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2nd Graded Test

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is one of the most important aspects in the management of investigation which reflects not only the important account of the investigation but also the quality of the investigation service:

a)

Poor record-keeping

b)

Record-keeping

c)

Incomplete record-keeping

d)

No record-keeping

e)

Good record-keeping

2.

Identify the police procedure depicted below:

a)

Cartographic sketch

b)

Police line-up

c)

General photographs

d)

Modus operandi file

e)

Rouge’s gallery

3.

Objectives under LOI 03-09 regarding the “Procedure in the Submission of

Tenprint Cards and Latent Prints to the PNPCL for Encoding in the AFIS”:

1)     Proper lifting of prints from the crime scene if the case is neither “sensitive”

or “sensational”

2)     Proper lifting of prints from recovered evidence if case is neither “sensitive”

or “sensational”

3)     Timely submission of processed tenprints to nearest Crime Lab unit

4)     Timely submission of latent prints to nearest Crime Lab unit

5)      Proper processing of tenprints during “booking”

a)

c. 1, 3, 5

b)

d. 1, 3

c)

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

b. 1, 2, 3, 4

e)

e. 2, 4

4.

NOT a requisite in preparing and taking a “dying declaration” (Sec 37, Rule 130, Rules of Court):

a)

Declaration from dead victim

b)

Declaration refers to the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death

c)

Death is imminent and the declarant is conscious of that fact

d)

Declaration relates to facts which the victim is competent to testify to

e)

Declaration is offered in a case wherein the declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry

5.

Evidence is the means sanctioned by the rules (under Sec 1, Rule 128, Rules of Court) of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact. If the suspect has NO RIGHT to be in area, the evidence: Which of the following combinations is correct?

a)

1, 3, 5

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

3, 4, 5

e)

2, 4

6.

Not among the activities in gathering of investigative leads:

a)

Conversation with merchants, traders, vendors or other non-criminal informants who may aid in the recovery of stolen property

b)

Utilizing informants of a criminal background, paid or otherwise in obtaining information of criminal activities

c)

Conducting thorough neighborhood search for witnesses or those who may provide any type of pertinent information

d)

Appealing to the public for information by utilization of the media or other sources

e)

Obtaining and service of warrant of arrest and/or search warrant

7.

Identify what the image below projects:

a)

Custodial investigation

b)

Criminal investigation

c)

Crime scene investigation

d)

Crime investigation

e)

Homicide investigation

8.

Identify what the image below projects:

a)

Forensic investigation

b)

Forensic science

c)

Microscopy

d)

Firearm examination

e)

Crime scene investigation

9.

Most common examples of associative or corroborative evidence found by investigators:

a)

Hair and fiber

b)

Tool marks and Hair shed at a scene

c)

Latent fingerprints

d)

Blood stain and seminal fluid

e)

Paint and glass transfer

10.

Rationales behind the rule “Never conduct, or let anyone conduct, an interview if the interviewer has not gone to the Crime Scene”

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 5

c)

2, 4

d)

3, 5

e)

1, 4

11.

Identify the police procedure depicted below:

a)

Wanted persons poster

b)

Rouge's gallery

c)

Modus operandi file

d)

Police line-up

e)

Police line

12.

Among the factors in determining the value of associative evidence:

a)

Class characteristics includes evidence that can only be associated within a group

b)

Specificity or degree of identity of the evidence

c)

Any physical evidence that links an individual to a crime scene

d)

Individual characteristics contain marks or characteristics that are unique to the object

e)

All associative evidence is considered unreliable until it has been tested

13.

Methods and techniques in reactive investigation:

a)

Crime Scene Investigation; Witness Interviews; Forensic Analysis; Case Reviews

b)

Crime Mapping; e-Wanted Persons Information System; e-Rouge’s Gallery; e-Subpoena System

c)

Rapid Response; Emergency Communications; Specialist Units; Technology Use

d)

Surveillance Operations; Casing Operations; Undercover Operations; Infiltration Operations; Human Intelligence

e)

Data Analysis; Sting Operations; Buy-Bust Operations; Entrapment Operations

14.

Identify what the image below projects:

a)

Crime scene investigation

b)

Forensic investigation

c)

Forensic science

d)

Microscopy

e)

Firearm examination

15.

Identify what the image below projects:

a)

Criminal investigation

b)

Crime investigation

c)

Homicide investigation

d)

Custodial investigation

e)

Crime scene investigation

16.

The utilization of instruments, techniques and technology in the analysis of evidence related to the investigation of criminal cases:

a)

Instrumentation

b)

Forensic investigation

c)

Forensic science

d)

Criminalistics

e)

Crime scene investigation

17.

Primary types of investigation:

a)

(1) Information consisting of knowledge gathered by direct observation, or those knowledge communicated by a witness to the investigator; (2) Interview (and Interrogation) through questioning of a person relative to the incident under investigation; (3) Instrumentation by the use of instruments in the conduct of forensic examination of evidence

b)

(1) Reactive investigation to address crimes that have already occurred; (2) Proactive investigation involving anticipated criminal activity; (3) Preventive investigation through deterrence by arresting the criminal and aggressive prosecution

c)

(1) Initial investigation which is the first exposure of a criminal offense to the investigative effort; (2) Follow-up investigation regarding a continuing inquiry of all facts, leads and other types of information stemming from the preliminary investigation; (3) Concluding investigation concerning the preparation of a solid case to maximize the probability of a conviction

d)

(1) Crime investigation regarding the reported/discovered incident to determine if a crime was committed and, if so, the circumstances behind the incident; (2) Crime scene investigation necessitating the methodical approach to the scene for the necessary scientific processing for forensic evidence; (3) Criminal investigation through the use of clear and convincing evidence to successfully identify and prosecute the perpetrator

e)

(1) Identifying the suspect/s by name and personal circumstances; (2) Locating and apprehending the identified suspect/s; (3) Gathering and presenting evidence to establish the guilt of the suspect accused of committing the crime

18.

Principles behind the rule 'Make him admit something, no matter how small or trivial': 1) Securing the first admission is the biggest stumbling block in dealing with tough suspects. 2) It is a systematic questioning of all persons living, or frequenting the area. 3) Obtain information regarding the innocence or guilt of the subject. 4) The questioning will lead wayward for the interrogator. 5) Usually, the first admission will lead to another. Which of the above are principles behind the rule?

a)

3, 4

b)

5, 1

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2

e)

4, 5

19.

Phases of investigation:

a)

(1) Information consisting of knowledge gathered by direct observation, or those knowledge communicated by a witness to the investigator; (2) Interview (and Interrogation) through questioning of a person relative to the incident under investigation; (3) Instrumentation by the use of instruments in the conduct of forensic examination of evidence

b)

(1) Reactive investigation to address crimes that have already occurred; (2) Proactive investigation involving anticipated criminal activity; (3) Preventive investigation through deterrence by arresting the criminal and aggressive prosecution

c)

(1) Initial investigation which is the first exposure of a criminal offense to the investigative effort; (2) Follow-up investigation regarding a continuing inquiry of all facts, leads and other types of information stemming from the preliminary investigation; (3) Concluding investigation concerning the preparation of a solid case to maximize the probability of a conviction

d)

(1) Crime investigation regarding the reported/discovered incident to determine if a crime was committed and, if so, the circumstances behind the incident; (2) Crime scene investigation necessitating the methodical approach to the scene for the necessary scientific processing for forensic evidence; (3) Criminal investigation through the use of clear and convincing evidence to successfully identify and prosecute the perpetrator

e)

(1) Identifying the suspect/s by name and personal circumstances; (2) Locating and apprehending the identified suspect/s; (3) Gathering and presenting evidence to establish the guilt of the suspect accused of committing the crime

20.

It does not of itself conclusively establish a disputed fact but merely creates an

inference (notion/idea) or presumption of its existence:

1)     Circumstantial evidence

2)     Corroborative evidence

3)     Associative evidence

4)     Hearsay evidence

5)     Indirect evidence

a)

a. 1, 2

b)

b. 2, 3

c)

c. 3, 4

d)

d. 4, 5

e)

e. 5, 1

21.

General stages of investigation include:

a)

a. Crime investigation regarding the reported/discovered incident to determine if a

crime was committed and, if so, the circumstances behind the incident; (2) Crime

scene investigation necessitating the methodical approach to the scene for the

necessary scientific processing for forensic evidence; (3) Criminal investigation

through the use of clear and convincing evidence to successfully identify and

prosecute the perpetrator

b)

b. Initial investigation which is the first exposure of a criminal offense to the

investigative effort; (2) Follow-up investigation regarding a continuing inquiry of all

facts, leads and other types of information stemming from the preliminary

investigation; (3) Concluding investigation concerning the preparation of a solid case

to maximize the probability of a conviction

c)

c. Information consisting of knowledge gathered by direct observation, or those

knowledge communicated by a witness to the investigator; (2) Interview (and

Interrogation) through questioning of a person relative to the incident under

investigation; (3) Instrumentation by the use of instruments in the conduct of

forensic examination of evidence

d)

d. Reactive investigation to address crimes that have already occurred; (2) Proactive

investigation involving anticipated criminal activity; (3) Preventive investigation

through deterrence by arresting the criminal and aggressive prosecution

e)

e. Identifying the suspect/s by name and personal circumstances; (2) Locating and

apprehending the identified suspect/s; (3) Gathering and presenting evidence to

establish the guilt of the suspect accused of committing the crime

22.

Typical gaps noted on the part of investigation units/offices include: No proper turn-over of case/case folder between the outgoing and the incoming investigators, No investigator assigned on the case that was handled and left by the previous investigation, Frequent change of investigators brought about by reassignment, Poor record-keeping/documentation, and No crime was reported. Which of the following options includes all the typical gaps noted above?

a)

a) a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

b) d. 1, 3

c)

c) b. 1, 2, 3, 4

d)

d) c. 1, 3, 5

e)

e) e. 2, 4

23.

Identify what the image below projects:

a)

Crime scene investigation

b)

Custodial investigation

c)

Homicide investigation

d)

Crime investigation

e)

Criminal investigation

24.

To avoid overload and mismanagement of the investigation of cases:

a)

The investigation workload should be evenly distributed to the investigators

b)

In order to avoid repetition of recurrent lapses and to ensure a systematic case management, it is imperative to establish mechanism which prescribes the guidelines on the transfer of investigators

c)

Non-duty investigators may not be required to attend daily formations or personnel accounting, however, they shall be on call anytime of the day and shall be ready to take cognizance of any new criminal cases to be assigned by the Chief, Inves Sec and the COP

d)

There should be at least one (1) duty investigator to render duty at the police station of a 12-hour shift, who shall take charge of cases that requires immediate action while all other investigators shall conduct follow-up investigation of their assigned cases

e)

All Chiefs of Investigation Offices/Units nationwide shall closely monitor and supervise the IOC Monitoring Sheet and shall sensibly distribute all cases to its IOCs and diligently monitor the status of these cases on a monthly basis

25.

Responsibility and accountability of unit commanders and concerned supervisors for non-observance of DIDM ID # 2017-16, dtd 31 May 2017:

a)

Lapse of judgement

b)

Unlawful performance of duty

c)

Chain of command

d)

Command responsibility

e)

Irregularity in the performance of duty

26.

In the McKinsey 7S Framework, 'Shared Values' are considered the:

a)

Customer satisfaction metrics

b)

Core beliefs that guide the organization's actions

c)

Financial targets

d)

Marketing strategies

27.

A firm introduces a new corporate face focusing on global expansion. This primarily impacts which element?

a)

Skills

b)

Staff

c)

Structure

d)

Strategy

28.

After a merger, a company needs to integrate two different corporate cultures. This challenge is related to:

a)

Structure

b)

Systems

c)

Skills

d)

Shared Values

29.

To stay competitive, a company focuses on innovation and flexibility. This change is most associated with which 7S element?

a)

Structure

b)

Strategy

c)

Systems

d)

Style

30.

Which 7S element is likely the focus if a company is enhancing its onboarding and employee development programs?

a)

Style

b)

Systems

c)

Structure

d)

Staff

31.

The 'Skills' element in the McKinsey 7S Framework is concerned with:

a)

Employee satisfaction

b)

Organizational structure

c)

Marketing techniques

d)

Employee competencies and capabilities

32.

A business decides to implement a new technological breakthrough in their operations. This change is most closely related to which 7S element?

a)

Systems

b)

Staff

c)

Structure

d)

Skills

33.

A company facing high employee turnover should reassess which 7S elements?

a)

Staff and Style

b)

Systems and Structure

c)

Strategy and Skills

d)

Shared Values and Skills

34.

An organization needs to improve its decision-making process. Which 7S element should it focus on?

a)

Style

b)

Systems

c)

Skills

d)

Structure

35.

To enhance market responsiveness, a company decentralizes its decision-making. This is an adjustment to which element?

a)

Structure

b)

Strategy

c)

Systems

d)

Skills

36.

When aligning new strategic goals with existing processes, a company is primarily dealing with:

a)

Systems and Strategy

b)

Staff and Style

c)

Structure and Skills

d)

Shared Values and Systems

37.

Which of the following best describes the 'Strategy' element in the McKinsey 7S Framework?

a)

The daily operations plan

b)

The overarching plan for achieving long-term goals

c)

The physical layout of the office

d)

The technological tools used

38.

The 'Systems' element in the McKinsey 7S Framework refers to:

a)

Formal and informal procedures

b)

IT infrastructure

c)

Market strategy

d)

Organizational culture

39.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 7S in the McKinsey 7S Framework?

a)

Systems

b)

Solution

c)

Structure

d)

Strategy

40.

A company emphasizes collaborative, coaching and team approach. This primarily reflects changes in which 7S element?

a)

Systems

b)

Staff

c)

Strategy

d)

Style

41.

The introduction of a new performance management system primarily affects which element?

a)

Style

b)

Structure

c)

Staff

d)

Systems

42.

When a company shifts from a hierarchical to a flat organizational design, it is altering its:

a)

Structure

b)

Strategy

c)

Style

d)

Systems

43.

If employees are unclear about the company’s subordinate goals, which 7S element needs to be addressed?

a)

Strategy

b)

Skills

c)

Shared Values

d)

Systems

44.

To improve customer satisfaction, a company invests heavily in employee training. This action pertains to:

a)

Structure

b)

Skills

c)

Strategy

d)

Systems

45.

In the McKinsey 7S Framework, 'Style' primarily pertains to:

a)

Product design

b)

Market segmentation

c)

Management and leadership approach

d)

Office layout

46.

The 'Shared Values' element in the McKinsey 7S Framework refers to:

a)

Fundamental beliefs and attitudes

b)

Marketing tactics

c)

Financial goals

d)

Organizational objectives

47.

Which element in the McKinsey 7S Framework focuses on the organization's hierarchy and reporting lines?

a)

Strategy

b)

Style

c)

Structure

d)

Systems

48.

The McKinsey 7S Framework is primarily used for:

a)

Evaluating financial performance

b)

Aligning organizational elements to achieve objectives

c)

Developing new product lines

d)

Conducting market research

49.

If a company is struggling with ineffective communication across departments, which 7S element is likely misaligned?

a)

Strategy

b)

Structure

c)

Skills

d)

Systems

50.

It is one of the human mental activities, which critical thinking skill is observed. This is very essential in argumentative approaches either utilizing inductive or deducted logical processes.

a)

Directional reasoning

b)

Right reasoning

c)

Reactional thinking

d)

Conclusive reasoning

51.

PCMS Tawas is tasked to investigate the occurrence of frequent robbery in the Barangay. The best logical argument and approach that he does to establish the result of his investigation is what?

a)

Logical statement of the witnesses

b)

Deductive logic

c)

Inductive logic

d)

Logical structure of the investigative proceeding

52.

PEMS Duds is engaged in an arising situation in their Unit. He happens to be the senior PNCO thereat, and his COP is not around. Considering that he needs to do something, how can he apply critical thinking skill on that particular moment, so that tension caused by the arrogant client with his family be initially pacified?

a)

He needs to communicate well with the people he has encountered in the Office.

b)

He should entertain them with humorous words.

c)

He just sticks on the approach showing maximum tolerance.

d)

He needs to refer them to the COP by giving COP's number.

53.

Being able to think critically is important in virtually every industry and applicable across a wide range of positions.

a)

The statement is reliable.

b)

The statement is absolute.

c)

The statement is false.

d)

The statement is true.

54.

Besides critical thinking, what is it that is also significant in conducting police operation. This should not be also put into oblivion as one of the tools a police officer can use in his job

a)

Common understanding

b)

Policy and Guidance

c)

Common sense

d)

Common intelligence

55.

PEMS Paga has been twenty years in the police service. His experiences in problem solving have provided him the necessary skills to settle problematic issues he has encountered every day. One of the techniques that he is very much comfortable

a)

Being comfortable with cognition

b)

Being comfortable with friendship

c)

Being comfortable with ambiguity

d)

Being comfortable with trust

56.

PEMS Tandua has received information. The bulks of information are consistent, and thus apparently reliable. However, PEMS Tandua has been also aware that in dealing with information reliability is just one side of the coin. The other is validity. In critical thinking analysis, what is more expected of PEMS Tandua?

a)

To be logical

b)

To be consistent

c)

To be open-minded

d)

To be analytic

57.

Who is that Industrial Psychologist who offered the definition of critical thinking as “a mental process that involves deep cognitive functions resulting in wise decision making.”

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Douglas Scriven

c)

Herbert L. Ulayao

d)

Nao Chen Wang

58.

In critical thinking analysis, what is the C that pertains to the questioning attitude of the child?

a)

Curiosity

b)

Competence

c)

Coherence

d)

Commitment

59.

PCMS Basahi failed in his first attempt to pass the Bar exam. He was frustrated and engaged in too much intoxication. His family and work obligation were not properly managed as well. His COP learned what is happening to one of his competent senior PNCOs. How can the COP offer a help to that problematic policeman with deep cognitive functioning?

a)

The COP must talk with that policeman in public.

b)

The COP must visit the house of the policeman and have an ambiance of friendship with that policeman by showing empathy and listening skills with the direct support of the family.

c)

The COP must refer the case to the CHS and HS for further diagnostic and spiritual approaches.

d)

The COP must set a wellness activity together with other members of the Station to give that policeman explain his condition.

60.

PCMS San Diego is so intense in his search of the problem. In the 7 steps, he is dealing with qualifying the nature of the problem.

a)

The statement is false

b)

The statement is quite relatively true.

c)

The statement is quite false.

d)

The statement is true.

61.

Except one, all of the enumerated concepts are included in the 5 Cs of critical thinking analysis:

a)

Creativity

b)

Consistency

c)

Coherence

d)

Clarity

e)

Curiosity

62.

Doing critical thinking analysis is one way of showing one’s expertise in whatever endeavor he is engaged. He must always adhere to methodology in his dealing to make sure he does something beyond the way of the ordinary people. What are the two words that pertains to “going beyond the way?”

a)

Method and expertise

b)

Meta and ados

c)

Metas and ado

d)

Metanol and adology

63.

Dedicating oneself to ongoing learning and improvement is necessary in critical thinking analysis. What is it on the enumerated Cs of critical thinking analysis?

a)

Clarity

b)

Commitment

c)

Coherence

d)

Consistency

64.

This is one of the critical thinking skills that allows police office to identify trends and patterns in data.

a)

Problem solving

b)

Decision making

c)

Open-mindedness

d)

Analytic thinking

65.

PSMS Huk is so filled with a lot of concerns in the office and in his familial obligation. His mind cannot operate well, and thus affecting his judgment towards his familial and organizational obligation. To regain his spirit, he decides to have a walk in the woods to emancipate himself from that cognitive bombardment. What can PSMS get from that approach?

a)

Reflective thinking

b)

Pre-judging capacity

c)

Profound rational activities

d)

Cognitive exercises

66.

Confronted with various alternatives, what kind of critical skills is required to someone to do?

a)

Analytic thinking

b)

Problem solving

c)

Decision making

d)

Curiosity

67.

It is defined as “a mental process that involves deep cognitive functions resulting in wise decision making.”

a)

Critical thinking ability

b)

Critical thing skill

c)

Critical thinking analysis

d)

Critical thinking modality

68.

The COP of a certain station in Pasig noticed that one of the Patrolman has been consistent being late in assuming police duty in the Station. Aware of the obligation of the personnel having rank of PSMS, he instructed PSMS Shy to deal with that Patrolman apparent misbehavior. How can PSMS Shy respond on that situation?

a)

PSMS Shy will initiate filing of admin case, so that the Patrolman can have a good chance to explain himself.

b)

PSMS must first converse with amicable mood. Invite the Patrolman to tell the story on what has been happening in him with empathic mood of listening as one way of showing his critical thinking skills.

c)

PSMS Shy just accepts the instruction and must approach that Patrolman with intimidation to cease such bad conduct or else the COP will reprimand him.

d)

PSMS Shy shall conduct investigative approach to solicit information of the private activity of that Patrolman causing him to be consistently late in the Station.

69.

Critical thinkers can also be considered expert on their chosen fields such as in policing job. What are the words attached to the understating of the word, “expert.?

a)

Nun and perior

b)

Non and periori

c)

Non and perio

d)

Non and perior

70.

Elements of public speaking except.

a)

Whom

b)

Who

c)

What

d)

When

e)

Effect

71.

The context of any communication needed in an environment except.

a)

Noise

b)

Event

c)

Attitude of sender and receiver

d)

Time

e)

Place

72.

What factor do you think would distract effective listening

a)

Listen for ideas not just words

b)

Stop talking

c)

Prepare yourself to listen

d)

Be patient

e)

Don’t become irritated

73.

The channel responsible for delivery of message forms, except.

a)

Magazine

b)

Body language

c)

Internet, Radio

d)

Letter, Post office

e)

E-mail

74.

Good listeners are more effective than poor listeners. Which of the following are effective for listeners?

a)

Keep quiet

b)

All of the Above

c)

Try taking note

d)

Active listening

e)

Ask Question

75.

An effective communicator should be guided by the following process in order to reduce misunderstanding by the receiver.

a)

None of the Above

b)

All of the Above

c)

Understand their audience

d)

Choose appropriate communication channel

e)

Encodes the message

76.

Which of the following effective communication in an organization is not important.

a)

Serves as the foundation of every facet of business.

b)

None of the above

c)

Communication is a tool that helps in socialization.

d)

Helps managers to perform basics function of management.

e)

Helps in building people’s attitude.

77.

The following categories of communication except.

a)

Communication channel

b)

Written Communication

c)

Spoken or Verbal

d)

Visualization

e)

non-Verbal

78.

The act of transferring or conveying information from one person to another.

a)

Communication

b)

Debate

c)

Socialization

d)

Argumentation

e)

Listening

79.

The Communication process responsible for the delivery of the chosen message form.

a)

Channel

b)

Receiver

c)

Medium

d)

Sender

e)

All the above

80.

In the communication process who decides on the message?

a)

Channel

b)

Feedback

c)

Sender

d)

Encode

e)

Receiver

81.

DOs in public speaking are the following except:

a)

Speak clearly & loud enough

b)

Have eye-contact

c)

Be respectful

d)

Know your message

e)

Avoids extra movements

82.

The different categories of communication are the following:

a)

Non-verbal

b)

Visualization

c)

Spoken or Verbal

d)

All of the Above

e)

Written communication

83.

In your respective office what medium is used to send messages?

a)

All the above

b)

Face to Face

c)

Form of speech

d)

Letter

e)

E-mail

84.

One of the communication process responsible for the delivery of the chosen message form like: post office, internet, radio etc.

a)

Sender

b)

Feedback

c)

Medium

d)

Channel

e)

Receiver

85.

How to institute criminal actions where preliminary investigation is not required?

a)

Filing of complaint directly in MTC/MCTC

b)

Both a and b

c)

Filing of complaint with the office of the prosecutor

d)

None of the above

86.

Who files the information in court?

a)

None of the above

b)

The judge

c)

The complainant

d)

The prosecutor

87.

What is the quantum of evidence being determined in preliminary investigation?

a)

Proof beyond reasonable doubt

b)

None of the above

c)

Preponderance of evidence

d)

Prima facie evidence with reasonable certainty of conviction

88.

Warrant of arrest is valid throughout the Philippines.

a)

False

b)

None of the above

c)

True

d)

Immaterial

89.

Complete name of AC, PNP

(a)  

90.

Miranda rights pertain to the right to remain silent and right to counsel

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Immaterial

d)

None of the above

91.

The reasonable time of the arrest is relevant in “in flagrante delicto” arrest.

a)

None of the above

b)

Immaterial

c)

False

d)

True

92.

Complete name of the Chief, NHQ-NSUs TC

(a)  

93.

Complete name of Director NPTI

(a)  

94.

How to institute criminal actions where preliminary investigation is required?

a)

Filing of complaint with the office of the prosecutor

b)

Filing of complaint directly in MTC/MCTC

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

95.

In cases where the penalty provided by law is Reclusion Perpetua or life imprisonment, the right to bail is a matter of __________ when the evidence of guilt is strong.

a)

Privilege

b)

None of the above

c)

Discretion

d)

Right

96.

What penalty for the crime/offense is required for the conduct of preliminary investigation?

a)

At least 6 years and 1 day

b)

At least 1 year and 1 day

c)

At least 4 years and 1 day

d)

None of the above

97.

Evidence obtained in violation of the constitutional rights of a person and the relevant provisions in valid warrantless arrest/search is inadmissible in evidence pursuant to the principle of a fruit of a ____________________.

a)

Solitary confinement

b)

None of the above

c)

Irrelevant evidence

d)

Poisonous tree

98.

INDEX AND NON INDEX CRIMES SUCH AS ______, EXCEPT ______ ARE THE MOST FREQUENTLY RECORDED CRIMES AT THE LOCAL LEVEL.

a)

MURDER

b)

THEFT

c)

UNFAIR LABOR PRACTICE

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

e)

ROBBERY

99.

THE FOLLOWING ARE SOME OF THE KINDS OF CONFLICT __________, EXCEPT

a)

POLITICAL AND EXTRA JUDICIAL KILLINGS

b)

RIDO OR CLAN WARS

c)

RACIAL M DISCRIMINATION

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

e)

IDEOLOGY

100.

CONFLICT OR VIOLENCE IS USUALLY SEEN AS ______ OR PEACE AND ORDER PROBLEMS AT THE LOCAL LEVEL

a)

DISCRIMINATORY ACTS

b)

CIVIL ACTS

c)

CRIMINAL ACTS

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

e)

ADMINISTRATIVE ACTS

101.

THESE  ARE  THE  TWO  {2}  MAJOR  STATUTES  THAT  SUPPORTS  THE  PEACE 

AND  ORDER  EFFORT  OF  THE  PHILIPPINE  GOVERNMENT.

a)

A. LOCAL PEACE AND ORDER COUNCILS [ EXECUTIVE ORDER 309 XXII, ART. 186 OF RA 7160].

b)

B. REPUBLIC ACT 6975

c)

C. REPUBLIC ACT 8550

d)

D. A AND B ONLY

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

102.

IN  LUZON  AND  VISAYAS  REGION,  THE  ROOT  CAUSES  OF 

INSURGENCY/CONFLICT IS  __________________________. 

a)

A. POLITICS

b)

B. IDEOLOGY

c)

C. POOR GOVERNANCE

d)

D. POVERTY

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

103.

 IT  IS  THE  FIRST  PEACE  PARADIGM WHICH  IS THE  TRADITIONALLY 

DOMINANT  FRAMEWORK I N  THE  FIELD   OF  INTERNATIONAL  RELATIONS

a)

A. POWER POLITICS

b)

B. WORLD ORDER

c)

C. CONFLICT RESOLUTION

d)

D. TRANSFORMATION

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

104.

THE  ROOT  CAUSES  OF  CONFLICTS  IN  THE  PHILIPPINES  ARE  THE 

FOLLOWING ______,  EXCEPT

a)

A. MASSIVE AND ABJECT POVERTY

b)

B. POOR GOVERNANCE

c)

C. INJUSTICE

d)

D. LACK OF EMPLOYMENT

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

105.

THE  EVERYDAY  USE  OF  THE  “DO NO  HARM”  PRINCIPLE  IN  CONLICT 

SENSITIVITY PEACE  PROMOTING  PARADIGM  BY  THE  INTERNATIONAL 

COMMUNITY  TENDED  TO  INTERPRET SUCH  PRINCIPLE  AS

a)

A. NEVER COMMIT A WRONG

b)

B. SIMPLY AVOIDING TO HARM

c)

C. ALWAYS PROTECT PEOPLE

d)

D. ASSURE PEOPLE OF FULL

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

106.

ANOTHER  PEACE  PARADIGM  WHICH  VIEWS  THE  “ORDER”  CREATED  BY 

PRACTICES  OF  POWER  POLITICS  AS  A  FORM  OF  DISORDER,  PROPOSES 

THAT  SUSTAINED  COOPERATION  AMONG  STATES  AND  OTHER 

SIGNIFICANT  FACTORS,  SUCH  AS  NGO’S  AND  INTERGOVERNMENTAL,  IS 

BOTH POSSIBLE  AND  NECESSARY.

a)

A. POWER POLITICS

b)

B. WORLD ORDER

c)

C. CONFLICT RESOLUTION

d)

D. NON-VIOLENCE

e)

E, NONE OF THE ABOVE

107.

THIS  IS  ONE  OF  THE  SIX  {6}  PATHS  TO  PEACE  WHERE  IT  INVOLVES  THE 

VARIOUS  IMPLEMENTATION  OF  VARIOUS  POLICIES, REFORMS, PROGRAMS,

AND  PROJECTS AIMED  AT  ADDRESSING  THE  ROOT  CAUSES  OF  INTERNAL 

ARMED  CONFLICTS  AND  SOCIAL  UNREST.

a)

A. PURSUIT OF SOCIAL, ECONOMIC, AND POLITICAL REFORMS

b)

B. CONSENSUS-BUILDING AND EMPOWERMENT FOR PEACE

c)

C. PEACEFUL NEGOTIATED SETTLEMENT

d)

D. PROGRAMS FOR RECONCILIATION

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

108.

THE  FOLLOWING  ARE CONFLICT  SENSITIVITY  AND  PEACE  PROMOTING 

PARADIGM  PRINCIPLES ___________________,  EXCEPT

a)

A. CONFLICT SENSITIVITY

b)

B. DO NO HARM

c)

C. SOMETIMES DO HARM

d)

D. A AND B ONLY

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

109.

IT  IS  ALSO  A  PEACE PARADIGM  WHICH  INVOLVES  THE  CULTIVATION  OF  A 

PEACEFUL  CONCIOUSNESS  AND  CHARACTER,  TOGETHER  WITH  AN 

AFFIRMATIVE  BELIEF  SYSTEM  AND  SKILLS  THROUGH  WHICH  THE  FRUITS 

OF  INTERNAL  DISARMAMENT   AND  PERSONAL INTEGRATION MAYBE 

EXPRESSED.

a)

A. WORLD ORDER

b)

B. POWER POLITICS

c)

C. CONFLICT RESOLUTION

d)

D. TRANSFORMATION

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

110.

IT  IS  ALSO  A  KIND  OF  CONFLICT  WHERE  THE  LOCAL  GOVERNMENT 

UNITS  MENTION  _____  AS  ONE  OF  THE  MAJOR  CONDITIONS  OF 

STRUCTURAL  VIOLENCE  IN  THEIR  LOCALITIES.

a)

A. POOR GIOVERNANCE

b)

B. CRIME

c)

C. POVERTY

d)

D. RIDO OR CLAN WARS

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

111.

THAT  PARADIGM  WHICH  PROPOSES  THAT  THE  POWER  OF  ANY 

GOVERNMENT  DERIVES  PRIMARILY  FROM  THE  CONSENT  OF  THE  PEOPLE, 

AND  ONLY  SECONDARILY  FROM COERSION.

a)

A. NON-VIOLENCE

b)

B. WORLD ORDER

c)

C. CONFLICT RESOLUTION

d)

D. POWER POLITICS

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

112.

A  KIND  OF  CONFLICT  WHICH  INVOLVES  DISPUTES  OVER  LAND  AND 

TERITORY  ARE  COMMON  CONFLICTS  AT  THE   LOCAL  LEVEL.

a)

A. POOR GOVERNANCE

b)

B. ENVIRONMENTAL THREATS

c)

C. BOUNDAREY AND TERITORIAL DISPUTES

d)

D. IDEOLOGY

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

113.

CONFLICT SENSITIVITY IS DEFINED AS THE NOTION OF SYSTEMATICALLY

TAKING INTO ACCOUNT BOTH THE ____________________, IN TERMS OF

CONFLICT OR PEACE DYNAMICS, ON THE CONTEXTS IN WHICH THY ARE

UNDERTAKEN AND CONVERSELY, THE IMPACT OF THESE CONTEXTS   ON THE

INTERVENTION.

a)

A. POSITIVE IMPACT OF INTERVENTION

b)

B. NEGATIVE IMPACT OF INTERVENTION

c)

C. COMBINATION OF SOME NEGATIVE AND POSITIVE IMPACT OF INTERVENTION

d)

D. A AND B ONLY

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

114.

ALSO  ANOTHER   KIND  OF  CONFLICT  WHERE  THE  COMMONLY  CITED 

COMPLAINTS  RELATE  TO  THE  FOLLOWING:  LIMITED  OR  MINIMAL 

KNOWLEDGE  OF  LOCAL  GOVERNMENT  OFFICIALS  ON  MATTERS 

PERTAINING  TO  LOCAL  GOVERNANCE  AND   DEVELOPMENT;  EXCESSIVE 

POLITICKING;  LACK  OF  POLITICAL  WILL,  ETC.

a)

A. POVERTY

b)

B. POOR GOVERNANCE

c)

C. RIDO OR CLAN WARS

d)

D. CRIME

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

115.

A  STUDY  ON  ARMED  CONFLICT  IN  MINDANAO  AREA  HAS  FOUND  THAT  A 

BIGGER NUMBER  OF  ARMED  CONFLICT IN  THE  REGION  IS  NOT  FROM  

MORO  ISLAMIC  LIBERATION  FRONT OR  ABU-SAYYAF  CAMPS  BUT  FROM

_____________________.

a)

A. POOR GOVERNANCE

b)

B. RIDO OR CLAN WARS

c)

C. POVERTY

d)

D. IDEOLOGY-BASE ARMED CONFLICT

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

116.

IN  THE  PHILIPPINES,  _______________________  ARE  OFTEN  PERCEIVED  AS 

THE  MAIN  CONTRIBUTORS  TO  AN  ARMED  CONFLICT.

a)

A. IDEOLOGY-BASE ARMED CONFLICT

b)

B. BOUNDARY AND TERRITORIAL DISPUTES

c)

C. POLITICAL AND EXTRA JUDICIAL KILLINGS

d)

D. POVERTY

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

117.

ANY  PROJECT  SET  IN  A  CONFLICT-PRONE  REGION  WILL  INEVITABLY  HAVE 

______________ ON  THE  PEACE  AND  CONFLICT  ENVIRONMENT.

a)

A. NEGATIVE IMPACT

b)

B. POSITIVE IMPACT

c)

C. DIRECT OR INDIRECT

d)

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

e)

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE