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Audit Revision # 2

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following which is not fraud-related Audit Procedures :

a)

Test of detail of cash balances

b)

Proof of cash

c)

Test of kiting

d)

Test of lapping

2.

What assertion of "To ensure that there is no unrecorded cash"

a)

Existence

b)

Cut-off

c)

Detail tie-in

d)

Completeness

3.

Cash is more susceptible to theft; therefore, there is high inherent risk for the (), (), and () objectives except:

a)

Existence

b)

Completeness

c)

Cut-off

d)

Accuracy

4.

The following which is internal controls:

a)

Inherent risks

b)

Cash receipts and payments

c)

Test of details of cash balances

d)

Test of lapping

5.

What assertion for “Examine a sample of cash receipts and payments transactions for proper classification.”

a)

Classification

b)

Existence

c)

Valuation

d)

Completeness

6.

Companies may purchase marketable securities as a way to temporarily invest excess cash

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Examples of cash equivalents include time deposits, certificates of deposit, and marketable securities

a)

True

b)

False

8.

__________by the client subsequent to the balance sheet date, but recorded as cash receipts in the current year

a)

Deposit

b)

Payments

c)

Cash received

d)

Bank balance

9.

Evaluations of financial information made through analysis of plausible relationships among both financial and non financial data is the meaning of:

a)

Analytical procedures

b)

Assertions

c)

Cash equivalents

d)

Confirmation

10.

Purpose Of Auditing The Cash And Bank Balances

a)

To determine all cash received is properly recorded

b)

To ensure all disbursements are properly authorized and documented

c)

To recorded cash balances matches cash on hand or on deposit

d)

All above

11.

_____ is the transferring of money from one bank to another and incorrectly recording the transaction

a)

Transfer

b)

Flipping

c)

Frauding

d)

Kiting

12.

Which of the following procedures may uncover fraud in the cash receipts area?

a)

None of the above

b)

Deleting the receipts

c)

Aging of receipts

d)

Tests to detect lapping

13.

Select the correct match:

a)

Occurance- Select samples of cash receipts from cash book and trace to remittance advices, pay-in slips and bank statement

b)

Completeness- Trace a sample of remittance advices and pay-in slip to cash receipt journal

c)

Valuation- Agree the adjusted book balance on the cash account lead scheudule

d)

Accuracy- Agree the total of cash receipts and payments to general ledger

14.

Which account is included in each business cycle except inventory and warehousing?

a)

Accounts receivable

b)

Cash

c)

Accounts payable

d)

Common stock

15.

To gather evidence regarding the balance per bank in a bank reconciliation, an auditor would easy examine all of the following except the:

a)

Bank confirmation

b)

Cutoff bank statement

c)

General ledger

d)

Year-end bank statement

16.

Which of the following errors would be least likely to be discovered during the audit of the medium acquisitions and payments cycle?

a)

Payment of interest to a related party for an amount in excess of the going rate

b)

Duplicate payment of a vendor’s invoice

c)

Improper payments of officers’ personal expenditures

d)

Payment for raw materials that were not received

17.

__________ are used to confirm information with the bank where the client has dealings

a)

Third parties

b)

Accounts bank

c)

Liquid assets

d)

Standards letters

18.

Examine a sample of cash receipts and payments transactions for proper classifications

a)

Classifications

b)

Occurrence

c)

Valuation

d)

Existence

19.

Fraud-related audit procedures for cash

a)

Proof of cash

b)

Test of kiting

c)

Extended bank reconciliations procedures

d)

All above

20.

On receiving the cutoff bank statement, the auditor should vouch

a)

Deposits in transit on the year-end bank reconciliation to deposits in the cash receipts journal

b)

Checks dated before year-end listed as outstanding on the year-end bank reconciliation to the cutoff statement

c)

Deposits listed on the cutoff statement to deposits in the cash receipts journal

d)

Checks dated after year-end to outstanding checks listed on the year-end bank reconciliation and to the cutoff statement

21.

Which of the following describes detection risk

a)

The risk of misstatement due to a failure of controls

b)

The risk that the auditor fails to detect a misstatement in the f/s

c)

The risk inherent in that particular business

22.

What levels of materiality are appropriate when applying the revenue benchmark to a trading entity

a)

5% -10%

b)

0.5% - 3%

c)

2% - 5%

d)

10% - 20%

23.

Which of the following matters would the overall audit strategy include?

a)

The applicable financial reporting framework

b)

The nature, timing and extent of audit procedures at assertion level

c)

The timetable of the planned audit work

d)

The names of the staff performing each audit procedure

24.

Which of the following is control risk

a)

The risk that a misstatement could occur and not be detected by controls

b)

Risk that the auditor will not detect a misstatement that exists

c)

The susceptibility of a transaction, account balance or disclosure to error

d)

The risk that the audit opinion is incorrect

25.

An appropriate threshold for materiality according to ISA 320 in relation to total assets is

a)

0.5% - 1%

b)

5% - 10%

c)

10% - 20%

d)

1% - 2%

26.

Risk that auditor may unknowingly fail to issue a qualified audit report on f/s that are materially misstated is

a)

Detection risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Inherent risk

d)

Audit risk

27.

What are the two elements of risk of material misstatement at the assertion level

a)

Inherent risk and detection risk

b)

Inherent risk and control risk

c)

Audit risk and detection risk

d)

Control risk and detection risk

28.

Which of the following would normally be included in the audit plan

a)

Reporting objectives

b)

Industry-specific financial reporting requirements

c)

Nature. timing and extent of planned risk assessment procedures

d)

The type of audit report to be issued

29.

Who is responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud

a)

External auditor

b)

Internal auditor

c)

Those charged with governance and management

d)

Audit committee

30.

Which of the following is not an objective of audit planning

a)

To determine the scope of the engagement

b)

Ensure appropriate attention is devoted to the important areas of the audit

c)

To identify potential problems and resolve them on a timely bias

d)

To assign work to members of the audit team

31.

Audit risk is composed of 3 factors. Which of the following is NOT one of those factors?

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Detection risk

c)

Compliance risk

d)

Control risk

32.

Audit procedures by auditors will reduce which of the following risks?

a)

Control risk

b)

Inherent risk

c)

Sampling risk

d)

Detection risk

33.

What is one consequence of the expectation gap?

a)

Misunderstanding of auditor responsibilities

b)

More accurate financial statements

c)

Higher audit fees

d)

Increased trust in auditors

34.

What is the primary focus of external audits?

a)

To prepare tax returns

b)

To detect fraud

c)

To provide assurance on financial statements

d)

To improve internal controls

35.

What is a key feature of internal audits?

a)

Required by law

b)

Only for large companies

c)

Conducted by external auditors

d)

Focus on compliance and risk management

36.

What is one right of auditors?

a)

To hire external consultants

b)

To access all company records

c)

To prepare financial statements

d)

To manage company assets

37.

What is materiality in auditing?

a)

The legal requirements for audits

b)

The accuracy of financial statements

c)

The significance of an error or omission

d)

The independence of auditors

38.

What is the main duty of external auditors?

a)

To prepare financial statements

b)

To detect all fraud

c)

To provide an independent opinion

d)

To manage company operations

39.

What is the expectation gap in auditing?

a)

The difference between auditor and client expectations

b)

The gap between financial statements and reality

c)

The gap in auditor qualifications

d)

The difference in auditor fees

40.

Who is primarily responsible for detecting fraud in a company?

a)

External auditors

b)

Internal auditors

c)

Directors

d)

Shareholders

41.

What does 'true and fair view' mean in auditing?

a)

Accounts are exactly correct

b)

Accounts are free from material misstatement

c)

Accounts are prepared by external auditors

d)

Accounts must be audited every year

42.

What is the role of the IAASB?

a)

To regulate auditors in Malaysia

b)

To manage financial statements

c)

To set International Standards on Auditing

d)

To provide tax guidelines

43.

What is a limitation of statutory audits?

a)

They are conducted by internal auditors

b)

They may not detect all fraud

c)

They are not required by law

d)

They guarantee accuracy

44.

Who is primarily responsible for detecting fraud in a company?

a)

External auditors

b)

Internal auditors

c)

Directors

d)

Shareholders

45.

What is the expectation gap in auditing?

a)

The difference between auditor and client expectations

b)

The gap between financial statements and reality

c)

The gap in auditor qualifications

d)

The difference in auditor fees

46.

What is the main duty of external auditors?

a)

To prepare financial statements

b)

To detect all fraud

c)

To provide an independent opinion

d)

To manage company operations

47.

What is materiality in auditing?

a)

The legal requirements for audits

b)

The accuracy of financial statements

c)

The significance of an error or omission

d)

The independence of auditors

48.

What is one right of auditors?

a)

To hire external consultants

b)

To access all company records

c)

To prepare financial statements

d)

To manage company assets

49.

What is a key feature of internal audits?

a)

Required by law

b)

Only for large companies

c)

Conducted by external auditors

d)

Focus on compliance and risk management

50.

What is the primary purpose of auditing?

a)

To examine and form an opinion

b)

To manage company assets

c)

To provide tax advice

d)

To prepare financial statements

51.

What is the primary purpose of auditing?

a)

To examine and form an opinion

b)

To manage company assets

c)

To provide tax advice

d)

To prepare financial statements

52.

Which case established that a company is a separate legal entity?

a)

Salomon v Salomon

b)

Smith v Jones

c)

Brown v Board

d)

Johnson v United States

53.

What is the key difference between external and internal audits?

a)

External audits are voluntary

b)

Internal audits are conducted by external auditors

c)

External audits are required by law

d)

Internal audits are not regulated

54.

What does 'true and fair view' mean in auditing?

a)

Accounts are exactly correct

b)

Accounts are free from material misstatement

c)

Accounts are prepared by external auditors

d)

Accounts must be audited every year

55.

What is the role of the IAASB?

a)

To regulate auditors in Malaysia

b)

To manage financial statements

c)

To set International Standards on Auditing

d)

To provide tax guidelines

56.

What is a limitation of statutory audits?

a)

They are conducted by internal auditors

b)

They may not detect all fraud

c)

They are not required by law

d)

They guarantee accuracy

57.

Who is primarily responsible for detecting fraud in a company?

a)

External auditors

b)

Internal auditors

c)

Directors

d)

Shareholders

58.

What is the expectation gap in auditing?

a)

The difference between auditor and client expectations

b)

The gap between financial statements and reality

c)

The gap in auditor qualifications

d)

The difference in auditor fees

59.

What is the main duty of external auditors?

a)

To prepare financial statements

b)

To detect all fraud

c)

To provide an independent opinion

d)

To manage company operations

60.

What is materiality in auditing?

a)

The legal requirements for audits

b)

The accuracy of financial statements

c)

The significance of an error or omission

d)

The independence of auditors

61.

What is one right of auditors?

a)

To hire external consultants

b)

To access all company records

c)

To prepare financial statements

d)

To manage company assets

62.

What is a key feature of internal audits?

a)

Required by law

b)

Only for large companies

c)

Conducted by external auditors

d)

Focus on compliance and risk management

63.

What is the role of the AASB in Malaysia?

a)

To set international auditing standards

b)

To regulate auditors

c)

To provide tax advice

d)

To manage company finances

64.

What is the primary focus of external audits?

a)

To prepare tax returns

b)

To detect fraud

c)

To provide assurance on financial statements

d)

To improve internal controls

65.

What is one consequence of the expectation gap?

a)

Misunderstanding of auditor responsibilities

b)

More accurate financial statements

c)

Higher audit fees

d)

Increased trust in auditors

66.

Which ONE of the following best describes the concept of assurance? Assurance refers to:

a)

An assurance firm’s high level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

b)

A user’s satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by another party

c)

An assurance firm’s satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

d)

An assurance firm’s limited level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

67.

Which THREE of the following are purposes of a letter of engagement?

a)

Setting out the form of any report to be issued

b)

Narrowing the expectations gap

c)

Providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements in internal control

d)

Documenting and confirming acceptance of the appointment

68.

For each of the following statements about materiality, Which ONE of the following statement is true?

a)

Materiality only depends on the size of the error in the context of its omission or misstatement

b)

Materiality should be considered when planning audit procedures and when evaluating discovered misstatements

c)

Materiality must be expressed as a proportion of asset

d)

Materiality will not influence the audit opinion given

69.

When gaining an understanding of the investment operations of an audit client which ONE of the following matters would an auditor need to consider?

a)

Products or services and markets of the client's business

b)

Acquisitions or disposals of the client's business activities

c)

Leasing of property, plant or equipment for use in the client's business

d)

Accounting principles and industry specific practices relevant to the client's business

70.

White Ltd’s quick ratio has fallen from 1.7:1 to 1.5:1. Which TWO of the following might help to explain this decline?

a)

Credit control has been poor

b)

Current liabilities have increased

c)

The allowance for receivables has been reduced

d)

The entity has purchased a inventory for cas

71.

Which THREE of the following statements correctly describe the auditors' responsibilities in accordance with ISA 240 The auditor's responsibilities relating to fraud in an audit of financial statements?

a)

The auditor is not responsible for detecting all errors and should attempt to detect fraud where information comes to light as a result of standard audit procedures

b)

The auditor is responsible for obtaining reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement whether caused by fraud or error

c)

The auditor is not responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud and error

d)

The auditor is not responsible for the prevention of fraud and error but is responsible for detection

72.

The following are items that might be included in an auditor's report. Which TWO of the following are reported on by exception only?

a)

Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and returns

b)

Whether details of directors' emoluments and other benefits have been correctly disclosed in the financial statements

c)

Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company’s affairs at the end of the financial year

d)

Information in the strategic report and the directors' report is consistent with the financial statements

73.

The following are examples of computer controls which operate at Blue Ltd. Which THREE of the following examples are the types of computer control which illustrate for general control?

a)

Password protection limiting access to data

b)

Manual checks to ensure that timesheets are authorized before details are processed

c)

Virus checks on software on employees’computers

d)

Training of staff using programs

74.

Which TWO of the following statements are true respect of business risk?

a)

Business risk is of no relevance to the auditor. The auditor is only concerned with audit risk

b)

Business risk is the risk inherent to the company in its operations

c)

Auditor can impact on business risk to reduce the audit risk to acceptable level

d)

Management are responsible for identifying and controlling business risks

75.

Which of the following is not a benefit of establishing an audit committee?

a)

Reduced external audit fees, as the presence of the audit committee reduces audit risk and consequently, the amount of audit procedures required

b)

Greater external audit independence, as the audit committee can be responsible for appointing the external auditors

c)

Reduced opportunity of fraud, as the audit committee can advise the executive directors on managing the risks in the financial reporting process

d)

Monitor and review the effectiveness the effectiveness of the company’s internal audit function.