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UNIT 2 EXAM REVIEW

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In DNA adenine pairs with ____.

a)

guanine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

thymine

2.

DNA has a _____ structure.

a)

ring

b)

double ring

c)

helix

d)

double helix

3.

In RNA, uracil pairs with _____.

a)

cytocine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

adenine

4.

The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.

a)

cell

b)

nucleus

c)

nucleotide

d)

ribosome

5.

The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______

a)

translation

b)

transcritption

c)

transendence

d)

replication

6.

The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

transendance

d)

replication

7.

DNA holds the code for

a)

lipids

b)

protein

c)

carbohydrates

d)

sugars

8.

How many codons are needed to specify for five amino acids?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

15

d)

30

9.

Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

CAUCAGU

c)

ACGACTG

d)

CATCAGT

10.

The main function of tRNA is to...

a)

carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins

b)

string together complementary RNA and DNA strands

c)

form a portion of ribosomes

d)

bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes

11.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUG-CCA-GUA-UGA

a)

Met-Pro-Ala-Val

b)

Tyr-Gly-His

c)

Tyr-Gly-Arg-His

d)

Met-Pro-Val-stop

12.

Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:

TGG-CAA-GTA-CGT

a)

ACC-GTT-CAT-GCA

b)

UCC-GUU-CUU-GCU

c)

ACC-GUU-CAU-GCA

d)

UGG-CAA-GUA-CGU

13.

What process is going on in this photo?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

transference

d)

replication

14.

21 nucleotides will provide how many codons?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

15.

Contains the bases adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

both

d)

neither

16.

The longest phase of the cell cycle

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

mitosis

d)

interphase

17.

Identify the phase of mitosis

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

18.

Which phase comes NEXT?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

19.

Which phase is metaphase?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

20.

The point on the chromosome where the two chromatids are held together is the

a)

centromere

b)

centriole

c)

chromosome

d)

chromatid

21.

The structure of coiled DNA and proteins that forms in the cells nucleus prior to mitosis is

a)

centromere

b)

centriole

c)

chromosome

d)

chromatid

22.

The first stage of the cell cycle during which the cell matures and prepares to divide and copies its DNA; The stage the cell stays in the most

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

23.

Contains the genetic material and serves as the control center of the cell

a)

nuclear membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

spindle fibers

d)

telophase

24.

Put the stages of mitosis in the correct order.

a)

anaphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase

b)

telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase

c)

metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase

d)

prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

25.

Chromosomes are made up of two identical sister _____________.

a)

chloroplast

b)

chromosomes

c)

chromatids

d)

genes

26.

During which stage of the cell cycle does the cell spend a majority of its time?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

27.

Which of the following describes the purpose of the mitosis cell cycle?

a)

To make more of the same cells.

b)

For growth and repair.

c)

To prevent the cell from becoming too large.

d)

All of the above.

28.

What is the result of mitosis?

a)

1 genetically different cell

b)

2 genetically different cells

c)

2 genetically identical cells

d)

4 genetically identical cells

29.

What occurs after cytokinesis is completed at the end of meiosis I?

a)

Four haploid cells are formed.

b)

Two diploid cells are formed.

c)

Two haploid cells are formed.

d)

Four diploid cells are formed.

30.

Anna says that the image is of anaphase I, and Louis says the image is of anaphase II. Which statement best describes who is correct?

a)

Anna is correct because the chromosomes are being pulled apart, which happens in anaphase I.

b)

Louis is correct because the chromosomes are being pulled apart in two haploid cells, which indicates anaphase II.

c)

They are both correct because the process of anaphase is the same in meiosis I and meiosis II.

d)

Neither is correct because the chromosomes are being pulled apart, which happens in metaphase.

31.

At which stage(s) in meiosis is DNA condensed into chromosomes?

a)

prophase I only

b)

prophase I and II

c)

metaphase I and II

d)

metaphase II only

32.

What is the female sex cell that results from meiosis?

a)

zygote

b)

sperm

c)

egg

d)

nucleus

33.

What process allows for the development of haploid sex cells?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

fertilization

d)

pollination

34.

Which is a reason why meiosis is important to sexual reproduction?

a)

Meiosis allows a zygote to grow in cell number.

b)

Meiosis doubles the chromosome number in each cell.

c)

Meiosis allows for the exact duplication of cells.

d)

Meiosis allows for genetic differences between parents and offspring.

35.

What would be the main problem with reproduction if meiosis did not take place to form sex cells?

a)

The zygote would have two nuclei.

b)

Fertilization would result in a zygote with half as many chromosomes as the parents.

c)

Fertilization would result in a zygote with twice as many chromosomes as the parents.

d)

The zygote would have no nucleus.

36.

Allison and Greta are discussing mitosis and meiosis. Allison says that body cells such as muscle cells would use mitosis, and Greta says that body cells would use meiosis.

Who is correct?

a)

Allison, because body cells need to be haploid, genetically different copies, which are produced through mitosis

b)

Allison, because body cells need to be diploid, identical copies, which are produced through mitosis

c)

Greta, because body cells need to be haploid, identical copies, which are produced through meiosis

d)

Greta, because body cells need to be diploid, genetically different copies, which are produced through meiosis

37.

Which are true of meiosis but not mitosis? Select three options.

a)

It generates genetically different cells.

b)

It generates haploid cells.

c)

It involves prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

d)

It involves two rounds of nuclear division.

e)

It begins with a diploid cell.

38.

A human cell has 46 chromosomes. At the end of mitosis, there are two cells, each with 46 chromosomes, for a total of 92 chromosomes split between both cells.

Which statement describes meiosis in a human cell?

a)

At the end of meiosis, there are two cells, each with 46 chromosomes, for a total of 92 chromosomes split between both cells.

b)

At the end of meiosis, there are four cells, each with 23 chromosomes, for a total of 92 chromosomes split between the four cells.

c)

At the end of meiosis, there are four cells, each with 46 chromosomes, for a total of 184 chromosomes split between the four cells.

d)

At the end of meiosis, there are two cells, each with 23 chromosomes, for a total of 184 chromosomes split between both cells.

39.

A skin cell should generate an exact copy of itself. Through which process would this occur?

a)

meiosis

b)

telophase

c)

fertilization

d)

mitosis

40.

Which image represents cytokinesis in a plant cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

Which are the main stages of the cell cycle? Select three options.

a)

interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

metaphase

d)

cytokinesis

e)

anaphase

42.

Fred wants to summarize mitosis in the cell cycle. Which statement describes mitosis?

a)

Mitosis includes several steps that occur after the cytoplasm is divided but before the DNA has been copied.

b)

Mitosis includes several steps that occur after the DNA has been copied but before the cytoplasm is divided.

c)

Mitosis is the step in which the cytoplasm is divided.

d)

Mitosis is the step in which the DNA is copied.

43.

Which step of mitosis involves the condensing of DNA into chromosomes?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

44.

Which step of mitosis involves the spindle fibers pulling the chromosomes to opposite ends of the cell?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

45.

Which step of mitosis involves the nucleus splitting and nuclear membranes forming around each new nucleus?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

46.

Which are steps of mitosis? Select 4 options.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

interphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

47.

Which statement best describes the relationship between prophase and telophase?

a)

The spindle fibers bring the chromosomes together in prophase then apart in telophase.

b)

The spindle fibers bring the chromosomes together in prophase then apart in telophase.

c)

The nuclear membrane forms in prophase and breaks down in telophase.

d)

The nuclear membrane forms in telophase and breaks down in prophase.

48.

Jacqueline is trying to draw an image of a cell in telophase. Which describes what she should draw?

a)

a cell with chromosomes together in the nucleus

b)

a cell with two distinct nuclei

c)

a cell with chromosomes pulling apart

d)

a cell with chromosomes lined up in the middle

49.

Which statement compares what happens in metaphase and anaphase?

a)

The spindle fibers bring the chromosomes together and then pull them apart.

b)

The spindle fibers pull the chromosomes apart and then bring them together.

c)

The chromosomes condense and then unravel.

d)

The chromosomes unravel and then condense.

50.

Which characteristic of a protein may change during a DNA mutation?

a)

hardness

b)

color

c)

texture

d)

shape

51.

Which is an example of a deletion mutation that results in a new protein?

a)

CAT - CGA - TCC mutates to CAC - TCG - ATC - C

b)

AAT - CGG - CCA mutates to AAC - CGG - CCA

c)

AAT - CGG - CCA mutates to AAT - CGG - AAT - CCA

d)

CAT - CGA - TCC mutates to CAT - TCC

52.

Which is an example of an insertion mutation that changes all of the amino acids that follow the mutation?

a)

CAG - TTC - ACG mutates to CAG - TTA - CAC - G

b)

CAG - TTC - ACG mutates to CAG - TTC - ACC - ACG

c)

TAC - CAT - GGC mutates to AAC - CAT - GGC

d)

TAC - CAT - GGC mutates to TAC - CAT - GG

53.

Which is an example of a substitution mutation?

a)

CAG - TTA - CAC mutates to CAG - GAC - TTA - CAC

b)

CAG - TTA - CAC mutates to CAG - TTA - CAC - AT

c)

CAT - GGC - TAC mutates to CAT - GGC - TAG

d)

CAT - GGC - TAC mutates to ATG - GCT - AC

54.

As a result of a mutation, the DNA sequence AGT - TGA - CAT changes to AAT - TGA - CAT.

Which best describes the mutation?

a)

It is a substitution in which the DNA base, G, was replaced with a different DNA base, A.

b)

It is a deletion in which the DNA base, G, was replaced with a different DNA base, A.

c)

It is a substitution in which three DNA bases, AGT, were replaced with three different DNA bases, AAT.

d)

It is a deletion in which three DNA bases, AGT, were replaced with three different DNA bases, AAT.

55.

Which is an example of a beneficial mutation?

a)

one that changes the color of a rabbit, allowing it to hide from predators.

b)

one that results in lighter flower petal colors without changing the plant’s ability to reproduce

c)

one that causes a person’s body to produce thick mucus that clogs the lungs

d)

one that makes it easier for a corn plant to contract a disease

56.

A mutation causes a dog to be born with a tail that is shorter than normal.

Which best describes this mutation?

a)

It is harmful because it obviously affects the dog’s survival.

b)

It is harmful because it affects the dog’s physical appearance.

c)

It is neutral because it does not obviously affect the dog’s survival.

d)

It is beneficial because it affects the dog’s physical appearance.

57.

A mutation can cause a defect in human hemoglobin. Which would result in this type of mutation?

a)

decreased ability to carry oxygen

b)

development of cancerous tumors

c)

inability to break down sugar

d)

development of bacterial infections

58.

Which best shows a harmful effect of a mutation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.

Which best summarizes the effects of mutations on organisms?

a)

Mutations are sometimes helpful, sometimes harmful, and sometimes neutral.

b)

Mutations are usually harmful, sometimes neutral, and never helpful.

c)

Mutations are sometimes neutral, sometimes helpful, and never harmful.

d)

Mutations are always harmful, never helpful, and never neutral.

60.

What effects do mutations have? Check all that apply.

a)

could change protein shape

b)

never change protein shape

c)

might be neutral

d)

might be harmful

e)

might be beneficial

61.

Before DNA was discovered, in which materials did scientists think the genetic material was stored?proteins

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

nucleic acids

d)

lipids

62.

Which two scientists worked together to develop a three-dimensional model of DNA?

a)

Miescher and Wilkins

b)

Crick and Miescher

c)

Franklin and Watson

d)

Watson and Crick

63.

Which best summarizes the scientific process that led to our current understanding of DNA?

a)

Each scientist made an important, but unrelated, contribution.

b)

Scientists built on the previous work of other scientists to make new discoveries.

c)

Most of the discoveries were made by chance and did not depend on prior knowledge.

d)

The most important contributions were made within the same time period of the late 1800s.

64.

Which substances compose the backbone of DNA?

a)

sugars and lipids

b)

phosphates and amino acids

c)

sugars and phosphates

d)

lipids and proteins

65.

Which best describes the storage of the genetic code?

a)

A gene is a segment of DNA, a condensed DNA molecule makes up a chromosome, a chromosome is inside a nucleus, and a nucleus is contained within a cell.

b)

A DNA molecule is a segment of a gene, a gene makes up a chromosome, a chromosome is inside a cell, and a cell is contained within a nucleus.

c)

A gene is a segment of a chromosome, a condensed chromosome makes up a DNA molecule, a DNA molecule is inside a nucleus, and a nucleus is contained within a cell.

d)

A DNA molecule is a segment of a chromosome, a chromosome makes up a gene, a gene is inside a cell, and a cell is contained within a nucleus.

66.

Which label best represents the area marked Y?

a)

chromosome

b)

protein

c)

gene

d)

DNA

67.

Which best describes how DNA fits inside a cell nucleus?

a)

DNA folds into stacked layers called chromatin, which then squeeze into the nucleus.

b)

DNA is double-stranded, so one strand is inside the nucleus and the other wraps around the nucleus.

c)

DNA tightly coils around proteins and condenses into chromosomes, which fit in the nucleus.

d)

DNA is naturally much smaller than the cell nucleus so it easily fits inside the nucleus.

68.

Which characteristics describe the genetic code of humans? Select three options.

a)

can help in development of effective medications

b)

can only help understand human genetics

c)

can help explain genetic diseases

d)

composed of about 19,000 genes

e)

composed of 23 chromosomes

69.

What causes the differences in physical characteristics like hair color among people?

a)

different versions of genes

b)

variations in DNA length

c)

different numbers of chromosomes

d)

variations in cell nucleus size

70.

Which best compares DNA and RNA with regard to the process of protein production?

a)

DNA transforms from a nucleic acid into a protein, and RNA remains a nucleic acid.

b)

RNA transforms from a nucleic acid into a protein, and DNA remains a nucleic acid.

c)

DNA leaves the nucleus during the process and RNA remains in the nucleus.

d)

RNA leaves the nucleus during the process and DNA remains in the nucleus.

71.

What are the building blocks of proteins?

a)

amino acids

b)

ribosomes

c)

tRNA molecules

d)

chromosomes

72.

What is the twisted ladder shape of the DNA called?

a)

3-D model

b)

nucleotides

c)

double helix

d)

single strand

73.

A gardener wants to grow plants with large purple flowers. She crosses two parent plants that have large purple flowers in order to produce the desired trait in the offspring. Which best describes this scenario?

a)

genetic engineering

b)

gene therapy

c)

cloning

d)

selective breeding

74.

Janelle thinks that genetic engineering could be used to make a larger fruit rather than cloning the fruit. Which would best support her point of view?

a)

Genetic engineering does not cost as much.

b)

Genetic engineering does not result in genetically identical organisms.

c)

Genetically engineered foods never cause allergies in people.

d)

Genetically engineered foods have not been modified.

75.

Bipalium kewense is a species of flatworm that can reproduce sexually; however, instead it usually breaks into two pieces, each of which becomes a fully functioning adult.

What is the main method of reproduction for these flatworms?

a)

binary fission

b)

fragmentation

c)

sporulation

d)

fertilization

76.

A teacher makes a Venn diagram to compare asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction. Which label belongs in the region marked X?

a)

Produces offspring

b)

Involves meiosis

c)

Requires spores

d)

Requires eggs

77.

This cell is undergoing a step of meiosis I. What step is the cell in?

a)

the beginning of prophase I

b)

the middle of metaphase I

c)

the end of anaphase I

d)

the middle of telophase I

78.

Snails have a diploid chromosome number of 22. After meiosis, the snail’s sperm or egg would have 11 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would the zygote have after fertilization?

a)

11

b)

22

c)

33

d)

46

79.

Which image represents cytokinesis in a plant cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.

Examine the images of a plant cell in the different stages of mitosis. Which lists the steps in the correct order?

a)

W, X, Y, Z

b)

W, Z, X, Y

c)

Z, W, Y, X

d)

Z, Y, W, X

81.

A person with a bacterial infection is taking amoxicillin, which is an antibiotic. The bacteria that are causing the infection have mutated and fight off the amoxicillin. Which best summarizes this mutation?

a)

It is beneficial to the person and harmful to the bacteria.

b)

It is harmful to the person and beneficial to the bacteria.

c)

It is beneficial to the person and to the bacteria.

d)

It is harmful to the person and to the bacteria.

82.

The diagram shows a section of DNA. What is the arrow labeled X pointing to?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

83.

Which occurs during both DNA replication and protein production?

a)

RNA leaves the nucleus.

b)

DNA leaves the nucleus.

c)

DNA unzips.

d)

RNA unzips.

84.

A scientist takes a cell from one cow and an egg from a second cow. The scientist removes the DNA from the egg and replaces it with the DNA from the first cow. The scientist’s goal is to produce a baby cow with DNA that is identical to the first cow. Which best describes this scenario?

a)

genetic engineering

b)

genetic engineering

c)

cloning

d)

selective breeding

85.

A researcher changes the DNA in a soybean plant so that it produces offspring with a resistance to weed killer. Which best describes this scenario?

a)

genetic engineering

b)

gene therapy

c)

cloning

d)

selective breeding

86.

Which best compares genetic engineering and cloning of animals?

a)

Both result in offspring with a single, specific desirable trait.

b)

Both result in offspring that are genetically identical to the original organism.

c)

Both require that DNA be manipulated in some way.

d)

Both require that only females are used in the process.

87.

The diagram shows a process used to produce apple trees with the desired trait of sweeter fruits. Which labels should be used to complete the diagram?

a)

X: Enzymes

Y: Apple tree DNA

b)

X: Enzymes

Y: Gene for sweeter fruit

c)

X: Apple tree DNA

Y: Gene for sweeter fruit

d)

X: Gene for sweeter fruit

Y: Apple tree DNA

88.

In recent years, a certain area of the world has experienced greater shifts in weather patterns. For example, there are many nights during which the temperature gets below freezing, but many days that are very warm. These shifts have made it difficult to grow and harvest crops. Which advantage of genetic technology would be most helpful in solving this problem?

a)

increased nutritional value of crops

b)

increased resistance to environmental factors

c)

greater resistance to crop-killing diseases

d)

greater resistance to insecticides

89.

Which structure carries instructions for producing the proteins that help make a person’s hair curly?

a)

phosphate

b)

deoxyribose

c)

lipid

d)

gene

90.

Shira listed the steps for protein production in cells. Which step is missing?

1. A strand of RNA is made.

2. RNA leaves the nucleus.

3. RNA moves to the ribosome.

4. A protein is made.

a)

DNA unzips after step 1.

b)

DNA unzips before step 1.

c)

DNA is replicated after step 3.

d)

DNA is replicated before step 3.

91.

A DNA sequence is shown.

CTG - GAG - CAT

Which sequences show the result of an insertion mutation in the DNA? Choose 2

a)

CTG - GGC - AT

b)

CTG - TAT - CAT

c)

TTG - GAG - CAT

d)

CTA - GGA - GCA - T

e)

CTG - GAG - TCG - AT

92.

Rosa drew a diagram to compare substitution mutations and insertion mutations. Which label belongs in the area marked "Y"?

a)

may change the type of amino acid

b)

decreases the number of bases in the sequence

c)

never changes the type of amino acid

d)

increases the number of bases in the sequence

93.

A mutation causes a tomato plant to have much fewer, smaller leaves. Plants use their leaves to make food. Which best describes this mutation?

a)

It is harmful because it obviously affects the plant’s ability to survive.

b)

It is beneficial because it affects the plant’s physical appearance.

c)

It is neutral because it does not obviously affect the plant’s ability to survive.

d)

It is neutral because it affects the plant’s physical appearance.

94.

Examine the diagram of the cell cycle.

Which label identifies the stage in which the DNA is copied and the cell grows?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

95.

Examine the diagram of the cell cycle. Which label identifies the step labeled W?

a)

Anaphase: chromosomes thicken

b)

Metaphase: chromosomes thicken

c)

Anaphase: chromosomes are pulled apart

d)

Metaphase: chromosomes are pulled apart

96.

A female blue jay is generating an egg cell for reproduction. Through which process does the egg cell form?

a)

meiosis

b)

prophase

c)

fertilization

d)

mitosis

97.

Which statement describes a similarity between asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction?

a)

Both processes involve fertilization.

b)

Both processes involve cell division.

c)

Both processes produce genetically identical offspring.

d)

Both processes require two parents.

98.

Chimpanzees reproduce sexually, and sponges reproduce asexually. What disadvantage do chimpanzees have compared to sponges?

a)

Chimpanzees’ offspring have differences in their DNA.

b)

Chimpanzees require less energy to make offspring.

c)

Chimpanzees reproduce more slowly.

d)

Chimpanzees’ offspring have to fight harder for resources.