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Worksheets

SET 1 - CCNA Mock Exam

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 4hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

a)

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

b)

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

c)

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

d)

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

2.

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)

a)

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

b)

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

c)

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

d)

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

e)

modular design that is upgradable as needed

3.

Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.

Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.)

a)

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router

b)

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router

c)

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router

d)

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router

e)

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router

4.

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

a)

Exchange

b)

2-way

c)

Full

d)

Init

5.

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

a)

YAML

b)

JSON

c)

EBCDIC

d)

SGML

e)

XML

6.

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

a)

ARP

b)

SNMP

c)

SMTP

d)

CDP

7.

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)

a)

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

b)

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

c)

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

d)

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

e)

to support load balancing via static routing

8.

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

a)

management interface settings

b)

QoS settings

c)

Ip address of one or more access points

d)

SSID

e)

Profile name

9.

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

a)

IS-IS

b)

RIP

c)

Internal EIGRP

d)

OSPF

10.

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

a)

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

b)

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

c)

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

d)

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

11.

Refer to the exhibit which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged from is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface ?

a)

The frame is dropped

b)

The frame is processed in VLAN 5

c)

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

d)

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

12.

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

a)

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

b)

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable.

c)

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC.

d)

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC.

13.

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

a)

TKIP with RC4

b)

RC4

c)

AES-128

d)

AES-256

14.

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two.)

a)

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign

b)

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them.

c)

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

d)

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

e)

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

a)

All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

b)

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

c)

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

d)

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

16.

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

a)

OpenFlow

b)

NETCONF

c)

Thrift

d)

CORBA

e)

DSC

17.

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

a)

It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment

b)

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

c)

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

d)

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

18.

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

a)

outside global

b)

outside local

c)

inside global

d)

inside local

e)

outside public

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

a)

10.10.1.10

b)

10.10.10.20

c)

172.16.15.10

d)

192.168.0.1

20.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

a)

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

b)

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

c)

R2 should have its network command in area 1

d)

R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size

21.

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

a)

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent

and the user database

b)

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

c)

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

d)

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

22.

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

a)

ASCII

b)

base64

c)

binary

d)

decimal

e)

hexadecimal

23.

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

a)

It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric.

b)

It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

c)

It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric.

d)

It uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric.

24.

which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

a)

ipv6 address dhcp

b)

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

c)

ipv6 address autoconfig

d)

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

25.

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

a)

WEP

b)

RC4

c)

AES

d)

TKIP

26.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

a)

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

b)

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

c)

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

d)

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

27.

Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

a)

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

b)

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

c)

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

d)

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to Gigabit Ethernet0/1

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?

a)

show ip route

b)

show ip interface

c)

show interface

d)

show cdp neighbor

29.

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable What is the result of this configuration?

a)

The link is in a downstate

b)

The link is in an error disables state

c)

The link is becomes an access port.

d)

The link becomes a trunk port.

30.

which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address ?

a)

2000::/3

b)

FC00::/7

c)

FE80::/10

d)

FF00::/8

31.

Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

a)

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

b)

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain

c)

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

d)

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

32.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1.Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

a)

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

b)

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

c)

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

d)

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

33.

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

a)

Physical access control

b)

Social engineering attack

c)

brute force attack

d)

user awareness

34.

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22 .which static route does the router choose to forward the packet ?

a)

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

b)

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

c)

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

d)

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

35.

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
36.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

a)

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data; UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

b)

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once; UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing.

c)

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

d)

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable Delivery.

37.

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

a)

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched

b)

Router2 is using the default hello timer

c)

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

d)

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched

38.

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

a)

cost

b)

administrative distance

c)

metric

d)

as-path

39.

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

a)

Bronze

b)

Platinum

c)

Silver

d)

Gold

40.

Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

a)

adminadmin123

b)

default

c)

testing 1234

d)

cisco123

41.

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

a)

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

b)

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

c)

It moves the control plane to a central point

d)

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

e)

It uses Telnet to report system issues

42.

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

a)

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

b)

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

c)

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

d)

If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

43.

Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected?

a)

There is a native VLAN mismatch

b)

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

c)

The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

d)

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

44.

which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the internet?

a)

link-local

b)

unique local

c)

multicast

d)

global unicast

45.

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)

a)

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections

b)

The data can pass through the cladding

c)

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

d)

The glass core component is encased in a cladding.

e)

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

46.

which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate?(choose two)

a)

IPv6 address

b)

OSPF process ID

c)

OSPF MD5 authentication key

d)

OSPF stub flag

e)

OSPF area

47.

which 802.11 frame type is association reponse ?

a)

management

b)

protected frame

c)

action

d)

control

48.

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?

a)

switchport access vlan 67

b)

switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

c)

switchport private-vlan association host 67

d)

switchport trunk native vlan 67

49.

Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

a)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

b)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

c)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

d)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

e)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

50.

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

a)

port-to-multipoint

b)

broadcast

c)

point-to-point

d)

non-broadcast

51.

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

a)

Enable NTP authentication

b)

Verify the time zone

c)

Disable NTP broadcasts

d)

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

e)

Set the NTP server private key

52.

Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration farted to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

a)

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

b)

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

c)

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

d)

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface in bound on R1

e)

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1interface outbound onR2

53.

what is the default behavior of a layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received ?

a)

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

b)

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning

c)

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN

d)

The Layer 2 switch dorps the received frame

54.

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

a)

ip address dhcp

b)

ip helper-address

c)

ip dhcp pool

d)

ip dhcp client

55.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration?(choose two)

a)

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

b)

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

c)

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

d)

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

e)

This is a root bridge

56.

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two.)

a)

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

b)

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network.

c)

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic.

d)

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.

e)

It requires that some servers, virtual machines, and network gear reside on the Internet.

57.

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

a)

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

b)

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

c)

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

d)

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

58.

Which option about JSON is true?

a)

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

b)

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

c)

used for storing information

d)

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

59.

when configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined?(choose two)

a)

2000::/3

b)

2000::5

c)

FC00::/7

d)

FF02::1

e)

FF02::2

60.

which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

a)

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

b)

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

c)

The hypervisor can virtual physical components including CPU, memory, and storage

d)

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

61.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored as a cryptographic hash. The four switches

must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements ?

a)

SW1

b)

SW2

c)

SW3

d)

SW4

62.

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

a)

lldp timer

b)

lldp holdtime

c)

lldp reinit

d)

lldp tlv-select

63.

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

a)

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

b)

The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

c)

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

d)

A console password must be configured on the switch

e)

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

64.

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

a)

platform-as-a-service

b)

software-as-a-service

c)

network-as-a-service

d)

infrastructure-as-a-service

65.

what event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

a)

An interface line has changed status

b)

An ICMP connection has been built

c)

A certificate has expired

d)

A TCP connection has been torn down

66.

A fram that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented?

a)

input erros

b)

frame

c)

giants

d)

CRC

e)

runts

67.

which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

a)

allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts

b)

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

c)

ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

d)

enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

68.

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

a)

FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC.

b)

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.

c)

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AF to the WLC

d)

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP.

69.

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?

a)

Authorization provides access control, and authentication tracks user services

b)

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control.

c)

Authorization identifies users, and authentication provides access control

d)

Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services

70.

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication?

a)

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

b)

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

c)

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

d)

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

71.

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism?(Choose two)

a)

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

b)

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

c)

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

d)

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

e)

IT supports protocol discovery

72.

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

a)

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

b)

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management.

c)

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

d)

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

73.

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

a)

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

b)

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

c)

allocating non overlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

d)

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

74.

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

a)

The packets fail to match any permit statement

b)

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

c)

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

d)

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

e)

The ACL is empty

75.

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

a)

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

b)

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode

c)

It enables easy auto discovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

d)

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance

76.

Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

a)

It selects RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

b)

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

c)

It load-balances traffic between all three routes

d)

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

77.

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

a)

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

b)

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

c)

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

d)

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

78.

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

a)

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256

b)

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

c)

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

d)

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

e)

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

79.

which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

a)

TKIP encryption

b)

SAE encryption

c)

AES encryption

d)

scrambled encryption key

80.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

a)

passive

b)

mode on

c)

auto

d)

active

81.

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

a)

sniffer

b)

mesh

c)

flexconnect

d)

local

82.

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

a)

interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252

b)

interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248

c)

interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248

d)

interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

83.

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

a)

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

b)

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

c)

supports autonomous and lightweight APs

d)

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

84.

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1.which configuration accomplishes this task?

a)

R1# config t

R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1

b)

R1# config t

R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

c)

R1# config t

R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

d)

R1# config t

R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

85.

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

a)

overlay

b)

northbound

c)

underlay

d)

southbound

86.

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

a)

Configure the version of SSH

b)

Configure VTY access.

c)

Create a user with a password

d)

Assign a DNS domain name

87.

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

a)

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

b)

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

c)

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

d)

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch

88.

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

a)

explicitly assign a link-local address

b)

disable the EUI-64 bit process

c)

enable SLAAC on an interface

d)

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

89.

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

a)

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

b)

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

c)

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between

them.

d)

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

e)

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

90.

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

a)

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

b)

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest

bandwidth.

c)

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

d)

It count the umber of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

91.

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

a)

It provides variable latency

b)

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth

c)

Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

d)

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

92.

which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

a)

ntp master

b)

ntp sever

c)

ntp authenticate

d)

ntp peer

93.

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?

a)

dual algorithm

b)

metric

c)

administrative distance

d)

hop count

94.

which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the internet?

a)

172.9.0.0/16

b)

172.28.0.0/16

c)

192.0.0.0/18

d)

209.165.201.0/24

95.

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols, which route is installed?

a)

route with the lowest cost

b)

route with the shortest prefix length

c)

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

d)

route with the lowest administrative distance

96.

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

service password-encryption

c)

username Cisco password encrypt

d)

enable password

97.

Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol?(choose two)

a)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

Channel-group 10 mode active

b)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

Channel-group 10 mode auto

c)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

Channel-group 10 mode on

d)

interface port-channel 10

no switchport

ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0

e)

interface port-channel 10

switchport

Switchport mode trunk

98.

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

a)

reduced operational costs

b)

reduced hardware footprint

c)

faster changes with more reliable results

d)

fewer network failures

e)

increased network security

99.

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

a)

It manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

b)

It coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

c)

It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

d)

It requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events

100.

what is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

a)

The seventh bit of original MAC address of the interface is inverted

b)

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

c)

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

d)

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

101.

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)

a)

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.

b)

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

c)

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host.

d)

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

e)

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains.

102.

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

a)

on

b)

auto

c)

active

d)

desirable

103.

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

a)

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

b)

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

c)

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

d)

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

104.

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

a)

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

b)

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

c)

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

d)

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

105.

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

a)

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

b)

It drops the traffic

c)

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

d)

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

106.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

a)

TCP use the three-way handshake, and UDP dose no guarantee message delivery

b)

TCP use synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgement packets

c)

UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.

d)

UDP use SYN,SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN,SYN ACK, and ACK bis.

107.

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

a)

Device(config)#lldp run

b)

Device(config)#cdp run

c)

Device(config)# cdp enable

d)

Device(config)# flow-sampler-map topology

108.

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

a)

CPU ACL

b)

TACACS

c)

Flex ACL

d)

RADIUS

109.

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

a)

IKEv2

b)

IKEv1

c)

IPsec

d)

MD5

110.

Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

a)

The interface is not participating in OSPF

b)

A point-to-point network type is configured

c)

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

d)

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

111.

Refer to the exhibit. which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

a)

it belongs to a private IP address range

b)

the router dose not support /28 mask

c)

it is a network IP address

d)

it is a broadcast IP address

112.

Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstation on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. which action corrects the configuration issue?

a)

Add the default-information originate command on R2

b)

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

c)

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

d)

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2