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Unit 4: Molecular Genetics Exam

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement correctly distinguishes DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA contains uracil and RNA does not.

b)

DNA contains nitrogenous bases and RNA does not.

c)

RNA contains the sugar ribose and DNA does not.

d)

RNA is arranged in a double helix and DNA is not.

2.

Which of these BEST describes the primary goal of meiosis?

a)

The nucleus is divided without mutation.

b)

A single cell divides into two daughter cells.

c)

All chromosomes are replicated and passed on to the daughter cells.

d)

Four cells are produced with only half the chromosomes of the parent cell.

3.

Which statement correctly describes the structure of DNA?

a)

It is a single-stranded molecule.

b)

It is made of amino acids.

c)

It is a single helix.

d)

It is a double helix.

4.

In nucleotides, the letters A, G, C, T represent:

a)

phosphate groups

b)

deoxyribose sugars

c)

nitrogenous bases

d)

ribose sugars

5.

Which of these is a segment of DNA that contains the information necessary to produce a protein?

a)

a phosphate

b)

a gene

c)

a mutation

d)

an enzyme

6.

The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy is called replication. Which statement is the BEST description of this process?

a)

DNA opens up and RNA copies it.

b)

DNA opens up and completely unwinds to make two new molecules.

c)

DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for making a new strand.

d)

RNA opens up the DNA and uses each strand as a template for a new strand.

7.

During the process of DNA replication, in order to separate the two strands of DNA, the enzyme ______ “unzips” the bonds holding the nucleotides together.

a)

ligase

b)

primase

c)

helicase

d)

nitrogenous base

8.

Which process MUST occur before mitosis and meiosis can occur?

a)

DNA transcription

b)

DNA translation

c)

DNA replication

d)

DNA conjugation

9.

The central dogma of molecular biology is centered upon the fact that DNA determines an organism’s traits. Which of the following represents the central dogma?

a)

proteins → RNA → DNA

b)

DNA → proteins → RNA

c)

enzymes → traits → organisms

d)

DNA → RNA → proteins

10.

A normal human body cell, or somatic cell, contains how many chromosomes?

a)

36 total, 18 pairs

b)

46 total, 23 pairs

c)

23 total, 12.5 pairs

d)

72 total, 36 pairs

11.

All organisms undergo protein synthesis. The first step of protein synthesis, in which a DNA strand is used to make a complementary mRNA strand, is called ____.

a)

messaging

b)

replication

c)

transcription

d)

translation

12.

The image to the right represents which biological process?

a)

DNA replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

meiosis

13.

Where does the process of transcription take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

14.

Messenger RNA carries a(n) _____ of the DNA’s instructions out of the nucleus to the _____.

a)

exact copy; ribosome

b)

transcript; ribosome

c)

exact copy; mitochondria

d)

transcript; mitochondria

15.

Use the codon wheel to determine the amino acid sequence for the codons GUU AAA. (Use the codon chart above.)

a)

valine – lysine

b)

leucine – lysine

c)

valine – arginine

d)

leucine – arginine

16.

Which of the following codons could code for the amino acid proline? (Use the codon chart above.)

a)

UUU

b)

GAC

c)

CCC

d)

AAA

17.

Josh is assigned a project in class to make a strand of mRNA from DNA. The DNA code that he has been assigned is CGG TCG AGT GAT. What would be the correct mRNA code for Josh to use in his transcription?

a)

GCC AGC TCA CTA

b)

GCC AGG TGA CTA

c)

GCC UGC TCA CTU

d)

GCC AGC UCA CUA

18.

Changes in the DNA sequence that affect the expression of genetic information are called:

a)

infiltrations

b)

mutations

c)

replications

d)

transformations

19.

What type of RNA acts like a delivery truck, delivers amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis, and then leaves empty again, to go collect another amino acid?

a)

transfer RNA

b)

messenger RNA

c)

ribosomal RNA

d)

mitochondrial RNA

20.

In normal humans, sex cells contain the ______ number of chromosomes.

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

multiploid

d)

tetraploid

21.

A normal strand of DNA is shown below, followed by the same strand of DNA after a mutation has occurred. Normal strand: GTC CAT CTG ATT ACG GCA Mutated strand: GTC CAT CGA TTA CGG CA Identify the mutation and the effect it would have on protein synthesis.

a)

This mutation is a deletion mutation.

b)

This mutation is an insertion mutation.

c)

This mutation is a substitution mutation.

d)

This is not a mutation.

22.

The previous example can also be described as:

a)

a point mutation

b)

a frameshift

c)

a silent mutation

d)

a loud mutation

23.

If a substitution mutation occurs, but the codon still codes for the same amino acid, what type of mutation is this?

a)

nonsense

b)

silent

c)

missense

d)

frameshift

24.

Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease caused by a mutation in which A (adenine) is replaced by T (thymine). This causes a different amino acid to be coded for that codon. What type of mutation causes different amino acids to be added?

a)

nonsense

b)

silent

c)

missense

d)

special mutations

25.

Which form of biotechnology is most likely to be used in forensics?

a)

Animal cloning

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Genetic engineering

d)

Selective breeding

26.

Forensic technicians found pollen in the nose of a murder victim. The police believe that the victim had been moved from the murder site and dumped. The forensic team analyzed the DNA of the pollen found in the victim’s nose (sample A) and then compared it to the pollen found in trees in the yards of three suspects. Does the pollen match any of the three suspected sites?

a)

No. The pollen DNA (A) is not a match for any of the three suspects.

b)

Yes. The pollen DNA (A) matches the pollen found at site B.

c)

Yes. The pollen DNA (A) matches the pollen found at site C.

d)

Yes. The pollen DNA (A) matches the pollen found at site D.

27.

Many farmers now grow insect-resistant varieties of cotton. The gene for the favorable trait, in this case, insect resistance, is transferred to the cotton’s DNA using __________.

a)

DNA fingerprinting

b)

tissue culture

c)

recombinant DNA

d)

in vitro fertilization

28.

Gametes produced by an organism contain a combination of genes from that organism. In every gamete, this combination is:

a)

the same because it is created from the same DNA

b)

the same because chromosomes are copied prior to meiosis

c)

different due to DNA replication prior to mitosis

d)

different due to independent assortment and crossing over during meiosis I

29.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown: 3’ AGGTCAGGT 5’. Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5’ AGGTCAGGT 3’

b)

5’ ACCUGAGGU 3’

c)

5’ TGGACTGGA 3’

d)

5’ TCCAGTCCA 3’

30.

Which table shows two steps of DNA replication?

a)

Step 1: DNA Polymerase matches uracil to thymine and cytosine to guanine. Step 2: Two identical DNA double helices are produced.

b)

Step 1: DNA Polymerase matches cytosine to thymine and uracil to guanine. Step 2: Two separate but complementary single DNA strands are produced.

c)

Step 1: DNA Polymerase matches adenine to thymine and cytosine to guanine. Step 2: Two identical DNA double helices are produced.

d)

Step 1: DNA Polymerase matches uracil to thymine and adenine to guanine. Step 2: Two separate but complementary single DNA strands are produced.

31.

In meiosis I, crossing over and independent assortment results in _____.

a)

genetic diversity

b)

a male gamete

c)

a female gamete

d)

an identical copy of the original parent cell

32.

At the end of meiosis II, how does the DNA in each of the four new cells compare to the DNA from the original cell?

a)

half as much and genetically the same as the original

b)

twice as much and genetically the same as the original

c)

half as much and genetically different from the original

d)

twice as much and genetically different from the original

33.

What is the difference between the DNA of a dog and the DNA of a fly?

a)

the type of sugar building blocks

b)

the sequence of nucleotides

c)

the strength of hydrogen bonds

d)

the strength of covalent bonds

34.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins.

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins.

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins.

d)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids.

35.

The following image shows one of the stages of meiosis; specifically, the stage where the sister chromatids line up in the middle of the cell. Which stage of meiosis is being represented in the image above?

a)

prophase I

b)

prophase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

metaphase II