ as one of the main reasons for exploration.

a)

Christianity

b)

Buddhism

c)

Hinduism

d)

Islam

24.

Monarchs wanted better trade routes to which continent?

a)

Asia

b)

Africa

c)

Europe

d)

Australia

25.

Who founded a navigation school in Portugal in 1419, leading to new innovations and technologies for sea navigation?

a)

Christopher Columbus

b)

Vasco da Gama

c)

Prince Henry the "Navigator"

d)

Ferdinand Magellan

26.

Who believed that he could find a sea route by sailing west instead of traveling around Africa?

a)

Christopher Columbus

b)

Ferdinand Magellan

c)

Vasco da Gama

d)

Hernán Cortés

27.

Christopher Columbus convinced the king and queen of ______ to fund him.

a)

Spain

b)

France

c)

England

d)

Portugal

28.

Who was Juan Ponce de Leon?

a)

A Spanish conquistador who led the first European expedition to Puerto Rico and Florida

b)

An Italian explorer who discovered America

c)

A French king

d)

An English pirate

29.

The Aztecs were the dominant civilization in ______ during the 1300s to the 1500s.

a)

Mexico

b)

Peru

c)

Egypt

d)

China

30.

In the 1530s, Portugal built ______ plantations in Brazil.

a)

sugar

b)

cotton

c)

coffee

d)

tobacco

31.

Why did the Portuguese begin enslaving Native Americans and importing enslaved Africans to Brazil?

a)

Because sugar requires extensive labor.

b)

Because they wanted to spread Christianity.

c)

Because they needed soldiers for their army.

d)

Because they wanted to explore new lands.

32.

In 1608, who sailed up the St. Lawrence river with 32 colonists to establish the New France colony of Quebec?

a)

Samuel de Champlain

b)

Jacques Cartier

c)

Robert de La Salle

d)

Jean Talon

33.

The Pilgrims were a ______ group persecuted by the English.

a)

Catholic

b)

Protestant

c)

Jewish

d)

Quaker

34.

Why did the Pilgrims flee to America?

a)

They fled for religious freedom.

b)

They wanted to find gold and riches.

c)

They were escaping from pirates.

d)

They wanted to start a new trade route.

35.

The journey of enslaved Africans to the Americas is known as:

a)

The Middle Passage

b)

The Silk Road

c)

The Gold Rush

d)

The Great Migration

36.

The Atlantic slave trade had significant impacts on both Africans and Americans.

a)

It led to the forced migration and suffering of millions of Africans and contributed to economic growth in the Americas.

b)

It resulted in the independence of African nations and the decline of American agriculture.

c)

It promoted voluntary migration and cultural exchange between Africa and America.

d)

It caused the abolition of slavery in both Africa and America during the 16th century.

37.

What was the Columbian Exchange?

a)

The Columbian Exchange was the global transfer of food, plants, animals, goods, ideas, and resources between the 'New World' and the 'Old World'.

b)

The Columbian Exchange was a trade agreement between European countries and Asia.

c)

The Columbian Exchange was a treaty signed to end the American Revolution.

d)

The Columbian Exchange was a route used by explorers to reach India.

38.

Why did Peter the Great call his new capital city a “window on Europe”?

a)

He wanted it to reflect European culture.

b)

He introduced the first European-style windows to Russia.

c)

He wanted to build a city close to Europe but far from the sea.

d)

He wanted his capital to be the opposite of all things European.

39.

Peter the Great reduced the power of the boyars by

a)

ending all plans for conquest and territorial expansion.

b)

introducing the Eastern Orthodox religion to Russia.

c)

hiring European military advisers.

d)

introducing a merit system of nobility.

40.

Which of these statements best describes absolute rulers?

a)

Absolute rulers’ powers are checked only by the military.

b)

Absolute rulers are figureheads who carry out the Church’s wishes.

c)

Absolute rulers depend on the advice of a parliament

d)

Absolute rulers have no checks on their power.

41.

What resulted from Louis XIV’s constant pursuit of warfare?

a)

What resulted from Louis XIV’s constant pursuit of warfare?

b)

Louis was overthrown by England.

c)

France was left deeply in debt.

d)

French aristocrats were able to set up a parliament

42.

Enlightened thinkers and scientists of the 17th and 18th centuries based their beliefs on what two things?

a)

power and privilege

b)

money and fame

c)

Church and Absolutism

d)

reason and logic

43.

The English political philosopher who argued all humans are born with natural rights including life, liberty, and property was

a)

Jean Rousseau

b)

Baron de Montesquieu

c)

Voltaire

d)

John Locke

44.

The westernization and modernization of Russia came mostly through

a)

Sweden's invasion of Russia

b)

Actions and policies of Peter the Great

c)

The Edict of Nantes

d)

The October Revolution by Vladimir Lenin

45.

What is the name of the palace pictured above?

a)

Buckingham Palace

b)

Palace of Versailles

c)

St. Petersburg Palace

d)

Palace of Paris

46.

How were the outcomes of the "Glorious Revolution" different from the outcomes of the English Civil War?

a)

The monarchy refused to step down and was beheaded.

b)

The monarchy agreed to sign an English Bill of Rights.

c)

The transition of power was not stable and led to a reinstatement of the king.

d)

Parliament and the monarchy both sent out armies that led to years of fighting.

47.

William and Mary took over the throne in England in 1688 when James II abdicated. Why was it called the Glorious Revolution?

a)

because the revolution was bloodless and without violence

b)


because it made England a world power by uniting it with the Dutch

c)


because it put a Protestant back on the English throne

d)

because it restored the glory of the British Empire

48.

After the execution of Charles I at the end of the English Civil War, which leader took over England?

a)

Oliver Cromwell

b)

James I

c)

James II

d)

Charles II

49.

The English Bill of Rights was signed in 1689 by which ruler?

a)

Oliver Cromwell

b)

Charles I

c)

Charles II

d)

William of Orange

50.
What happened to Charles I during the civil war, and what were the consequences for England?
a)
Captured by Parliamentary forces and executed / Establishment of a republic and political instability
b)
Exiled to France and restored to the throne later / Strengthening of the monarchy and economic prosperity
c)
Forced to abdicate and replaced by his son / Rise of religious tolerance and social reforms
d)
Negotiated a peace treaty with Parliament and retained his power / Transition to a constitutional monarchy
51.

(a)   was the Russian empress who continued Peter the Great's reforms and sought a warm-water port for Russia

52.

Reorder the following in chronological order

a)

James I

b)

Charles I

c)

Louis XIV

d)

Peter the Great

e)

Catherine the Great

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
53.
What piece of territory did Napoleon sell to the United States?
a)
The Canadian Purchase
b)
The Louisiana Purchase
c)
The California Purchase
d)
The Haitian Purchase
54.
What signaled the end of the Reign of Terror?
a)
The beheading of Maximilien Robespierre.
b)
The appointment of Napoleon Bonaparte as dictator.
c)
The beheading of King Louis XVI.
d)
The exile of Napoleon Bonaparte.
55.
Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
a)
France
b)
England
c)
Spain
d)
Germany
56.

Which of the following made up 1% of the French population, and included clergy?

a)

First Estate

b)

Second Estate

c)

Third Estate

d)

Middle Class

57.

Which of the following made up 2% of the French population, and included nobles?

a)

First Estate

b)

Second Estate

c)

Third Estate

d)

Peasants

58.

At which battle was Napoleon finally defeated?

a)

Leipzig

b)

Waterloo

c)

Moscow

d)

Ligny

e)

Paris

59.
Who led the slaves in Haiti in a revolt against France?
a)
Miguel Hidalgo
b)
Simon Bolivar
c)
Toussaint L'Ouverture 
d)
Jose de San Martin
60.

Who was the Haitian Revolutionary Leader who completed the Revolution, created the Haitian flag, and defeated the French after Toussaint Louverture's death?

a)

Roshambo

b)

Cicil Fatiman

c)

Dutty Boukman

d)

Jean Jacques Dessalines

61.

The process of an area growing larger, with an increase in population, production of goods and services, and availability of a variety of options to fulfill one's wants and needs is called

a)

industrialization

b)

urbanization

c)

materialism

d)

commercialism

62.

Which social change occurred during the Industrial Revolution?

a)

increased status for religious leaders

b)

growth of the working class

c)

expansion of privileges for the landed nobility

d)

development of the extended family

63.

Which innovation allowed factories to be built anywhere?

a)

flying shuttle

b)

spinning jenny

c)

tractors

d)

steam engine

64.

DESCRIBE what happened at the Berlin Conference.

a)

The rules for colonizing Europe were made.

b)

The rules for colonizing China were made.

c)

The rules for colonizing India were made.

d)

The rules for colonizing Africa were made.

65.

This image is most likely depicting...

a)

The Natives Land Act (1913)

b)

The Boer War

c)

The Berlin Conference

d)

The Boxer Rebellion

66.
The Boxer Rebellion of the early 20th century was an attempt to:
a)

eliminate poverty among the Chinese peasants

b)

bring Western-style democracy to China

c)

restore trade between China and European nations

d)

remove foreign influences from China

67.

Which statement helps explain why industrialization encouraged imperialism?

a)

Regions outside Europe sought to develop local industry to increase their wealth

b)

European powers sought markets in which to sell their natural resources

c)

Growing industries needed larger markets for their manufactured goods

d)

European powers needed land to build factories to meet increased consumer demand.

68.

An extension of a nation's power over other lands

a)

Cottage Industry

b)

Imperialism

c)

Industrial Capitalism

d)

Entrepreneur

69.

Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?

a)

China

b)

England

c)

India

d)

United States

70.

What allowed countries to industrialize rapidly?

a)

natural resources and a labor force

b)

the enclosure movement

c)

a strong army and navy

d)

criminalization of the labor movement

71.

What once-powerful Asian nation fell under the influence of European powers after it failed to modernize?

a)

Australia

b)

China

c)

Japan

d)

Philippines

72.

What was the name of the ship that Germany

sunk that caused the US to join the War?

a)

Titanic

b)

USS Maine

c)

USS Arizona

d)

Lusitania

73.

The _____________ Note was interceded by the US.

a)

Music

b)

Zimmerman

c)

Ziti

d)

Zolo

74.

Who are the Allied Powers?

a)

Britain

France

Italy

Russia

USA

b)

Germany

Austria-Hungary

Ottoman Empire

c)

Sweden

Norway

Finland

d)

North Pole

South Pole

Antartica

75.

Who was the President during World War 1?

a)

Abraham Lincoln

b)

Woodrow Wilson

c)

Teddy Roosevelt

d)

Franklin Roosevelt

76.

Who said, "The world must be made safe for democracy"?

a)

Woodrow Wilson

b)

Ulysses S. Grant

c)

Theodore Roosevelt

d)

Barack Obama

77.
Militarism means....
a)
Building up armed forces and getting ready for war
b)
Having pride in your nation
c)
Trying to build an empire
d)
Agreements to help others
78.
Payments for war damages were known as
a)
nationalism
b)
separatism.
c)
reparations.
d)
retaliations.
79.

Match the long term causes of World War 1 with their definitions:

a)

Nationalism

1.

This was the attempt by countries to promote their own agendas and ideas as better than others

b)

Militarism

2.

This was the practice of developing new weaponry and investing in the armed forces

c)

Imperialism

3.

This was the practice of exerting control over other regions around the world to become powerful

d)

Alliances

4.

This practice involved the securing of support from other nations in the event of a war breaking out

80.

What the first and only major naval battle between the Central and Allied Powers?

a)

Battle of Jutland


b)

Gallipoli Campaign


c)

The Somme


d)

Meuse-Argonne Offensive


81.

Which weapon forced soldiers into the trenches

a)
b)
c)
d)
82.

Which weapon was invented by the British/English

a)
b)
c)
d)
83.

Which treaty ended World War I?

a)

The Treaty of Paris

b)

The Treaty of Versailles

c)

The Armistice of Versailles

d)

The Treaty of World Powers

84.
The war might have involved only two nations, if not for
a)
imperialism.
b)
propaganda.
c)
the alliance system.
d)
Germany.
85.

the principles making up President Woodrow Wilson’s plan for peace following WWI

a)

Fourteen Points

b)

Nationalism

c)

Propaganda

d)

War Guilt Clause

86.

How did the US help finance WWI?

a)

sold war bonds to citizens

b)

used money from Gilded Age savings

c)

used money taken during early part of war

d)

sold land taken during imperialism

87.

Which country had to take full responsibility for WWI, pay war reparations, and lose most of its military?

a)

France

b)

Germany

c)

Austria-Hungary

d)

Serbia

88.

Which of the following was not a reason as to why the United States joined World War I?

a)

German U-Boats use of Unrestricted Submarine Warfare

b)

Germany attempting to form an alliance with Mexico by sending the Zimmerman Note

c)

The Assassination of the Archduke Franz Ferdinand

d)

American economic connections with Great Britain and the Allies

89.

In which battle was the British Mark I combat tank first used?

a)

The Battle of the Marne


b)

The Battle of Verdun


c)

The Battle of the Somme


d)

The Battle of Tannenberg


90.

Military submarines operated by Germany during WWI.

a)

Armistice

b)

Fourteen Points

c)

Treaty of Versailles

d)

Reparations

e)

U Boats

91.

An alliance consisting of England, France, and Russia

a)

Triple Alliance

b)

Triple Entente

c)

NATO

d)

NAACP

92.

An alliance between Austria-Hungary, Germany, the Ottoman Empire, and Bulgaria during WWI

a)

Allied Powers

b)

Central Powers

c)

Axis Powers

d)

Super Powers

93.

What was the name of the group that conspired to kill the Archduke

a)

Death grip

b)

Black Hand

c)

Secret night

d)

Dark sky

94.

What does Annex mean?

a)

To take over

b)

To borrow

95.

Who killed the Archduke?

a)

Gavrilo Princip

b)

Sophie Matthias

c)

Magdalena Dominik

d)

None of the above

96.

Where did this event take place?

a)

Sarajevo

b)

Vienna

c)

Berlin

d)

Denver

e)

Austria

97.

What was the political ideology of the Bolsheviks?

a)

Communists

b)

Capitalists

c)

Monarchists

d)

Anarchists

98.

Identify the correct military and the country that experienced the civil war:

a)

Communist Army

1.

the Red Army

b)

Anti-Communist Army

2.

the White Army

c)

Nation that experienced a civil war for three years:

3.

Russia

99.

After taking power, within the Congress of Soviets, who led the council?

a)

Trotsky

b)

Lenin

c)

Stalin

d)

Nicholas II

100.

This treaty pulled Russia out of WWI?

a)

Treaty of Versailles

b)

Treaty of Greenville

c)

Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

d)

Treaty of Moscow

101.

Recall: What book did Adolf Hitler write during his imprisonment at Landsberg Prison?

a)

The Communist Manifesto

b)

Mein Kampf (My Struggle)

c)

The Prince

d)

Thus Spoke Zarathustra

102.

Skill/Concept: According to the summary, why was Hitler’s trial considered a "show trial" from his perspective? Choose the best reason.

a)

It was held in secret without public attendance.

b)

It was staged by the government to guarantee a conviction without evidence.

c)

It provided a public platform he used to criticize the government and spread his message.

d)

It allowed him to bribe officials for acquittal.

103.

Recall: What was the outcome of Hitler’s sentencing and time served following the Beer Hall Putsch?

a)

Sentenced to life and served 10 years

b)

Sentenced to 5 years but released after serving less than one year

c)

Fined and released immediately

d)

Acquitted of all charges

104.

Skill/Concept: How did Nazi propaganda make use of events surrounding the trial and its aftermath?

a)

By denying the trial ever took place

b)

By celebrating the judge as a Nazi hero

c)

By using the highly publicized trial to spread Hitler’s ideology and portraying the deaths of his followers for propaganda purposes

d)

By focusing solely on economic policy debates during the trial

105.

Recall: According to the summary, what major factor helped the Nazis gain significant public support prior to Hitler’s appointment as Chancellor?

a)

Economic instability and division within the Communist Party

b)

Military victories in World War I

c)

Support from President Hindenburg’s campaign

d)

Immediate majority control of the Reichstag in 1928

106.

Recall: Who defeated Hitler in the 1932 presidential race, and what position did he later grant Hitler on January 30, 1933?

a)

Paul von Hindenburg; Chancellor

b)

Paul von Hindenburg; President

c)

Franz von Papen; Chancellor

d)

Joseph Goebbels; President

107.

According to the summary, what immediate political action did the Nazis take following the Reichstag Fire in February 1933?

a)

They called for new elections to expand voter participation

b)

They declared a state of emergency to expand executive power

c)

They restored civil liberties to calm public fears

d)

They dissolved the military to prevent violence

108.

Fill in the blank: After the Reichstag Fire, the Nazis suspended (a)   , which allowed them to crack down on political opponents.

109.

Recall: According to the section, what major political change had occurred in Germany by July 1933?

a)

The Nazis formed a coalition with other parties

b)

The Nazis abolished all other political parties

c)

Germany adopted a multi-party democracy

d)

The Nazis legalized opposition newspapers

110.

Skill/Concept: The section states that by July 1933 the Nazis began controlled economic and social life. Which outcome best aligns with this change?

a)

Greater independence for trade unions and free press

b)

Government direction over key industries and social organizations

c)

Immediate restoration of parliamentary debate

d)

Decentralization of authority to regional councils

111.

Recall: On which dates did Kristallnacht take place? Choose the correct option.

a)

October 31–November 1, 1938

b)

November 9–10, 1938

c)

December 24–25, 1938

d)

August 1–2, 1939

112.

Recall: What is another commonly used name for Kristallnacht?

a)

The Long Night

b)

The Night of Broken Glass

c)

The Night of the Long Knives

d)

The Final Solution

113.

Skill/Concept: According to the material, what event was cited as initiating Kristallnacht?

a)

The burning of the Reichstag by communists

b)

The assassination of a German diplomat by a Polish Jew affected by Nazi rule

c)

Germany's invasion of Poland

d)

The signing of the Munich Agreement

114.

Skill/Concept: Identify the geographic scope described for Kristallnacht. Which option best matches where the pogrom occurred?

a)

Only in Berlin, Germany

b)

Across Germany, Austria, and the Sudetenland

c)

Throughout Western Europe including France and the UK

d)

Limited to rural areas of Germany

115.

Recall: Which of the following was NOT listed as a consequence of Kristallnacht?

a)

Synagogues were burned

b)

Jewish homes and businesses were destroyed

c)

30,000 Jewish men were arrested

d)

Nazi officials were put on trial for the violence

116.

Recall: According to the section, what action did Hitler take in March 1935 that defied the Treaty of Versailles?

a)

He signed a new peace treaty with France

b)

He rebuilt the German military

c)

He dissolved the Nazi Party

d)

He withdrew troops from border regions

117.

Skill/Concept: The Treaty of Versailles limited Germany’s military after World War I. Based on the section, which development shows Hitler expanding military capability beyond those limits?

a)

Reducing the size of the army to cut costs

b)

Beginning production of weapons and airplanes

c)

Opening new trade routes with neutral countries

d)

Negotiating disarmament with neighboring states

118.

Recall: What was the Rhineland supposed to be under the Treaty of Versailles? Fill in the single precise term.

(a)  

119.

Recall: What term describes Germany’s annexation of Austria in March 1938, justified by the claim of uniting all “Germans”?

a)

Lebensraum

b)

Anschluss

c)

Blitzkrieg

d)

Autarky

120.

Skill/Concept: According to the summary, why did Britain and France initially allow Hitler’s demands regarding the Sudetenland to proceed? Choose the best explanation.

a)

They lacked any awareness of the situation in Czechoslovakia.

b)

They practiced appeasement to keep the peace and avoided confrontation.

c)

They were bound by a treaty to support German territorial claims.

d)

They were preparing for immediate military intervention against Germany.

121.

Recall: In 1938, Hitler demanded a region from Czechoslovakia, claiming it had many Germans living there. Name that region.

(a)  

122.

Match: Pair each concept/person with its description from the summary.

a)

Anschluss

1.

Germany’s annexation of Austria in March 1938 to unite all “Germans.”

b)

Sudetenland

2.

Region of Czechoslovakia demanded by Hitler due to its German-speaking population.

c)

Munich Agreement

3.

Deal allowing Hitler to take territory in exchange for a promise of peace.

d)

Neville Chamberlain

4.

Britain’s Prime Minister who met with Hitler and agreed to appeasement.

123.

Skill/Concept: Which statement best captures the outcome of Britain and France’s response during the Sudetenland crisis, as described in the summary?

a)

They launched a joint invasion to restore Czechoslovakia’s borders.

b)

They issued an ultimatum that forced Germany to withdraw.

c)

They did nothing to stop Hitler, favoring peace over confrontation.

d)

They created a blockade that cut off German supply lines.

124.

Recall the core terms of the Nazi-Soviet Non-Aggression Pact: Which statement best summarizes the public agreement announced by Germany and the USSR?

a)

They pledged mutual defense against Britain and France.

b)

They agreed not to attack each other.

c)

They formed a full military alliance to conquer Eastern Europe.

d)

They restored Poland’s independence and borders.

125.

Apply your understanding of the pact’s secret protocol: What did Germany and the USSR secretly agree to do regarding Poland and parts of Eastern Europe?

a)

Maintain Polish neutrality and avoid border changes.

b)

Divide Poland and allocate spheres of influence in Eastern Europe.

c)

Support Polish rearmament to resist German invasion.

d)

Establish a joint government administering all of Eastern Europe.

126.

According to the section, what best defines Blitzkrieg as used by Germany in Poland?

a)

A prolonged war of attrition relying on blockades

b)

A lightning war using rapidly moving tank divisions supported by air power

c)

A naval-only campaign focusing on submarine warfare

d)

A defensive strategy emphasizing fortified trenches

127.

Which sequence correctly lists the early conquests following success in Poland as stated in the material?

a)

Denmark and Norway (April 1940); Netherlands, Belgium, and France (May 1940)

b)

Netherlands, Belgium, and France (April 1940); Denmark and Norway (May 1940)

c)

Denmark and Norway (May 1940); France, Belgium, and Netherlands (June 1940)

d)

Norway and Denmark (June 1940); Netherlands alone (July 1940)

128.

Match each event or entity to its description.

a)

Vichy regime

1.

Nazi-controlled government established in Vichy under Marshal Henri-Philippe Petain

b)

French government response

2.

Fled to Bordeaux in southern France after conquest

c)

Blitzkrieg

3.

Rapid offensive combining tanks with air support to subdue Poland

d)

NSNAP plan

4.

Agreement under which Germany and the USSR divided Poland

129.

Why did Britain ask the United States for support, according to the section?

a)

Britain aimed to join the Vichy regime in France

b)

Britain feared it would be the next victim after Germany swiftly conquered Western European nations

c)

Britain wanted to aid Germany in dividing Poland as planned in the NSNAP

d)

Britain sought to invade Denmark and Norway

130.

Read the excerpt from Franklin D. Roosevelt’s address on June 10, 1940: “Perception of danger to our institutions may come slowly or it may come with a rush and a shock as it has to the people of the United States in the past few months. This perception of danger has come to us clearly and overwhelmingly; and we perceive the peril in a world‑wide arena—an arena that may become so narrowed that only the Americas will retain the ancient faiths. Some indeed still hold to the now somewhat obvious delusion that we of the United States can safely permit the United States to become a lone island, a lone island in a world dominated by the philosophy of force.” Based on this passage, which position does Roosevelt most strongly support regarding U.S. involvement in World War II?

a)

The United States should continue neutrality through appeasement toward Hitler

b)

The United States should avoid war with Hitler at any cost, remaining isolated

c)

The United States should join the broader fight against Hitler rather than remain a lone island

d)

The United States alone can defeat Hitler without allied support

131.

Which policy involved the United States trading 50 destroyers to Britain in exchange for access to bases in the Western Hemisphere?

a)

Lend-Lease Act

b)

Cash-and-Carry Policy

c)

Destroyers-for-Bases Agreement

d)

Atlantic Charter

132.

Match each initiative to its primary purpose.

a)

Destroyers-for-Bases Agreement

1.

Trade of 50 U.S. destroyers for rights to eight British air and naval bases

b)

Lend-Lease Act

2.

Provide war materials to Britain, ending U.S. neutrality pretense

c)

Atlantic Charter

3.

Set out basic goals for the post-war world to address Treaty of Versailles mistakes

133.

Which statement best describes President Roosevelt’s stance toward Britain before the United States formally entered WWII?

a)

He insisted on strict neutrality and refused any support.

b)

He believed the US should help the British, using agreements like Destroyers-for-Bases and Lend-Lease.

c)

He required payment in gold for all aid and avoided any political statements.

d)

He focused only on Pacific defense and ignored European affairs.

134.

Recall: In July 1940, which military branch did Hitler order to lead a large campaign against Great Britain, aiming to gain air superiority before a possible invasion?

a)

Kriegsmarine (German navy)

b)

Luftwaffe (German air force)

c)

Wehrmacht Panzer divisions (armored forces)

d)

SS ground units

135.

Skill/Concept: According to the section, what strategic belief motivated Germany’s assault on Great Britain in July 1940? Choose the best explanation.

a)

Capturing London would immediately force all British colonies to surrender without resistance.

b)

A heavy aerial bombardment would enable German sea and land forces to mount a successful invasion of the island nation.

c)

Disrupting British agriculture would starve the population and eliminate the need for invasion.

d)

Destroying St. Paul’s Cathedral would collapse British command and control structures.

136.

Skill/Concept: What immediate outcome did the Nazis experience at the start of the invasion of the Soviet Union?

a)

Rapid success capturing large amounts of land and troops

b)

A stalemate with minimal territorial changes

c)

Immediate withdrawal due to supply shortages

d)

Instant Soviet counteroffensive pushing Germans back

137.

Recall question: According to the section, what goal did Hitler seek at the beginning of the war when forming new alliances?

a)

To secure Lebensraum (living space) for a new German empire

b)

To negotiate peace with communist states

c)

To restore the German monarchy

d)

To dismantle all European military pacts

138.

Recall the key date: On what date did Japan launch its surprise attack on the U.S. naval base at Pearl Harbor, destroying much of the U.S. Pacific fleet?

a)

November 11, 1940

b)

December 7, 1941

c)

June 6, 1944

d)

August 6, 1945

139.

Fill in the blank with the specific location targeted by Japan: The surprise attack on (a)   led to the destruction of much of the U.S. Pacific fleet and the rapid escalation of war in the Pacific.

140.

According to the section, what immediate change occurred in the United States after the attack by Japan?

a)

The U.S. increased isolation and avoided alliances

b)

U.S. isolation disappeared and public opinion demanded retaliation

c)

Congress refused to consider a declaration of war

d)

The Navy withdrew from the Pacific to protect Hawaii

141.

Which nations are explicitly stated to have joined the United States in declaring war on Japan?

a)

Great Britain and China

b)

France and the Soviet Union

c)

Australia and New Zealand

d)

Italy and Spain

142.

Which statement best describes India’s military contribution by the end of the war?

a)

India relied solely on conscription to build a small force

b)

India had the largest volunteer army ever recorded, mainly fighting the Japanese in Southeast Asia

c)

India stayed neutral and did not commit troops

d)

India’s forces were primarily deployed in Europe alongside the British

143.

Recall: What did “total war” mean for most countries during World War II, as described in the Home Front section?

a)

Limiting military operations to overseas battles while keeping civilian life unchanged

b)

Mobilizing all national resources to achieve victory, including the home front

c)

Focusing only on naval warfare to avoid civilian involvement

d)

Relying exclusively on volunteer soldiers without industrial support

144.

Skill/Concept: According to the Home Front section, which statement best explains the role symbolized by “Rosie the Riveter” during WWII?

a)

Women primarily served as battlefield medics at the front lines

b)

Women rejoined factory work to produce weapons, tanks, planes, and ships

c)

Women were drafted into infantry units in large numbers

d)

Women shifted into agriculture to replace male farmers

145.

Recall: Which Pacific battle is identified as the first Allied victory that prevented Japan from invading Australia?

a)

Battle of Midway

b)

Battle of Coral Sea

c)

Battle of Guadalcanal

d)

Battle of the Philippine Sea

146.

Recall: According to the material, the Battle of Midway demonstrated Allied naval superiority primarily because of what outcome?

a)

The capture of the island of Midway

b)

The destruction of four Japanese aircraft carriers

c)

A successful submarine blockade

d)

The surrender of Japanese forces

147.

Skill/Concept: Match each naval asset or tactic to its primary role described in the material.

a)

Aircraft carriers

1.

Provided platforms for planes and increased fleet flexibility

b)

Battleships

2.

Benefited from carrier-provided air support

c)

Submarines

3.

Sank about 55% of Japan’s merchant fleet, damaging supply lines

148.

Recall: What percentage of Japan’s merchant fleet was sunk by submarines, severely damaging supply lines?

a)

25%

b)

40%

c)

55%

d)

70%

149.

Recall the key details: On which date did the Allied forces launch the D-Day amphibious landings in Normandy under the command of US General Dwight Eisenhower?

a)

May 8, 1945

b)

June 6, 1944

c)

August 25, 1944

d)

December 16, 1944

150.

Match each event with its description based on the instructional text.

a)

D-Day

1.

Allied amphibious landings on the beaches of Normandy in northern France

b)

Liberation of Paris

2.

August 1944 event marking the freeing of the French capital

c)

Battle of the Bulge

3.

German final push that ultimately failed

d)

Dwight Eisenhower

4.

US general who commanded the Allied invasion

151.

Where did Hitler spend the final days of the war, and what belief did he maintain during that time?

a)

In a field headquarters, believing surrender was imminent

b)

In a bunker, believing Germany would still win

c)

On the Eastern Front, expecting a Soviet alliance

d)

In exile, convinced the war was already lost

152.

Recall: Who oversaw the forced removals and labor camp system as the leader of the SS (Nazi special police) mentioned in the section?

a)

Adolf Eichmann

b)

Heinrich Himmler

c)

Joseph Goebbels

d)

Hermann Göring

153.

Recall: What was the primary purpose of forcing more than 7 million residents of conquered territories to work in labor camps?

a)

To rebuild local schools

b)

To support the German war effort

c)

To train them as SS officers

d)

To prepare for postwar elections

154.

Recall: Which locations are named as large death camps in the section?

a)

Auschwitz

1.

Located in Poland

b)

Treblinka

2.

Located in Poland

c)

Dachau

3.

Located in Germany

155.

Skill/Concept: What was the largest single targeted group sent by the Nazis, along with political opponents and people with disabilities?

a)

Catholics

b)

Jews

c)

Soviet soldiers

d)

French resistance fighters

156.

Which islands captured by U.S. forces in 1945 positioned America to prepare for an attack on the Japanese mainland?

a)

Taiwan and Hainan

b)

Iwo Jima and Okinawa

c)

Guam and Saipan

d)

Honshu and Hokkaido

157.

According to the material, why was a mainland invasion of Japan expected to be costly for the Allies?

a)

Japan’s navy controlled the Pacific sea lanes

b)

Terrain made armored warfare impossible

c)

It was predicted to lead to enormous Allied casualties

d)

Allied air forces lacked long-range bombers

158.

Match each decision or event with its description.

a)

Mainland invasion option

1.

Would likely cause enormous Allied casualties

b)

Use nuclear weapons option

2.

Could not avoid civilian deaths

c)

Emperor’s stance

3.

Was not willing to surrender

d)

First atomic bombing

4.

Hiroshima on August 6, 1945

e)

Second atomic bombing

5.

Nagasaki three days later

159.

Which statement best summarizes President Truman’s action initiating the Nuclear Age?

a)

He ordered conventional bombing of Osaka on August 4, 1945

b)

He directed the U.S. Army Air Force to drop the first atomic bomb on Hiroshima on August 6, 1945

c)

He announced a ceasefire with Japan on August 9, 1945

d)

He launched a naval blockade of Tokyo on August 6, 1945

160.

Fill in the blank with the exact date: President Truman designated (a)   as Victory over Japan Day (the day of the formal surrender ceremonies).

161.

This image is considered to be the end of what conflict?

a)

the Cold War

b)

World War II

c)

the Bolshevik Revolution

d)

the Cuban Revolution

162.

Examine the list below.


- Soviet Union blockades Berlin

- Formation of the Berlin Airlift

- Organization of the Warsaw Pact

- Construction of the Berlin Wall


What is the MAIN significance of these Cold War events?

a)

policies of peaceful coexistence and detente

b)

situations that increased tensions between communist and democratic nations

c)

attempts to weaken the Soviet Union's control of its Eastern European allies

d)

efforts to prevent military conflict between the Soviet Union and the United States

163.

What did Winston Churchill say had "descended across the (European) Continent," after WWII?

a)

the Berlin Wall

b)

the Red Scare

c)

the Iron Curtain

d)

the Marshall Plan

164.

Which event marked the closest the US and the Soviet Union came to an armed conflict during the Cold War?

a)

The Berlin Airlift

b)

The Marshall Plan

c)

The Cuban Missile Crisis

d)

The creation of Israel

165.

After World War II, what was the PRIMARY purpose of the Marshall Plan?

a)

bring Nazi war criminals to justice

b)

remove nuclear weapons from Western Europe making it safer

c)

help European nations recover economically and resist Communism

d)

improve diplomatic relations with the Soviet Union and prevent the Cold War

166.

What two opposing alliances displayed tensions in the Cold War?

a)

United Nations and NAFTA

b)

League of Nations and the European Union

c)

United Nations and the Warsaw Pact

d)

NATO and the Warsaw Pact

167.

Which is a valid conclusion based on the United States' involvement in the Korean War?

a)

The policy of containment was applied in Asia as well as in Europe.

b)

United Nations economic sanctions are more effective than military action.

c)

The American people will support United States participation in any war, whether declared or undeclared.

d)

United States cooperation with a wartime ally ends when the war ends.

168.

Which major conflict did this image initiate with the Soviet Union?

a)

Arms race

b)

End of World War II

c)

Space Race

d)

Red Scare

169.

Why did the U.S. invade Afghanistan?

a)

To find Osama Bin Laden

b)

To find Saddam Hussain

c)

To steal its oil

d)

We believe they had Weapons of mass destruction

170.

What group was formed to liberate Palestine and create an Arab state?

a)

Arab League

b)

Hamas

c)

Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO)

d)

Fatah

171.

When Israel was blockaded from the Suez Canal by the Egyptians, what war followed?

a)

Six-Day War

b)

Yom Kippur War

c)

Gulf War

d)

Lebanon War

172.

Which war was launched on a Jewish holiday?

a)

Yom Kippur War

b)

World War II

c)

Gulf War

d)

Six-Day War

173.

Who overthrew the Shah and established an Islamic regime in Iran?

a)

Mohammad Reza Pahlavi

b)

Ali Khamenei

c)

Reza Shah Pahlavi

d)

Ayatollah Khomeini

174.

Who ruled Iraq during the Iran-Iraq war?

a)

Saddam Hussein

b)

Bashar al-Assad

c)

George H.W. Bush

d)

Ayatollah Khomeini

175.

Who did Iraq invade, sparking the Persian Gulf War?

a)

Saudi Arabia

b)

Iran

c)

Syria

d)

Kuwait

176.

Which group was responsible for the 9/11 attacks?

a)

FARC

b)

Boko Haram

c)

ISIS

d)

al-Qaeda

177.

Which terrorist organization was formed after splitting from Al Qaeda in 2013?

a)

Islamic State (ISIS)

b)

Hezbollah

c)

Al-Shabaab

d)

Boko Haram

178.

Who retakes control of Afghanistan after the American withdrawal?

a)

The Northern Alliance

b)

The Taliban

c)

The Afghan National Army

d)

Hamas

179.

What is the term used to describe the movement promoting the establishment of a Jewish homeland?

a)

Judaism

b)

Nationalism

c)

Zionism

d)

Isolationism

180.

The U.S. went to war in Afghanistan because of this major event.

a)

The Six-Day War

b)

The Arab Spring Revolution

c)

The 9/11 attacks

d)

An ISIS attack