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Worksheets

Semester 2 Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

2.

Scientists have introduced a gene from another organism (like a jellyfish gene) to the DNA of these organisms that causes them to glow. This is an example of what kind of biotechnology?

a)

artificial selection

b)

genetic engineering

c)

cloning

3.

DNA is a polymer made of nucleotides. What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

4.

Which of the following is a phenotype?

a)

scar

b)

red hair

c)

heterozygous

d)

DNA

5.

Put the parts of the cell in order from largest to smallest.

a)

cell, nucleus, chromosomes, DNA, gene, allele

b)

gene, DNA, chromosomes, nucleus, cell, allele

c)

cell, chromosomes, nucleus, DNA, gene, allele

d)

nucleus, chromosomes, DNA, allele, gene

6.

Given these 2 alleles: B = brown fur & b = white fur, what is the probability for white fur? Refer to the Punnett Square.

Hint: there are 4 squares @ 100% and if you associate it with money there are 4 quarters in 1 dollar which is 100 pennies or 100% of the dollar.

So, each square or quarter of the Punnett Square is worth 25% of the 100%.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

7.

In the Punnett Square shown, what are the genotypes (pair of alleles) from each of the two parents?

a)

RW and RR

b)

RW and WW

c)

RR and WW

d)

RW and RR

8.

Referring to generation 1: What is the allele combination for the dominant homozygous parent?

Hint: both hetero and homo word parts originated from the Greek Language; hetero means "the other of two" and homo means the same.

a)

PP

b)

Pp

c)

pp

9.

Referring to generation 1: What is the allele combination aka genotype for the recessive homozygous parent?

Hint: both hetero and homo word parts originated from the Greek Language; hetero means "the other of two" and homo means the same.

a)

PP

b)

Pp

c)

pp

10.

Guanine bonds with ______________.

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

11.

What determines the code or information of a DNA molecule?

a)

the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases

b)

the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases

c)

the color of the nitrogen bases

d)

the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases

12.

Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

a)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

b)

deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond

c)

deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus

d)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

13.

What will the matching sequence be on a strand that reads AAGCTAT?

a)

AACGATA

b)

TTCGTTA

c)

CCTGATA

d)

TTCGATA

14.

A gene is made up of a series of amino acids that code for a specific ________________. (there are 2 correct answers)

a)

gene

b)

chromosome

c)

trait

d)

protein

15.

A gene is a section of DNA. It is made up of a series of amino acids that code for a specific protein. These four chemicals are represented by: _______________________ (select 2 answers)

a)

AT CG

b)

AT, CH

c)

adenine + thymine, cytosine + guanine

d)

adenine + thymine, cytosine + hydrogen

16.

What forms a genetic code?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

order of nitrogen bases

c)

deoxyribose sugar

d)

uracil

17.

Who studied different characteristics of pea plants by cross-pollinating plants?

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Albert Punnett

c)

Sir Isaac Newton

d)

David Kuster

18.

You might have probably heard about the most common animal hybrid between a female horse and a male donkey, called a mule.

A _____________ organism is offspring that have different alleles for a trait (Bb).

a)

factor

b)

purebred

c)

trait

d)

hybrid

19.

A gene passes from parents to their offspring on ___________________. (select the best answer)

This is also known as "The ____________Theory of Inheritance".

a)

gene(s)

b)

chromosome(s)

c)

trait(s)

d)

protein(s)

20.

How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

21.

According to the Venn Diagram, Mitosis produces ________ _____ daughter cells and Meiosis produces ______ ________ daughter cells.

a)

2 diploid / 4 haploid

b)

4 haploid / 2 diploid

c)

2 haploid / 4 diploid

d)

4 diploid / 2 haploid

22.

The purpose of __________ is for growth and repair.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

23.

Using the acronym PMAT (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase), please indicate which order the images should be in.

a)

A B D C

b)

C A B D

c)

D A B C

d)

B A D C

24.

Chromosomes are visible, nuclear membrane disappears- nucleolus disappears;

Use the image to indicate which phase of the cell cycle Mitosis is in.

Remember the PMAT acronym.

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

25.

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes. Chromosomes line up across the equator or middle of the cell.

Use the image to indicate which phase of the cell cycle Mitosis is in.


Remember the PMAT acronym.

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

26.

Chromosomes divide into two sets. Each half or set is pulled away to opposite sides of the cell.

Use the image to indicate which phase of the cell cycle Mitosis is in.

Remember the PMAT acronym.

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

27.

Two nuclear membranes begin to form. Cells begin to separate.

Use the image to indicate which phase of the cell cycle Mitosis is in.

Remember the PMAT acronym.

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

28.

The graphs show how the number of predators that eat mice predators (animals that eat mice) and the food source of the mice (plants) changed from 1996 to 2002.

Based on this information about predators and food, which year would you predict would have the highest population of mice?

a)

1996

b)

1998

c)

2000

d)

2002

29.

Referring to the graph, what happens to the moose population from 1979 to 1999? Select the best answer.

a)

The moose population increased as the wolf population increased

b)

The moose population increased as the wolf population decreased

c)

The wolf population increased as the moose population increased

d)

The wolf population increased as the moose population decreased

30.

Referring to the graph's year range between 1969 and 1979, what would be a likely reason for the change in population? Select the two that apply.

a)

wolf preyed on moose and decreased their population

b)

the predator decreased the population of it's prey

c)

moose preyed on the wolf and decreased the wolf population

d)

the predator increased the population of it's prey.

31.

Charles Darwin made a voyage known as, "The Voyage of the Beagel". This is when he went to South America to the Galapagos Islands where he identified new species.

Darwin observed that the finches on the Galápagos Islands had little variations from one population to another. Some finches had sharper beaks, while some had thicker beaks.

Darwin collected birds from the Galapagos Islands and nearby islands. He observed that these birds differed slightly form those on the nearby mainland of South America, and the birds on each island were different from the birds on the other islands; he realized they were all finches! Eventually Darwin suggested that these birds may have _________

a)

attacked and eliminated all other species of finches.

b)

evolved (changed over time) from one species of finch.

c)

become extinct

d)

have variations because of genetic engineering.

32.

Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers. The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower. This is an example of ____________.

a)

commensalism

b)

mutualism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

33.

Groups of different populations that live in a given area and interact are called a(n) __________.

a)

Community

b)

Colony

c)

Population

d)

Ecosystem

34.

Which term best describes two predators living in the same habitat who feed on the same prey?

a)

coexistence

b)

competition

c)

mutualism

d)

predatory

35.
_______________ are the living factors in an environment and may include food sources and other populations.
a)
Community
b)
Competition
c)
Biotic factors
d)
Population
36.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
37.
Where an animal lives is called the animal's ______
a)
wildlife
b)
habitat
c)
environment 
d)
carnivore 
38.

A group of organisms of the same species that live in the same habitat is called a (an) ______________.

a)

species

b)

population

c)

community

d)

ecosystem

39.

Overlapping food chains where both abiotic (climate, sunlight, soil, carbon dioxide, … ) & biotic (predator/prey, algae, fungi, plants, …) resources within an ecosystem make up a _______________.

a)

food web

b)

food chain

c)

niche

d)

symbiosis

40.

Preserved remains can be found in ______, amber or tar.

a)

metamorphic rock

b)

igneous rock

c)

frozen in the ice

d)

magma

41.

A petrified fossil is one that was:

a)

frozen in the ice

b)

turned completely into stone

c)

fur and skin

d)

a hollow indention in the rock

42.

If I wanted to make Jell-O eggs for Easter, you would need to pour the Jell-O into a ______ and after a night of chilling, you'd be able to pop out the Jell-O eggs and have a _____ of those eggs.

Hint: think of a cast on a broken arm or leg and, when removed, has the impression of the persons appendage.

a)

preserved remain, petrified fossil

b)

cast, mold

c)

mold, cast

d)

mold, petrified fossil

43.

The remains, imprints, or traces of prehistoric organisms is also known as a _________.

a)

index fossil

b)

fossil

c)

carbon film

d)

relative age

44.

Fossilized tracks and other evidence of the activity of organisms is called __________.

Hint: this is different than a fossil as a fossil is the remains of an organism.

a)

amber

b)

cast

c)

trace fossils

d)

index fossils

45.

Which of the following can be learned by using the fossil record?

a)

When organisms changed or evolved

b)

when organisms appeared on Earth

c)

when organisms became extinct

d)

All the above

46.

Geologists use radioactive dating to ______________.

a)

determine the relative ages of rock layers.

b)

tell the difference between molds and casts.

c)

tell where one soil horizon ends and the next one begins.

d)

determine the absolute ages of rocks.

47.

What are the oldest fossils and why?

a)

B, C- because they are closest to the top

b)

A, B- because they are closest to the bottom

c)

They are all the same age- because they are all found on layer 2

d)

A, B- because they are found closest to the top

48.

What is a mold?


Hint: think about how a person's arm or leg leaves an impression of that appendage if they have a cast and it was removed.

a)

The impression of an organism

b)

Is the preserved evidence of the activity of an organism

c)

A fossil copy of an organism in a rock

d)

A chart that divides Earth’s history into different time units

49.

Humans give off mostly ____________ radiation, which is electromagnetic radiation with a frequency lower than visible light. This effect is not unique to humans. All objects with a non-zero temperature give off thermal radiation, and because a thermal temperature of absolute zero is physically impossible, all objects give off thermal radiation. __________________ waves are only one part of thermal radiation

a)

infrared

b)

ultraviolet

c)

visible

d)

microwave

50.

These waves from the sun cause sunburn and skin cancer.

Hint: think of violent rays.

Thanks Meyshia!

a)

Gamma

b)

Microwaves

c)

Radio

d)

Ultraviolet

51.

Increasing the amplitude of a wave _________ the wave's energy.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

does not change

52.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
53.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
54.

The electromagnetic spectrum is the range of all electromagnetic radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

These waves oscillate in perpendicular planes with respect to each other and are in phase.

The creation of all electromagnetic waves begins with an oscillating charged particle which creates oscillating electric and magnetic fields.

What are electromagnetic waves?

a)

Killer waves to hang ten on brah!

b)

Visible light spectrum

c)

Transversal waves

d)

electric and magnetic fields

56.

In which list are forms of electromagnetic energy arranged in order from longest to shortest wavelength?

a)

Microwave -> Radio wave -> Infrared rays

b)

Visible light -> x-ray -> radio wave

c)

Microwave -> infrared -> visibile light

d)

Infrared -> radio wave -> ultraviolet

57.

Since the primary source of infrared radiation is heat or thermal radiation, any object which has a temperature radiates in the infrared. Even objects that we think of as being very cold, such as an ice cube, emit infrared... . The warmer the object, the more ____________ radiation it emits.

a)

infrared

b)

ultraviolet

c)

visible

d)

microwave

58.

The wavelength of ray waves is..

a)

1012 Hz

b)

1020 Hz

c)

104 Hz

d)

1015 Hz

59.

What happens when light passes through a lens?

a)

It's expanded

b)

It's reflected

c)

It's curved

d)

It's refracted

60.

What is the difference between reflection and refraction?

a)

Light bends when reflected and bounces when refracted

b)

Light travels in curved lines when refracted and travels in straight when reflected

c)

Light no longer travels when refracted

d)

Light bends when refracted and bounces when reflected

61.

Which pictures shows a translucent image?

a)
b)
c)
62.

Which pictures shows a transparent image?

a)
b)
c)
63.

What type of object is shown in the picture?

a)

opaque

b)

transparent

c)

translucent

64.

What type of object is a mirror considered?

a)

opaque

b)

transparent

c)

translucent

65.

What does it mean if an object is transparent?

a)

Light cannot pass through the object.

b)

Light is refracted by the object.

c)

Light passes through the object.

d)

Light is absorbed by the object.

66.

Explain what is happening in the picture.

Remember: a prism is a type of lens.

a)

Light is reflected.

b)

Light is absorbed.

c)

Light is diffused.

d)

Light is refracted.

67.

Why is a blueberry blue?

a)

The blue light is absorbed by the blueberry.

b)

The blueberry absorbs all of the light waves. No light is reflected.

c)

The blueberry absorbs all the light waves but the blue light. The blue light is reflected.

d)

The blueberry is opaque and does not allow for the blue to be absorbed.

68.

A wave is a disturbance that transfers ________________ from one place to another.

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

energy

d)

water

69.

The material through which a wave travels is called the ___________________

a)

medium

b)

substance

c)

disturbance

d)

vacuum

70.

In a _____________________ wave, particles move back and forth in the same direction that the wave travels, or parallel to the wave.

a)

transverse

b)

surface

c)

mechanical

d)

longitudinal

71.

In a ___________________ wave, particles move perpendicular to the direction that the wave travels

a)

transverse

b)

surface

c)

mehcanical

d)

longitudinal

72.

An earthquake has both _______________ and ________________ waves. Select 2 answers.

a)

transverse

b)

surface

c)

mechanical

d)

longitudinal

73.

____________________ waves are transverse waves caused by a disturbance in electric and magnetic fields.

a)

mechanical

b)

surface

c)

electromagnetic

d)

longitudinal

74.

Identify the crest in the following image.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

75.

Identify the wavelength in the following image.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

76.

Identify the trough in the following image.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

77.

Identify the wave height in the following image.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

78.

Identify the amplitude in the following image.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

79.

What type of waves are in the image?

a)

electromagnetic

b)

mechanical

80.

Theses types of waves require a medium to travel through.

a)

mechanical

b)

electromagnetic

81.

If a wave has a greater frequency, what happens to the wavelength?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

82.

If a wave has a greater frequency, what happens to number of waves per second?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

83.

Each wave front expands in a sphere, spreading the energy across a larger area. This means that the energy per unit area of the wave decreases as it moves farther form its source, causing the loudness of the sound wave to decrease. This means that ________________.

Hint: The answer is, literally, in the passage. :)

a)

energy of the wave decreases as it moves farther away from the source.

b)

energy of the wave remains constant as it moves farther away from the source.

c)

energy of the wave increases as it moves farther away from the source.

84.

A ball is projected into the air. Where is potential energy the greatest?

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.

When gasoline is burned in a car engine, ________ energy is converted into _________ energy.

a)

heat, chemical

b)

chemical, potential

c)

mechanical, chemical

d)

chemical, mechanical

86.

Energy cannot be created nor destroyed. It can only be changed from one form to another. This is known as the law of conservation of ___________:

a)

mass

b)

energy

c)

temperature

87.

Mechanical energy is the sum of an object's kinetic energy and potential energy. The energy that a car has while moving is __________________ energy; think of a windmill.

a)

mechanical energy

b)

sound energy

c)

electromagnetic energy

d)

chemical energy

e)

thermal energy and heat

88.

Chemical energy is stored in bonds that hold compounds together. If a molecule's bonds are broken or rearranged, energy is released or absorbed.

Indicate all types of chemical energy:

a)

music

b)

wood giving off light

c)

wood giving off heat

d)

nutrition

e)

photosynthesis

89.

Absolute zero is the temperature at which the motion of particles stops. It is not possible to actually reach absolute zero, though temperatures very close to absolute zero have been reached in laboratories.

What happens at absolute zero?

Remember, the information is in the passage.

a)

All Motions cease

b)

everything turns to a solid

c)

everything dies

d)

who knows?

90.

When you touch something that feels cold,

a)

heat from your hands move into the cold substance.

b)

coldness moves from the cold substance into your hand.

c)

it melts.

d)

it freezes.

91.

Use the chart to indicate the illustrations in order from higher to lower temperatures.

a)

System 1, 2, 1&2

b)

System 2, 1, 1&2

c)

System 1, 1&2, 2

92.

Why do you want to live in a home with good insulation during the cold winter months?

a)

The insulation will keep you cool during winter.

b)

If there is good insulation, the thermal energy will not be able to move easily from inside the warm home to the cool areas outside the building.

c)

If there is not good insulation, the air inside the home will become too hot.

d)

A house with good insulation will keep the warm air in the attic.

93.

Classify: Which type of energy transfer is occurring at each lettered area? Indicate A, B, C order.

a)

conduction, convection, radiation

b)

conduction, radiation, convection

c)

convection, radiation, conduction

d)

convection, conduction, radiation.

94.

Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?

a)

double helix

b)

contains ribose

c)

made of amino acids

d)

contains Uracil

95.

In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of __________.

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

96.

Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.

a)

23, 46

b)

46, 23

c)

2, 4

d)

50, 100

97.

Which statement is true comparing natural selection and artificial selection?

a)

In natural selection, traits benefit humans and in artificial selection, the traits benefit the species

b)

In natural selection, traits benefit the species and in artificial selection, the traits benefit humans

c)

In natural and artificial selection, the process takes hundreds of years to occur

d)

In natural and artificial selection, nature determines what traits will be passed down to offspring.

98.

What is the number of waves that pass a point in one second also known as?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Period

d)

Wavelength

99.

The moon provides little light at night. How does the moon give us light?

a)

It refracts light from the sun

b)

It reflects light from the sun

c)

It's a source of light

d)

It reflects light from earth

100.

1st. There is molecule movement. Faster molecule movement = higher thermometer reading while slower molecule movement = lower thermometer reading.

2nd. ___________ is created.

3rd. A thermometer measures the ________.

a)

Thermometer

b)

Temperature

c)

Heat

d)

All of them