Font size
WorksheetsExam JAM Review Session Questions (BIOL1400)
Total questions: 88
Worksheet time: 15hrs 40mins
All of the organisms on your campus make up...
An ecosystem
A community
A population
The biosphere
Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
Theories are hypotheses that have been proven.
Hypotheses usually are narrow in scope; theories have broad explanation power.
Hypotheses are tentative guesses; theories are correct answers to questions about nature.
Hypotheses and theories are different terms for essentially the same thing in science.
Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
If I generate a testable hypothesis, my experiments will support it.
If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
Which of the following noncovalent bonds is the strongest?
Van Der Waal Interactions
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic Bonds
Why are Van Der Waal Interactions the weakest noncovalent bond? Select all that apply.
Interactions are between partial opposite charges.
Interactions are temporary.
Interactions are full opposite charges, but are far apart from each other, thus weaker.
Interactions between full opposite charges can barely be detected.
An AMINO ACID is to a POLYPEPTIDE as...
A steroid is to a lipid.
A protein is to an amino acid.
A glucose molecule is to a starch
Conclusions can be drawn from analyses where no statistically significant differences are observed between groups.
True
False
Select all of the following that correctly describe cellular molecules.
Disaccharides are long chains of a large number of monosaccharides connected by covalent bonds.
Denaturation does not change the number of animo acids in a polypeptide.
The two main energy storage molecules in cells are carbohydrates and lipids.
The same four nucleotides are used to form both DNA and RNA.
Select all of the following that correctly compare cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis occurs in plants, but cellular respiration does not.
Cellular respiration is an energy-releasing process; photosynthesis is an energy-requiring process,
Photosynthesis forms carbohydrates; cellular respiration is involved in breaking down carbohydrates.
Cellular respiration requires oxygen to occur normally in a cell, but photosynthesis doesn’t.
If the free energy of the PRODUCTS is higher than the free energy of the REACTANTS, then the reaction is...
Exothermic (energy is absorbed)
Endothermic (energy is absorbed)
Exothermic (energy is released)
Endothermic (energy is released)
Which of the following steps of Cellular Respiration utilize a proton gradient?
Glycolysis
Acetyl-coA-formation
Citric Acid Cycle
Electron transport chain/ oxidative phosphorylation
The interior of a cell’s membrane is ________ which is why proteins must be embedded for hydrophilic cellular molecules to pass into the cell.
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic
Exothermic
Endothermic
Select all that apply: Enzymes...
Speed up reactions
Reorient reactants to make it easier for products to be formed
Reduce activation energy in reactions
Are only used in exothermic reactions
Competitive inhibitors change the active site of an enzyme whereas Noncompetitive inhibitors block the active site.
True
False
What would happen if channels were placed in the electron transport chain membrane that allowed protons to flow freely.
More molecules of ATP would be synthesized because the proton gradient would be stronger.
More molecules of ATP would be synthesized because the proton gradient would be weaker.
Fewer molecules of ATP would be synthesized because the proton gradient would be stronger.
Fewer molecules of ATP would be synthesized because the proton gradient would be weaker.
Prokaryotes have organelles.
True
False
Cellular respiration in prokaryotes occurs in the mitochondria.
True
False
NADH is a/an...
Reduced electron carrier
Oxidized electron carrier
NAD+ is a/an...
Reduced electron carrier
Oxidized electron carrier
What is the purpose of fermentation?
Regenerates reduced electron carriers for glycolysis.
Allows for the continuous generation of ATP in low-oxygen environments.
The process itself generates additional ATP.
All of the above
Only A and B
The reactions of the Calvin Cycle are not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?
It is often too cold at night for these reactions to take place.
Carbon dioxide concentrations decrease at night.
The Calvin cycle depends on products of the light reaction.
Plants usually close their stomata at night.
Why is it difficult for plants to carry out photosynthesis in very hot, dry environments such as deserts?
The light is too intense and destroys the pigment molecules.
The closing of stomata keeps CO2 from entering and O2 from leaving the plant.
They must rely on photorespiration to make ATP.
CO2 builds up in leaves, blocking carbon fixation.
The _____ in photosystems use energy to transfer electrons to electron carriers.
Antenna Pigments
Reaction Center Chlorophyll
Photosystem II
Photosystem I
DNA/RNA strands are always read from _____ to _____.
Hydroxyl to Phosphate
Phosphate to Hydroxyl
Thymine to Guanine
Guanine to Thymine
The two antiparallel strands of DNA are held together by...
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bond
Van Der Waal Interactions
Covalent bonds
The nucleotides within a strand of DNA are held together by...
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bond
Van Der Waal Interactions
Covalent bonds
In DNA, %A = %T and %C = %G. This is the same for RNA.
True
False
What is the start codon that is used in translation?
Met
Str
AUG
UGA
Eukaryotic DNA is replicated faster than Prokaryotic DNA. Why?
Eukaryotic DNA is much shorter than Prokaryotic DNA, so there is less to replicate.
Eukaryotic DNA has multiple ORIs (Origins of Replications) whereas Prokaryotic DNA only has one.
Eukaryotic DNA is linear whereas Prokaryotic DNA is circular.
Trick question: Prokaryotic DNA is replicated faster
Transcription starts with _____ and ends with _____.
mRNA; DNA
DNA; mRNA
mRNA; polypeptide
polypeptide; mRNA
Translation starts with _____ and ends with _____.
mRNA; DNA
DNA; mRNA
mRNA; polypeptide
polypeptide: mRNA
What is the third codon of the coding region and what amino acid does it code for?
AUG – met
CAU – Leu
CAA – Gln
Mutations are always harmful to organisms.
True
False
What is the name for the mutation that changes a base pair, but the amino acid produced in translation stays the same?
Silent
Missense
Nonsense
Frame Shift
Which mutation is worse/changes the most…
Insertion of one nucleotide before the coding region.
Deletion of three nucleotides at the beginning of the coding region.
Silent mutation in the middle of the coding region.
Missense mutation in the middle of the coding region.
Nonsense mutation in the middle of the coding region.
Select all that explain why one strand of DNA during DNA replication is formed in one piece and the other strand is formed in segments/parts.
DNA nucleotides pair up in specific ways.
The two strands of DNA are antiparallel.
DNA polymerase can only form strands in one direction.
One new strand must be formed completely before formation of the other strand can start.
A mutation causes UAC (codes for Tyr) to change to UAA (stop codon). What type of mutation is this?
Silent
Missense
Nonsense
Frame Shift
A mutation causes AGC (codes for Ser) to change to AGA (codes for Arg). What type of mutation is this?
Silent
Missense
Nonsense
Frame Shift
Does the stop codon code for an amino acid?
Yes
No
What molecule attaches amino acids to tRNA?
Enzymes
Ribosomes
Lipids
Nucleic Acids
A mutation causes ALL tRNAs in a cell with anticodons complementary to UCC to be attached to the wrong amino acid. This will cause the wrong amino acid to be added
At one UCC codon in the mRNAs produced by expression of one gene.
At one UCC codon in the mRNAs produced by expression of every gene.
At all UCC codons in the mRNAs produced by expression of one gene.
At all UCC codons in the mRNAs produced by expression of every gene.
What determines which codon a tRNA will interact with during translation?
The ribosome.
The anticodon sequence of the tRNA.
The amino acid attached to the tRNA.
The enzyme that attaches amino acids to tRNA in cells.
Which of the following is false about codons/amino acids.
3 nucleotides specify one amino acid.
1 nucleotide specifies three amino acids.
There are multiple codons for one amino acid.
If two or three nucleotides are inserted/deleted, a frame shift mutation will not occur.
Different types of cells in a multicellular organism have different genes.
True
False
Some genes in a cell are never expressed.
True
False
Most of the DNA sequence of a chromosome is part of a gene.
True
False
An individual chromosome has many genes.
True
False
The set of genes expressed in a particular cell is different under different conditions.
True
False
Most of the genes in a cell are expressed.
True
False
Females have the sex chromosome ____ and males have the sex chromosome ____.
XX; XX
XY; XY
XX; XY
XY; XX
What is the start signal for TRANSCRIPTION?
ORI
Promoter
Start Codon (AUG)
What is the stop signal for DNA Replication?
ORI
Terminator
Stop Codon
There is none
What is Eukaryotic mRNA processing?
Removes modified ends that help protect mRNAs from degradation.
Splices pieces of RNA to produce different RNA sequences for different proteins.
Ensures that the mRNA strand doesn’t have errors.
All of the above
Only A and B
During cell division, sister chromatids are attached to spindle fibers from opposite sides of the cell. This is important because...
It allows a diploid cell to divide into two haploid cells.
It ensures that the resulting cells have different numbers of chromosomes.
It allows the cell to be pinched into two separate cells at the end of cell division.
It ensures that the copies of chromosome produced by DNA replication end up in different cells.
Homologous chromosomes always have the same genes.
True
False
Homologous chromosomes always have the same alleles.
True
False
Homologous chromosomes ____ present in a diploid cell before DNA replication. Sister chromatids ____ present in a diploid cell before DNA replication.
Are; are
Are; are not
Are not; are not
Are not; are
After ____ mutations, cancer occurs.
Only 1
Only a few
Many, many mutations
Which of the following is used for asexual or sexual reproduction?
Mitosis
Meiosis
Binary Fission
All of the above
What is the maximum number of different alleles a diploid organism can have for a certain gene?
1
2
3
4
Which of the following statements is FALSE when comparing/contrasting Mitosis and Meiosis?
Both Mitosis and Meiosis can start with haploid cells.
Mitosis splits once whereas Meiosis splits twice.
Meiosis forms gametes for sexual reproduction; Mitosis is for growth/repair.
Mitosis yields two daughter cells; Meiosis yields four daughter cells.
Which error in Meiosis is worse?
Meiosis 1
Meiosis 2
Independent orientation generates allele combination for genes on ____ homologous chromosomes. Crossing over generates allele combinations for genes on ____ homologous chromosome.
Same; same
Different; different
Same; different
Different; same
Multiple genes code for one characteristic.
Pleiotropy
Incomplete Dominance
Polygenic Inheritance
Codominance
One gene codes for multiple characteristics.
Pleiotropy
Incomplete Dominance
Polygenic Inheritance
Codominance
BB: black fur, bb: white fur, Bb: speckled fur. Cross a black and white speckled dog with a white dog. What is the percentage of offspring that would be white?
0%
25%
50%
75%
100%
BB: black fur, bb: white fur, Bb: speckled fur. Cross a black and white speckled dog with a white dog. What is the percentage of offspring that would be black?
0%
25%
50%
100%
If there is an intermediate phenotype (i.e. a mixing/blend), then it is...
Incomplete Dominance
Codominance
Complete Dominance
None of the above
Can males be a carrier to a sex-linked complete dominance (X) disease?
Yes, if it is the recessive version of the disease.
Yes, they can have the disease allele, but the Y chromosome counteracts the disease.
No, the male either has the disease or not.
No, males cannot have X-linked diseases.
What are the possible gametes for this parent: Rryy. Select all that apply.
RY
Ry
rY
ry
Two parents are carriers of a disease. What is the percentage that their offspring would have the disease?
0%
25%
50%
75%
100%
A diploid cell has 8 different chromosomes. How many individual chromosomes/pieces of DNA are in the nucleus?
8
16
24
32
Within a few weeks of treatment with an HIV drug, a patient’s HIV population consists entirely of drug-resistant viruses. How can this result be explained?
HIV can change its surface proteins and resist vaccines.
The patient must have become reinfected with a resistant virus.
A few anti-resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.
HIV began making drug-resistant versions of its enzyme in response to the drug.
Natural selection is sometimes described as “survival of the fittest.” Which of the following best measures an organism’s fitness?
How many fertile offspring it produces.
How strong it is when pitted against others of its species.
Its ability to withstand environmental change.
How much food it is able to make or obtain.
If an allele is recessive and is lethal in homozygotes before they reproduce,
The allele will be removed from the population by natural selection in approximately 1,000 years.
The allele will likely remain in the population at a low frequency because it cannot be selected against in heterozygotes.
The fitness of the genotype is 0.
Both B and C are correct
Which of the natural selection distributions would this species exhibit: In a population of brown bears, bears with thicker fur survived in an unusually cold winter.
Directional Selection
Stabilizing Selection
Disruptive Selection
Which of the natural selection distributions would this species exhibit: Finches that have small beaks feed on soft seeds. Finches with large beaks feed on hard seeds. Finches with medium-sized beaks are ineffective at eating soft and large seeds.
Directional Selection
Stabilizing Selection
Disruptive Selection
Which of the natural selection distributions would this species exhibit: Babies that are born 6-8 pounds survive far better than babies that are born much lighter or much heavier,
Directional Selection
Stabilizing Selection
Disruptive Selection
There are two populations of the same species of grass across a roadway from each other. The wind flows their pollen back and forth, transferring alleles between the two populations. This is an example of...
Genetic drift
Sexual Selection
Gene flow
Natural Selection
Genetic drift...
Can occur due to the bottleneck effect, when a few individuals start a new population.
Can occur due to the bottleneck effect, which may happen after a forest fire.
Can occur due to the founder effect, which may happen after a forest fire.
Is the non-random change in allele frequencies that occurs in a small population.
Which mechanism of evolution explains adaption to the environment?
Mutation
Migration
Genetic drift
Natural selection
Gene flow
Sexual selection always increases an organism’s ability to survive.
True
False
Artificial selection is when humans artificially manipulate the genes of organisms.
True
False
Which of the mechanisms of evolution has an end goal?
Natural Selection
Sexual Selection
Artificial Selection
All of the above
None of the above
Select all of the mechanisms of microevolution that can increase the percentage of individuals in a population that are not beneficial for survival and reproduction.
Mutations
Genetic drift
Gene flow
Artificial Selection
What does artificial selection usually do to genetic diversity?
It stays the same.
It decreases.
It increases.
What is reverse transcription.
It converts DNA into RNA.
It converts RNA into DNA.
It converts mRNA into polypeptides.
It converts polypeptides into mRNA.
For the remainder of the session, what concept(s) would you like to go over?
