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Biology Fall Final Review 2025

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines an independent variable in an experiment?

a)

Factor kept the same across all groups

b)

Baseline condition used for comparison only

c)

Factor changed on purpose by the researcher

d)

Factor measured as the outcome effect

2.

In a typical graph of experimental results, which variable is placed on the y-axis?

a)

Constant held unchanged

b)

Control group baseline

c)

Independent variable manipulated

d)

Dependent variable measured

3.

What is the primary role of a control group?

a)

Eliminates the need for constants

b)

Contains all manipulated variables

c)

Serves as the baseline for comparison

d)

Provides the measured outcome

4.

Which description best matches a hypothesis?

a)

Unchangeable factor in every trial

b)

Testable scientific explanation

c)

Final conclusion after data analysis

d)

Measured response variable

5.

During an osmosis egg lab, students use plain water while other groups add salt solutions. What is the independent variable?

a)

Type of solution added

b)

Temperature kept constant

c)

Mass of the egg measured

d)

Presence of a control group

6.

Which scenario correctly identifies the dependent variable?

a)

Soil type kept the same

b)

Growth rate recorded over time

c)

Students select plant species

d)

Researcher changes light intensity

7.

Why are constants necessary in an experiment?

a)

They provide the outcome effect

b)

They isolate the cause being tested

c)

They change between treatments

d)

They replace the control group

8.

A student states, “If fertilizer concentration increases, then tomato height will increase.” What element of experimental design is this?

a)

List of experimental constants

b)

Description of a dependent variable

c)

Hypothesis predicting results

d)

Control group statement

9.

Which tool is best for accurately measuring 25 mL of liquid in a biology lab?

a)

Beaker for rough volume

b)

Graduated cylinder precise

c)

Balance for mass only

d)

Thermometer for temperature

10.

When concluding an experiment, what should the conclusion always refer back to?

a)

Names of group members

b)

Set of measurement tools

c)

Original hypothesis tested

d)

List of controlled constants

11.

Which setup demonstrates a valid control group when testing the effect of caffeine on heart rate?

a)

Participants drink water

b)

Participants choose dosages

c)

Participants exercise first

d)

Participants switch brands

12.

Which lab glassware is best for precise liquid measurement during experiments?

a)

Erlenmeyer flask for swirling

b)

Graduated cylinder for measurement

c)

Test tube for small reactions

d)

Beaker for approximate mixing

13.

A beaker is primarily used for which task in a biology lab?

a)

Measuring mass precisely

b)

Heating genetic material

c)

Mixing and rough volumes

d)

Exact volume measurement

14.

Test tubes are most appropriate for which scenario?

a)

Running small-scale reactions

b)

Recording long-term data

c)

Weighing powdered samples

d)

Titrating precise volumes

15.

Which glassware is most accurate for volume measurement?

a)

Flask with conical shape

b)

Graduated cylinder with markings

c)

Test tube with narrow body

d)

Beaker with wide opening

16.

Why must graph axes include unit labels?

a)

To make lines straighter

b)

To increase the number of points

c)

To reduce measurement errors

d)

To clarify what quantities mean

17.

On a line graph of enzyme activity versus temperature, which axis should show temperature with units?

a)

Y-axis showing temperature

b)

X-axis showing temperature

c)

Legend showing temperature

d)

Title showing temperature

18.

Which macromolecule typically provides quick energy at about 4 calories per gram?

a)

Proteins for muscle contraction

b)

Lipids for long-term energy

c)

Nucleic acids for information

d)

Carbohydrates for quick energy

19.

What is the monomer of proteins that forms enzymes?

a)

Monosaccharides units

b)

Amino acids subunits

c)

Nucleotides bases

d)

Fatty acids chains

20.

Which macromolecule has the highest energy yield around 9 calories per gram?

a)

Lipids with fatty acids

b)

Proteins with enzymes

c)

Nucleic acids like DNA

d)

Carbohydrates like starch

21.

Which macromolecule stores genetic information?

a)

Proteins in muscles

b)

Lipids in membranes

c)

Carbohydrates like glucose

d)

Nucleic acids like DNA

22.

Which macromolecule is digested first for energy in most diets?

a)

Lipids for long-term reserve

b)

Proteins for structure roles

c)

Carbohydrates for quick fuel

d)

Nucleic acids for heredity

23.

Which macromolecule directly enables muscle contraction and forms enzymes?

a)

Carbohydrates providing energy

b)

Lipids storing fatty acids

c)

Proteins built from amino acids

d)

Nucleic acids storing genes

24.

Which macromolecule has many cellular roles but is not mainly used for energy?

a)

Lipids for long-term storage

b)

Carbohydrates for rapid energy

c)

Proteins for diverse functions

d)

Nucleic acids for information

25.

Which organelle primarily produces ATP for the cell?

a)

Mitochondria perform cellular respiration to make ATP

b)

Lysosome releases ATP during waste digestion

c)

Nucleus generates genetic code for energy

d)

Cell membrane pumps ATP across lipid bilayer

26.

Which structure controls what enters and leaves the cell?

a)

Flagella block unwanted molecules at surface

b)

Cell membrane forms selective permeability barrier

c)

Mitochondria regulate membrane channels

d)

Nucleus manages cytoplasm traffic directly

27.

Which organelle digests worn‑out parts and foreign material?

a)

Nucleus recycles proteins with ribosomes

b)

Flagella sweep debris into vacuoles

c)

Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzymes for breakdown

d)

Mitochondria oxidize debris into ATP

28.

Which structure primarily moves a cell through fluid?

a)

Lysosomes push the membrane forward

b)

Nucleus directs motion via pores

c)

Flagella act as propelling whip‑like appendages

d)

Mitochondria rotate the cytoskeleton

29.

Which structure stores DNA in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotes?

a)

Cell membrane packages DNA into vesicles

b)

Flagella carry DNA in their microtubules

c)

Mitochondria house all genetic material

d)

Nucleus encloses chromosomes in a membrane

30.

Which principle of cell theory states that all organisms are composed of cells?

a)

All living things are made of cells

b)

Cells are the basic unit of life

c)

All cells come from preexisting cells

d)

Cells arise spontaneously from chemicals

31.

Which principle explains why a scraped knee heals over time?

a)

All living things are made of cells

b)

All cells come from preexisting cells

c)

Cells function only when specialized

d)

Cells are the basic unit of life

32.

Which statement describes the basic unit of life?

a)

Membranes are the primary living unit

b)

Tissues are the smallest living structures

c)

Cells are the fundamental unit of life

d)

Organelles are independent living organisms

33.

Which scientist first observed cork cells under a microscope?

a)

Louis Pasteur using fermentation studies

b)

Robert Hooke using early compound microscopes

c)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek with hand‑built lenses

d)

Theodor Schwann investigating animal tissues

34.

A cell increases ATP demand during exercise. Which organelle’s activity should rise first?

a)

Nucleus initiating mitosis for energy

b)

Cell membrane thickening to store ATP

c)

Mitochondria boosting cellular respiration

d)

Lysosomes accelerating macromolecule digestion

35.

If a cell’s lysosomes are defective, which outcome is most likely?

a)

Complete halt of ATP production immediately

b)

Loss of DNA from the nucleus membrane

c)

Membrane becomes fully impermeable

d)

Accumulation of waste and damaged organelles

36.

A bacterium swims rapidly. Which structure most directly causes this movement?

a)

Multiple nuclei driving locomotion signals

b)

Mitochondria powering flagellar rotation directly

c)

Flagella propelling the cell through liquid

d)

Cell membrane forming cilia for propulsion

37.

Which feature distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

a)

Presence of a membrane‑bound nucleus

b)

Entire absence of a cell membrane

c)

Ability to digest waste using lysosomes

d)

Exclusive possession of mitochondria always

38.

Which choice best links an organelle to its function?

a)

Cell membrane — stores all genetic material

b)

Mitochondria — produce ATP via respiration

c)

Nucleus — controls traffic across membrane

d)

Flagella — digest worn‑out cellular parts

39.

Which statement best defines diffusion in cells?

a)

Passive movement of small molecules down gradient

b)

Active pumping of ions against concentration gradient

c)

Bulk vesicle transport bringing materials into cell

d)

Selective passage of water through protein channels

40.

What is osmosis?

a)

Passive movement of water across a membrane

b)

Active transport of glucose using ATP energy

c)

Endocytosis of large particles into the cytoplasm

d)

Exocytosis releasing proteins to extracellular space

41.

Which transport process requires ATP to move substances against a gradient?

a)

Facilitated diffusion via carrier proteins

b)

Active transport across the plasma membrane

c)

Osmosis through aquaporin channels

d)

Diffusion through the lipid bilayer

42.

A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will most likely

a)

Rapidly exocytose solutes to balance

b)

Gain water and swell over time

c)

Remain stable with no net change

d)

Lose water and shrink significantly

43.

A cell in a hypertonic solution tends to

a)

Lose water and shrink in volume

b)

Absorb solutes via passive diffusion

c)

Gain water and swell noticeably

d)

Stay unchanged due to equal solutes

44.

In an isotonic environment, a cell will

a)

Use ATP to force water inward

b)

Lose water until cytoplasm collapses

c)

Gain water until the membrane bursts

d)

Maintain stable volume with no net water flow

45.

Which statement best describes endocytosis?

a)

Water movement through semipermeable membranes

b)

Release of cellular products to extracellular space

c)

Passive movement of gases across phospholipids

d)

Energy-using process bringing materials into cell

46.

Which process is defined as exocytosis?

a)

Carrier-mediated movement without ATP usage

b)

Water diffusion across a semipermeable barrier

c)

Passive entry of ions following concentration gradient

d)

Energy-dependent expulsion of materials from cell

47.

Stem cells are unique because they

a)

Have impermeable membranes to solutes

b)

Contain more mitochondria than other cells

c)

Are undifferentiated and can specialize

d)

Always divide by meiosis in adult tissues

48.

Which scenario shows diffusion rather than osmosis?

a)

Oxygen moving from high to low concentration

b)

Water entering a vacuole through aquaporins

c)

A vesicle fusing to release hormones

d)

Sodium pumped inward using ATP energy

49.

A scientist places red blood cells in a solution with lower solute concentration than the cytoplasm. Predict the outcome.

a)

Cells remain unchanged due to equality

b)

Cells actively pump water to maintain

c)

Cells shrink as water exits cytoplasm

d)

Cells swell as water enters by osmosis

50.

Which choice correctly contrasts passive transport with active transport?

a)

Passive targets macromolecules; active targets water

b)

Passive does not require ATP; active does

c)

Passive uses vesicles; active uses channels

d)

Passive moves up gradient; active moves down

51.

Which statement best defines an enzyme in cellular reactions?

a)

Carrier that stores energy released by reactions

b)

Molecule that raises activation energy for reactions

c)

Protein catalyst that lowers activation energy

d)

Reactant consumed to start a chemical reaction

52.

What is activation energy in a chemical reaction?

a)

Energy stored inside the enzyme

b)

Energy needed to start the reaction

c)

Energy released when bonds form

d)

Energy absorbed by endothermic products

53.

In enzyme activity, what is a substrate?

a)

Reactant the enzyme acts on

b)

Energy carrier for the reaction

c)

Protein that shapes the active site

d)

Product formed after catalysis

54.

Which description matches the lock-and-key model of enzymes?

a)

Substrate fits the enzyme's active site

b)

Active site binds every molecule equally

c)

Enzyme changes shape randomly each time

d)

Substrate breaks the enzyme permanently

55.

Which process absorbs energy overall?

a)

Endothermic reaction

b)

Activation energy step

c)

Exothermic reaction

d)

Catalyzed reaction

56.

Which process releases energy overall?

a)

Exothermic reaction

b)

Endothermic reaction

c)

Lock-and-key fitting

d)

Substrate binding

57.

A student claims enzymes speed reactions by supplying energy. What is the correct explanation?

a)

They store energy for the products

b)

They lower the activation energy needed

c)

They provide heat to the solution

d)

They raise the energy of reactants

58.

If activation energy is lowered, what most likely happens to reaction rate?

a)

It increases under the same conditions

b)

It decreases significantly

c)

It stops after initial binding

d)

It stays exactly the same

59.

Which scenario best illustrates the lock-and-key model?

a)

Enzyme melts to fit multiple substrates

b)

Substrates attach anywhere on the protein

c)

Any molecule can bind any enzyme surface

d)

Only a specific substrate binds the active site

60.

Which statement distinguishes endothermic from exothermic reactions?

a)

Endothermic release more energy than absorbed

b)

Endothermic absorb more energy than released

c)

Exothermic cannot be catalyzed by enzymes

d)

Exothermic require higher activation energy

61.

Which input is required for photosynthesis besides carbon dioxide and water?

a)

Heat from mitochondria

b)

Light energy from sunlight

c)

Nitrogen gas from air

d)

ATP energy from glucose

62.

Which process releases energy for cellular work?

a)

Cellular respiration in mitochondria

b)

Fermentation in chloroplasts

c)

Photosynthesis in chloroplasts

d)

Transpiration in stomata

63.

Which outputs are produced by photosynthesis?

a)

Glucose and oxygen

b)

ATP and water

c)

Carbon dioxide and heat

d)

Nitrogen and proteins

64.

Which process produces water as a byproduct?

a)

Photolysis only

b)

Photosynthesis in leaves

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Nitrogen fixation

65.

Which term describes organisms that make their own food?

a)

Consumer organisms

b)

Producer organisms

c)

Detritivore animals

d)

Parasite organisms

66.

What do plants take in for photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Proteins and minerals

c)

Oxygen and ATP

d)

Glucose and nitrogen

67.

Which term best matches “must consume others for energy”?

a)

Phototroph organisms

b)

Chemotroph organisms

c)

Heterotroph organisms

d)

Autotroph organisms

68.

Which statement about energy roles is correct?

a)

Photosynthesis releases energy as heat

b)

Respiration stores light energy

c)

Photosynthesis stores chemical energy

d)

Respiration creates glucose molecules

69.

In an energy pyramid, which trophic level has the least available energy?

a)

Primary consumers next

b)

Primary producers at base

c)

Secondary consumers above

d)

Top predators at apex

70.

Why are top predators few in number compared to lower levels?

a)

Energy increases at higher levels

b)

Energy is lost between levels

c)

Energy cycles without loss

d)

Energy is stored only by predators

71.

Which pair correctly matches process inputs with outputs?

a)

Photosynthesis: O2 to CO2

b)

Respiration: CO2 to glucose

c)

Respiration: glucose to ATP

d)

Photosynthesis: glucose to ATP

72.

Which definition matches trophic level?

a)

Role of decomposers

b)

Rate of energy transfer

c)

Total mass of ecosystems

d)

Feeding level in food webs

73.

Which term describes the total mass of organisms in a given area?

a)

Trophic mass level

b)

Biomass of a community

c)

Producer capacity index

d)

Energy density value

74.

If frogs are removed from a pond food web, what is a likely immediate effect?

a)

No change in energy transfer

b)

Increase in snake populations

c)

Decrease in insect populations

d)

Increase in algae biomass

75.

Introducing a new producer species most directly affects which factor first?

a)

Biomass at the base

b)

Predator birth rates

c)

Oxygen demand in fish

d)

ATP in consumers

76.

Which statement compares photosynthesis and respiration accurately?

a)

Photosynthesis and respiration make oxygen

b)

Both release energy as heat

c)

Both convert ATP to glucose

d)

Photosynthesis stores, respiration releases

77.

Which molecule is a direct energy currency produced by respiration?

a)

ATP molecules

b)

Glucose sugar

c)

Oxygen gas

d)

Carbon dioxide

78.

What role do producers play in energy flow?

a)

Release ATP directly to predators

b)

Consume other organisms

c)

Recycle nitrogen into glucose

d)

Convert light into chemical energy

79.

Which input is NOT required for cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose molecules

b)

Light energy

c)

Enzymes in cells

d)

Oxygen gas

80.

Which misconception is corrected by energy pyramids?

a)

Energy is infinite in ecosystems

b)

Energy is equal across all levels

c)

Energy decreases up the pyramid

d)

Energy is gained at higher levels

81.

In an energy pyramid, if Level 2 has 500,000 kcal, how much energy entered at producers?

a)

5,000 kcal

b)

50,000 kcal

c)

5,000,000 kcal

d)

500,000 kcal

82.

Which term best describes using senses or measurement tools to gather data?

a)

Theory

b)

Observation

c)

Inference

d)

Bias

83.

A student notes clouds darken, then predicts rain soon. What is the prediction based on?

a)

Logical inference

b)

Scientific law

c)

Direct observation

d)

Personal bias

84.

Which statement defines bias in scientific work?

a)

Logical interpretation

b)

Evidence-based explanation

c)

Consistent natural pattern

d)

Personal preference influence

85.

Which option best describes a scientific theory?

a)

Well-supported explanation

b)

Single observation report

c)

Personal opinion statement

d)

Rule proven without exceptions

86.

What does a scientific law primarily describe?

a)

Why a process happens

b)

Consistent observed pattern

c)

Temporary research idea

d)

Personal belief system

87.

Level 3 of an energy pyramid receives 50,000 kcal. Estimate energy at Level 1 producers assuming ~10% transfer per level.

a)

50,000 kcal

b)

5,000 kcal

c)

500,000 kcal

d)

5,000,000 kcal

88.

A lab result conflicts with previous findings. What should scientists do first?

a)

Ignore the new data

b)

Repeat and verify tests

c)

Change all theories immediately

d)

Publish without review

89.

Why do theories not “become” laws?

a)

Laws require less evidence

b)

They serve different purposes

c)

Theories are always wrong

d)

Laws explain causes deeply

90.

Which water property enables hydrogen bonding between molecules?

a)

Complete neutrality

b)

Nonpolarity of water

c)

High ionic strength

d)

Polarity of molecules