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Worksheets

Grade 7 Revision Sem 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Identify the parts of the cell.
2.
Identify the parts of the cell.
3.
Identify the parts of the cell.
4.
Identify the parts of the cell.
5.

Why do plants need chloroplasts, but animals don’t?

a)

Plants need chloroplast to make its food by taking the enegry from the sun

b)

Plants need chloroplast to see

c)

Plants need chloroplast to swim

d)

Animals need chloroplast to move

6.

Are all Microorganisms Single Celled

a)

Yes

b)

No

7.

Do all living things have single cell

a)

Yes

b)

No

8.

How many cells is a bacteria made of

a)

Many Cells

b)

3 Cells

c)

2 Cells

d)

1 Cells

9.

Select which of the following doesnt have a cell

a)

Rabbits

b)

Fish

c)

Ball

d)

Insects

10.

What is the primary function of mitochondria in cells?

a)

To protect the cell from damage

b)

To produce energy for the cell

c)

To transport nutrients

d)

To store genetic information

11.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

To produce hormones

b)

To control what enters and exits the cell

c)

To provide energy

d)

To store genetic information

12.

Provides support and protection for the cell while also controlling the movement of materials in and out of the cell.

a)

Cellular Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Vacuole

13.

The control center of the cell.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nuclear Membrane

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Golgi Aparatus

14.

Uses energy from the sun to make food for the plant.

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Vacuole

15.

Which organelle controls what goes in and out of the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

cell membrane

d)

nuclear membrane

16.

Which of the following helps us to build muscles and repair damaged tissues?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

fats

c)

proteins

d)

vitamins

17.

Fat helps our body to keep warm.

a)

True

b)

False

18.
Water
a)
Gives us energy
b)
Helps body to absorb fat
c)
Carries nutrients around body
d)
Is not a nutrient
19.

The substances that help the body function properly.………

a)

diet

b)

nutrients

c)

balanced diet

d)

object

20.

Substances in food that provide nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life are called nutrients. What are the 6 nutrients?

a)

Carbohydrates, Meats, Minerals, Water, Protein, and Dairy

b)

Fruits, Milk, Vitamins, Water, Pork, and Vitamins

c)

Carbohydrates, Fats, Water, Protein, Minerals and Vitamins

d)

Carbohydrates, Fats, Minerals, Cheese, Protein, and Vegetables

21.

What nutrient is best represented by this photo?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fat

22.

A great source of vitamin ....... is sunlight.

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

C

d)

D

23.

Deficiency of which nutrient leads to this disease?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin C

24.

"Anaemia" is an illness which is …\ldots

a)

vitamin A deficiency

b)

vitamin C deficiency

c)

vitamin D deficiency

d)

iron minerals deficiency

25.

Which of the following is a ball-and-socket joint?

a)

b)

c)

d)

26.
  • Antagonistic muscles work in pairs so that movement can occur smoothly.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Too much sugar can increase the risk of tooth decay and diabetes.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The hinge joint allows movement in many directions.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Match the right Nutrients to thier functions

a)

Calcium

1.

Strong bones and teeth

b)

Vitamin C

2.

Helps fight diseases Prevents scurvy

c)

Vitamin D

3.

Helps absorb calcium, prevents rickets

d)

Iron

4.

Makes haemoglobin for the blood

e)

Fats

5.

keeps body warm (insulator)

30.

A child exercises regularly but eats very little protein.
Predict the effects on muscle development and growth. ( more than one answer)

a)

The child will be healthy

b)

The child will not grow

c)

The child will have problems with other nutrients

d)

The child will grow slowly

31.

What is the smallest unit of matter?

a)

Cell

b)

Atom

c)

Molecule

d)

Compound

32.

A vacuum contains no particles.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which of the following is a halogen in period 5?

a)

Cl

b)

Br

c)

I

d)

F

34.

Elements in Group 1 are known as _________.

a)

alkali metals

b)

noble gases

c)

halogens

d)

transition metals

35.

Which property is NOT true for metals?

a)

A) Conduct electricity

b)

B) Dull appearance

c)

C) Malleable

d)

D) Strong

36.

Match each alloy to its component metals.

a)

Copper + Tin

1.

Bronze

b)

Copper + Zinc

2.

Brass

c)

Iron + Carbon

3.

Steel

37.

Iron is a metal. Which property does it likely have?

a)

Poor conductor

b)

Dull

c)

Shiny

d)

Brittle

38.

In a mixture, the components are chemically bonded.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is the chemical symbol for Copper?

a)

A) Co

b)

B) Cu

c)

C) C

d)

D) Cr

40.

State one reason why alloys are used instead of pure metals.

a)

They are stronger or do not rust easily.

b)

They are more expensive than pure metals.

c)

They are less durable than pure metals.

d)

They are more likely to corrode than pure metals.

41.

Fill in the blank: Alloys are created to improve properties like _______ or rust resistance.

a)

strength

b)

color

c)

weight

d)

taste

42.

Which element has the symbol 'Na'?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Neon

c)

Sodium

d)

Nickel

43.

Compounds are made of atoms that are:

a)

Physically mixed

b)

Chemically bonded

c)

The same kind

d)

Electrically charged

44.

Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at room temperature.

a)

Ture

b)

False

45.

Which physical properties that help distinguish metals from non-metals.

a)

Shiny and have good conductivity

b)

Dull and good conductiivity

c)

Shiny and bad conductivity

d)

Dull and bad conductivity

46.

Which of the following is a mixture?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Salt

d)

cupcake

47.

Which unit is used to measure energy?

a)

Watt

b)

Newton

c)

Joule

d)

Pascal

48.

Which of the following is an energy store?

a)

Sound energy

b)

Light energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Electrical energy

49.

Which statement best describes energy transfer?

a)

Energy disappears during motion

b)

Energy can be created or destroyed

c)

Energy moves or changes from one form to another

d)

Energy only exists in fuels

50.

The energy stored in food is called ______ energy.

a)

Chemical

b)

Thermal

c)

Kinetic

d)

Nuclear

51.

Which statement best defines energy?

a)

The ability to do work or cause change

b)

Matter that has mass and volume

c)

A force that pushes objects downward

d)

Heat produced by friction

52.

Which statement correctly explains the difference between energy stores and energy transfers?

a)

Stores are forms in which energy remains; transfers are ways energy moves between objects or changes form

b)

Stores and transfers are the same and can be used interchangeably

c)

Transfers are types of energy kept inside fuels; stores are types that move

d)

Transfers are always electrical; stores are always chemical

53.

Why is chemical energy considered easy to store?

a)

It is stably contained in fuels and foods with high energy density

b)

It only exists when objects move

c)

It must be kept at very low temperatures

d)

It can only be stored using magnets

54.

Arrow diagram completion: Chemical energy → ______ energy → ______ energy → Electrical energy. Which option correctly fills the two blanks?

a)

Thermal; Kinetic

b)

Light; Sound

c)

Gravitational; Elastic

d)

Electrical; Chemical

55.

A car is moving uphill. Which energy types are involved? Select all that apply.

a)

Gravitational potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical (fuel)

d)

Sound

56.

A student rolls a toy car down a ramp. What is the energy store at the top?

a)

Gravitational potential

b)

Chemical

c)

Elastic

d)

Thermal

57.

Which energy types are involved in a ringing alarm clock? Select all that apply.

a)

Electrical

b)

Sound

c)

Thermal (as waste)

d)

Gravitational potential

58.

Why is it important to distinguish between stored and transferred energy?

a)

It helps in predicting system changes and identifying useful versus wasted energy

b)

It shows that only kinetic energy matters

c)

It proves electrical energy cannot be stored

d)

It eliminates the need for measurements

59.

Which changes could make energy transfers more efficient in everyday appliances? Select all that apply.

a)

Improve insulation to reduce unwanted heat loss

b)

Increase friction in moving parts

c)

Use LED bulbs instead of incandescent bulbs

d)

Streamline designs to reduce air resistance

60.

After 10 minutes, a candle raises the oil temperature by 10∘C10^{\circ}C . What does this show?

a)

No energy transfer occurred

b)

Chemical energy from the candle transferred as thermal energy to the oil, increasing its temperature

c)

Oil converted to electrical energy

d)

Temperature change proves energy is destroyed

61.

Why do we say thermal energy from a hot engine is 'wasted'?

a)

It increases the engine's speed

b)

It spreads to the surroundings and does not contribute to useful work

c)

It turns into electrical energy immediately

d)

It is stored for later use

62.

A lamp produces 20% light and 80% heat. What is its efficiency for converting electrical energy to light?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

63.

In a motorcycle, which is the useful output and which are typically wasted outputs?

a)

Useful: sound; Wasted: kinetic and light

b)

Useful: kinetic movement; Wasted: sound and heat

c)

Useful: thermal; Wasted: kinetic and chemical

d)

Useful: electrical; Wasted: thermal and light

64.
A sound that bounces off a surface is called an ________.
a)
loud sound
b)
echo
c)
repeat
d)
quiet sound
65.
A back and forth movement of matter
a)
volume
b)
vibration
c)
pitch
d)
frequency
66.
Why is sound able to travel faster through a solid than a gas?
a)
Gas molecules are packed tightly.
b)
Sound does not travel faster through a solid than a gas.
c)
Solid molecules are packed tightly.
d)
Gas molecules move slowly.
67.
Sound does not travel in space because
a)
Space is too far away.
b)
There is no matter in space.
c)
Space is the final frontier
d)
Space has planets.
68.

Sound can travel through....

a)

solids

b)

liquids

c)

gases

d)

all of the above

69.

What do Navy ships use to detect submarines or the ocean floor?

(a)  

70.
CHOOSE THE CORRECT MOON PHASE
a)
FULL MOON
b)
NEW MOON
c)
WAXING GIBBOUS
d)
WAXING CRESCENT
71.
What type of eclipse occurs when the moon blocks the sun's light and cast a shadow on earth?
a)
solar
b)
lunar
72.
What type of eclipse occurs when the earth's shadow is cast on a full moon?
a)
solar
b)
lunar
73.
What type of eclipse is this?
a)
Solar eclipse
b)
Lunar eclipse
74.
What type of eclipse is this?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Lunar Eclipse
75.
What causes tides?
a)
gravity
b)
wind
c)
spring
d)
neap
76.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
77.
Why does the moon's gravitational pull have more of effect on tides than the sun's gravitational pull?
a)
they are the same
b)
the moon is larger than the sun
c)
tides are not caused by the moon
d)
the moon is closer to the Earth than the sun
78.
How many high tides does a place have each day?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
2
79.
What type of tide will occur at 9:30 a.m.?
a)
low 
b)
high 
c)
none
d)
high and low
80.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
81.
Tides are the cycle of rising and falling ocean water that repeats automatically every
a)
24 hours
b)
12.5 hours
c)
25 hours
d)
6.25 hours
82.

What does this illustration tell you about the tides?

a)

There are 4 seasons a month

b)

There are 4 quarters a month

c)

There are 2 spring tides and 2 neap tides a month

d)

There are 4 moon phases a month

83.

What causes a spring tide to have a higher tidal range?

a)

Gravity of Mars adding onto the Moon's gravity

b)

Gravity of the Earth adding onto the Moon's gravity

c)

Gravity of the Sun adding onto the Moon's gravity

d)

Gravity of Sun subtracting from the Moon's gravity

84.
You visited the beach at 12 pm (noon) and it is high tide. If you return 6 hours later what tide will you see? 
a)
high 
b)
low 
c)
none
d)
spring 
85.

Tides are caused by

a)

strong winds that blow over ocean waters.

b)

the gravity of the moon and sun interacting with Earth.

c)

the shifting of the tectonic plates on the ocean floor.

d)

variations in the salinity of ocean water.

86.

Which letter in the diagram identifies the layer of Earth made up of solid nickel and iron?

a)

layer A

b)

layer B

c)

layer C

d)

layer D

87.

Sally is researching the differences that exist in each layer of the Earth. Which of the following best describes Earth's crust?

a)

Solid, rocky

b)

Liquid, metallic

c)

Semisolid, convecting

d)

Dense, extremely hot

88.

Which of Earth's layers is best described as liquid metal?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

89.

What letter in the diagram identifies the layer that is composed of moving continental and oceanic plates?

a)

layer A

b)

layer B

c)

layer C

d)

layer D

90.

What does layer D show?

a)

upper mantle

b)

lower mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

91.

Which of the following correctly lists the layers from innermost to outermost?

a)

inner core, outer core, lower mantle, upper mantle, crust

b)

lower mantle, upper mantle, crust, inner core, outer core

c)

lower mantle, inner core, upper mantle, outer core, crust

d)

crust, inner core, lower mantle, upper mantle, outer core

92.

Many natural events occur in the Pacific Ring of Fire. Based on your knowledge of tectonic plates, what events occur here?

a)

Volcanic eruptions

b)

Mountain ridges

c)

Both volcanic eruptions and mountain ridges

d)

First a volcanic eruption and then formation of mountain ridges

93.

(a)   form with a transform boundary includes tectonic plates moving oppositely.

94.

(a)   form when a convergent boundary includes both continental crusts.

95.

(a)   form when a convergent boundary includes an oceanic crust that sinks.

96.

(a)   are part of the lithosphere, create land, and move by convection currents.

97.

Continental Drift Theory states that all the continents were once part of a supercontinent called (a)   .

98.

Which color would be the innercore?

a)

yellow

b)

orange

c)

red

d)

the earth on the outside

99.

An image of the relative motion at a tectonic plate boundary is provided. What event will occur at the boundary shown?

a)

Mountain Formation

b)

Earthquake

c)

Trench Formation

d)

Volcanic Island Formation

100.

At which type of plate boundary will a trench and volcanoes most likely form?

a)

b)

c)

d)