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Project Management

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An FM organization’s policy specifies use of a predefined project management process. Which of the following is a typical feature of such a process?

a)

It lists specific persons from whom to seek approvals.

b)

It is a project life cycle-driven process.

c)

It has work flow from one phase to the next in sequence without iteration.

d)

It is a standardized project management process developed by a project management association.

2.

In the project model, outputs from the Plan phase become

a)

final outputs or deliverables.

b)

inputs to the Check phase.

c)

inputs to the Do phase.

d)

processes in the Do phase.

3.

Which of the following does a project manager need to be successful?

a)

Field experience prior to getting formal project management training

b)

Formal project management training prior to getting field experience

c)

Ability to hire, discipline, and terminate project team members

d)

Tenacity to stay with a chosen approach to people skills even if unpopular

4.

Which of the following is true of project life-cycle models?

a)

Traditional waterfall life-cycle models incorporate planned iteration.

b)

The Plan, Do, Check, Act model has a finite duration.

c)

Planned iteration allows omission of some details to be added later.

d)

Phases in project life-cycle models should not be altered.

5.

Which of the following is an attribute of a project?

a)

Projects are comprised of permanent teams.

b)

Projects are finite.

c)

Projects are a repeatable set of events.

d)

Projects are individual-oriented sets of tasks.

6.

Project life-cycle models can be applied to:

a)

individual process and phases but not the project as a whole.

b)

the project as a whole or to individual processes, but not phases.

c)

individual processes and phases or to the project as a whole.

d)

the project as a whole but not to individual processes or phases.

7.

Which of the following phases of the Plan, Do, Check, Act model involves control and coordination of tasks, scope, schedule, costs, quality, teams, communications, risks, and challenges?

a)

Check

b)

Do

c)

Act

d)

Plan

8.

Which of the following project management activities unifies independent project components?

a)

Integration or coordination

b)

Use of the Plan, Do, Check, Act model

c)

Use of project scheduling tools

d)

Scoping and communications

9.

Which of the following is true of facility management (FM) organization projects?

a)

Minor relocations or churn are never handled as projects.

b)

Projects can be initiated to address the results of programming.

c)

Emergencies such as equipment failures or natural disasters cannot be handled as a project.

d)

A building expansion benefiting a single business unit is funded using the business unit’s operational funds.

10.

Which of the following is a constraint that addresses sensitivity to organizational politics and influences how projects are identified and prioritized?

a)

Organizational culture

b)

Organizational structure

c)

Organizational tolerance for risk

d)

Facilities register

11.

The tradeoffs made in the project triangle can be summarized as which of the following SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, timely) elements?

a)

Measurable

b)

Specific

c)

Realistic

d)

Timely

12.

The project manager’s primary role in regards to permits for a construction project is:

a)

coordination to ensure that they are initiated soon enough to prevent bottlenecks.

b)

applying for and obtaining the building permit.

c)

specifying the codes that must be followed.

d)

getting the general contractor to issue a certificate of occupancy.

13.

In what document would the project manager be formally listed?

a)

Project charter

b)

Project objectives statement

c)

Final design

d)

Work breakdown structure

14.

Programming:

a)

makes projections similar to forecasting but is more focused than forecasting.

b)

is synonymous with design but could be used for non-construction projects.

c)

differs from needs analysis because only programming determines user requirements.

d)

is less detailed than macro-level programming.

15.

Which of the following is true of the steps involved in defining project success?

a)

A best practice is to create projects with multiuse deliverables.

b)

Specifying nonessential parameters is as important as specifying essential ones.

c)

Parameters can feasibly specify fastest completion, least cost, and highest quality.

d)

A project purpose indicates what to achieve and how to achieve it.

16.

Which of the following documents refines the tasks outlined in the scope and deliverables documentation ?

a)

Project budget

b)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

c)

Statement of requirements

d)

Project schedule

17.

Which of the following documents typically describes the business need for a project such as legal requirements, customer requirements, market demand, or social needs?

a)

Statement of requirements

b)

Project charter

c)

Conceptual project budget

d)

Project objectives statement

18.

When estimating costs for a feasibility study, which of the following items is the most important item to highlight to prevent its costs from being underestimated?

a)

Engineering requirements

b)

Customer requirements

c)

Design requirements

d)

Space requirements

19.

Which of the following actions is the final step in defining a project's purpose after ensuring the purpose is feasible?

a)

Define and document the success criteria

b)

Define the stakeholders in the project and their aims/requirements

c)

Define the scope and intended use of the project deliverables

d)

Define the parameters, assumptions, risks, and constraints for the project.

20.

Which of the following is set by policy at the start of a project?

a)

Estimating

b)

Benchmarking

c)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

d)

Scheduling

21.

When defining project success, after the business need is defined, which of the following could be used in the next step of the process?

a)

Statement of qualifications

b)

Project charter

c)

Statement of requirements

d)

Project objectives statement

22.

Which of the following documents may include details such as adjacency diagrams, space standards, and information on current and future staffing count for business units?

a)

Feasibility studies

b)

Scope/statement of work or specifications

c)

Strategic facility plans

d)

Statement of requirements

23.

Which of the following is true of the elements in a project objectives statement?

a)

An executive overview defines a project by how it should achieve goals.

b)

Schedule documentation only includes milestones for hard delivery dates.

c)

Constraints are primarily addressed under budget documentation.

d)

Information on staffing is found in schedule and quality documentation.

24.

A project has a long payback period. Linking this project to which of the following can increase the chances of the project being approved?

a)

Financial plans or feasibility studies

b)

Strategic facility plans

c)

Statement of requirements from programming

d)

Statements of work or specifications

25.

Which of the following is true of communications management in the project management plan?

a)

When working with project team members, a high degree of formality is needed.

b)

Communications should be limited to what each stakeholder needs to know to be effective.

c)

All stakeholders should have a consult (two-way) communications relationship with project team members.

d)

Executives generally desire reports only at milestones.

26.

A project manager is planning a research project to determine a sustainability policy for purchases. Which of the following techniques could help if estimators are having difficulty reaching consensus on task durations?

a)

Gantt charts (bar charts)

b)

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)

c)

Critical path method (CPM)

d)

Network diagrams

27.

Which of the following is true of communications management for an office relocation?

a)

Professional movers will pack all boxes so there is no need to communicate packing details to employees.

b)

Post-relocation orientation brochures can help employees find their way around.

c)

Relocation communications should be minimal.

d)

Executives, consultants/contractors, and employees to be relocated are the only stakeholder groups requiring communications.

28.

Which of the following could specify that costs should be applied to a work package at the start of work, called frontend loading?

a)

Cost management plan

b)

Contingency reserve analysis

c)

Project costing plan

d)

Reconciliation with funding priorities

29.

Which of the following is the critical input to ensure design/engineering firms have the necessary information to proceed and are addressing the right organizational needs?

a)

Statement of requirements

b)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

c)

Construction documents and drawings

d)

Project management plan

30.

For which of the following project planning documents would bubble diagrams, stack plans, or rough sketches be developed for review by stakeholders?

a)

Final design

b)

Project management plan

c)

Project objectives statement

d)

Schematic design

31.

Which of the following is true of a scope/statement of work (SOW) for professional services?

a)

A SOW lists necessary permits with the expectation that contractors will determine the required lead times.

b)

Internal schedulers always produce the schedule for the contracted work.

c)

A SOW never allows contractors to update portions of the project work breakdown structure (WBS).

d)

A SOW notes where one contractor needs to work closely with other contractors or subcontractors.

32.

A tenant improvement allowance is money set aside by a landlord in accordance with:

a)

the estimated interior design and construction costs.

b)

a building standard.

c)

the actual interior design and construction costs.

d)

a scope/statement of work.

33.

Which of the following is true of contract details?

a)

Non typical materials or installation methods should not be included in the main body of a contractor’s proposal.

b)

Organizations that contract out work are not liable for the results of the work or injuries resulting from the work.

c)

Indemnification clauses should not require that bonds or professional liability insurance be used.

d)

Contractors should not be required to submit a payment bond.

34.

Parametric modeling is used to:

a)

set a hard budget limit and then distribute these funds to different tasks.

b)

combine most likely, pessimistic, and optimistic estimates.

c)

create a standard set of rates for costs.

d)

build a cost estimate starting at the lowest levels and summing up the costs.

35.

Which of the following is a role that can be created for major projects to help ensure continued senior management/client support?

a)

Department liaison

b)

Project champion

c)

Project manager

d)

Facility manager

36.

A bid bond provides a penalty to reinforce which of the following?

a)

When an organization signs a contract it commits to paying for deliverables if fulfilled properly.

b)

When a contractor makes a proposal for a project it is legally binding if accepted.

c)

When a contractor begins work on a project it is committing to complete the work properly.

d)

When a contractor claims to have proper insurance or licensure it is verifiable.

37.

Which of the following elements is developed first?

a)

Project team staff and contractor specifications

b)

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

c)

Cost estimates

d)

Project schedule

38.

Which of the following is a type of acceptance criteria that is used to determine whether all required tasks have been done?

a)

Quality checklists

b)

Quality metrics

c)

Cost of quality (COQ)

d)

Quality standards

39.

Which of the following is the primary input to the plan team and resources process?

a)

Project schedule.

b)

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

c)

Project budget.

d)

Project objectives statement.

40.

Items included in the final design documents for a construction project that are included solely for reference and are omitted from the final deliverables are marked as which of the following?

a)

Non-typical contractual relationship

b)

Owner furnished, owner installed (OFOI)

c)

Owner furnished, contractor installed (OFCI)

d)

Not-in-contract (NIC)

41.

Which of the following definitions is correct?

a)

A subtask is the smallest size unit of activity defined in a WBS and is relatively independent from other subtasks within a given task.

b)

A work package is the largest grouping of activities in a project that always consumes time and may consume resources.

c)

A task is a function to be performed that is detailed enough for proposals to indicate cost, schedule, and readiness and completion criteria.

d)

A WBS dictionary is a graphical depiction of the hierarchy and components of a WBS.

42.

Which of the following steps in the acquisition and design of a space could be considered Check and Act phase tasks in a project life-cycle model?

a)

Review and approve design

b)

Contract with design/engineering firm(s)

c)

Generate schematic design

d)

Acquire space

43.

Which of the following is true of the methods and tools used to evaluate contractor proposals?

a)

In a weighting system, each objective criterion is assigned a weight that reflects how expert reviewers feel the contractor satisfies the criterion.

b)

Exception review investigates bid line items that are too high or low in comparison to other bids received.

c)

After a contract is signed, organizations can negotiate with bidders on cost reductions for specific line items.

d)

Contractors who have not yet been used can be evaluated using contractor rating systems.

44.

Which of the following actions can be taken in order for a project to meet its deadline, while final contract negotiations are proceeding?

a)

Bidder presentations

b)

Letter of intent

c)

Authorization to proceed

d)

Bidder meetings

45.

Which of the following can compress the overall project duration but may complicate cost auditing?

a)

Standard bidding documents

b)

Standard proposal formats

c)

Direct negotiation

d)

Competitive bidding

46.

Which of the following is a key task in procurement management for project managers that requires both diligence and experience to ensure that the project remains on schedule?

a)

Root cause analysis

b)

Lead time management

c)

"Inform" level relationship building with Purchasing

d)

Purchase order approvals

47.

Which of the following is a sign that bidders on a construction project have a clear understanding of the project’s needs?

a)

Bidders at a pre-bid meeting ask for clarification on how to interpret construction drawings.

b)

Receiving proposals that are more than 10 percent apart in best value.

c)

Bidders submit requests for information (RFIs) to the organization.

d)

Receiving proposals that are less than 10 percent apart in price.

48.

Cost control is:

a)

a line-item level activity that often requires difficult choices.

b)

considered a form of exception management performed at milestones.

c)

a macro-level process that studies aggregated costs.

d)

independent from change control.

49.

Which of the following is true of the Do, Check, and Act phases of the project model?

a)

Project managers use change control to keep these processes organized.

b)

The project manager’s role is to stress a project’s organizational needs; technical needs can be delegated to others.

c)

The project objectives statement is the primary input to these phases.

d)

These phases are often concurrently or iteratively performed.

50.

Which of the following is true of monitoring or controlling risk?

a)

Risk identification meetings are only conducted in the Plan phase; subsequent risks are handled through change control.

b)

Risk owners look at the detail level of one part of a process when evaluating technical performance.

c)

Project managers assume risk owner responses conform to the project’s risk tolerance levels.

d)

Risk owners close risks in the risk register when a project changes and the risks no longer apply.

51.

Which of the following pre-project actions can be taken to reduce risk and increase the probability of project success?

a)

Pre-select contractors

b)

Pre-qualify contractors

c)

Bidder meetings

d)

Bidder presentations

52.

Which of the following is the glue that holds a project team together and enables stakeholders to feel a sense of participation?

a)

Project scheduling technology

b)

Quality management

c)

Managing communications

d)

Integration/coordination

53.

Root cause analysis applied to controlling cost can indicate:

a)

the magnitude of deviations from the budget.

b)

the reasons deliverables have defects.

c)

whether the budget is forecasted to be met or exceeded.

d)

whether a variance was caused more by price/rate or quantity/time variance.

54.

Which of the following is true of contract administration?

a)

If arbitration is stipulated in contracts for disputed changes it is legally nonbinding and either party could still litigate.

b)

Constructive changes are changes that both parties must feel are needed.

c)

The contracted resource shares responsibility for contract administration.

d)

The project management plan is kept separate from contract details so changes to the latter do not affect the former.

55.

Which of the following is true of the Do, Check, and Act phases of the project model?

a)

Project managers use change control to keep these processes organized.

b)

The project objectives statement is the primary input to these phases.

c)

The project manager’s role is to stress a project’s organizational needs; technical needs can be delegated to others.

d)

These phases are often concurrently or iteratively performed.

56.

If a decision is made to update the schedule in the project management plan, which of the following is given priority?

a)

Changes affecting activities with slack

b)

Changes affecting the work breakdown structure (WBS)

c)

Changes that alter a project’s purpose

d)

Changes affecting the critical path

57.

When project managers suggest revising the project management plan to make it feasible given the current situation, they submit a:

a)

defect repair.

b)

corrective action.

c)

preventive action.

d)

change order.

58.

In addition to standard contract closure procedures, which of the following is a good way of ensuring that all contract terms and conditions are accounted for?

a)

Checklists

b)

Issue logs

c)

Control charts

d)

Earned value analysis

59.

In addition to scope verifications and financial audits, contractor audits typically include

a)

pre- and post-occupancy surveys.

b)

technical audits.

c)

root cause analysis.

d)

initial plan of record/final plan of record audits.

60.

Which of the following is true of documentation for project closure?

a)

If a project is over budget it can be valid grounds for deliverable rejection even if this is not included in acceptance criteria.

b)

Only complete deliverables can be transferred to the responsible party.

c)

Product documentation formally ends a project and releases team members.

d)

Documentation may include operations and maintenance manuals.

61.

Which of the following is developed to review a final deliverable from an entire system perspective?

a)

Quality assurance tests and measurements

b)

Statement of requirements

c)

Punch list/snagging list walkthrough

d)

Checklist reviews

62.

A facility management organization in a client representative role receives which of the following from its customer to initiate a project?

a)

Statement of requirements.

b)

Strategic facility plan.

c)

Scope/statement of work

d)

Specifications.

63.

Which of the following can be used to update policies, procedures, and practices such as contract templates or organizational charts or alternately take the form of helpful hints?

a)

Post-implementation audit

b)

Lessons learned

c)

Balanced scorecard perspectives

d)

Post-occupancy survey

64.

Which of the following is the purpose of retainage?

a)

To ensure sufficient funds are available to pay the general contractor

b)

To require repair of major variances from planned construction discovered in an as-built review

c)

To enforce the repair of all punch list/snagging list defects

d)

To ensure no liens remain on project work at project closure

65.

A statement of requirements:

a)

primarily expresses how to optimize and fulfill forecasted system needs.

b)

for design is an internally produced space planning and relocation forecast.

c)

primarily expresses vision statement goals that are a type of stretch goal.

d)

lists alternative options for enacting the goals of the strategic facility plan.

66.

Which of the following is indicated in an activity-on-node diagram by a circle rather than a box?

a)

All activities.

b)

Events that are milestones only.

c)

Activities that are milestones only.

d)

All events.

67.

A risk management team member reviews contract details to ensure:

a)

all high significance, high impact risks are transferred.

b)

all fair hiring and employment laws and regulations are followed.

c)

the amount of risk transfer is appropriate and the cost is acceptable.

d)

all contract details are standard boilerplate materials.

68.

Verifying the scope is primarily a process of:

a)

deliverable and task acceptance.

b)

ensuring the change control process is followed.

c)

updating the work breakdown structure (WBS).

d)

variance analysis.

69.

Which of the following is true of change control?

a)

For emergency changes, the changes must follow the normal approval process.

b)

A standardized change communications process is the key to avoiding an emergency atmosphere for enacting changes.

c)

Only change orders that may be desired in later phases or projects need be tracked.

d)

Change control and quality control are kept independent of one another.

70.

Auditing the emergency change control process to ensure it is being used properly is an example of which of the following?

a)

Quality control

b)

Monitor risk

c)

Quality assurance

d)

Change control

71.

Which of the following graphical schedule tools could be used at a detail level by project team members or rolled up to an executive overview level?

a)

Critical path method (CPM)

b)

Network diagrams

c)

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)

d)

Gantt charts (bar charts)

72.

Which of the following stakeholders determines when a facility management equipment installation project is done and can be closed?

a)

General contractor

b)

Owner

c)

Facility manager

d)

Project manager

73.

If final deliverables from contractors are rejected, which of the following is the proper method of handling the situation?

a)

Conditionally accept the deliverables but request certain corrective actions or defect repairs.

b)

Keep the contract open and provide a letter indicating the unmet criteria and required actions.

c)

Terminate the contract and cite the reasons for contractor noncompliance.

d)

Close the contract but provide a verbal warning to make corrections before initiating formal procedures.

74.

Deliverable acceptance may trigger the start of the:

a)

as-built review.

b)

commissioning process.

c)

warranty period.

d)

final inspection and validation process.