wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CSA3703 - Software Testing MCQs (Extraction)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a)

linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.

b)

the precise differences in versions of software component source code.

c)

facilities to compare test results with expected results.

d)

restricted access to the source code library

2.

Test cases are designed during:

a)

test recording.

b)

test configuration.

c)

test planning.

d)

test specification

3.

In case of Large Systems

a)

only few tests should be run

b)

test cases written by good test engineers should be executed

c)

only good test cases should be executed

d)

testing should be on the basis of risk

4.

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

a)

big-bang

b)

top down

c)

bottom up

d)

functional incrimination

5.

Test Conditions are derived from

a)

test design

b)

test cases

c)

test data

d)

specifications

6.

Pick the best definition of quality

a)

quality is job one

b)

zero defects

c)

work as designed

d)

conformance to requirements

7.

Fault Masking is

a)

creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

b)

error condition hiding another error condition

c)

masking a fault by developer

d)

masking a fault by a tester

8.

One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

a)

lack of technical documentation

b)

lack of test tools on the market for developers

c)

lack of objectivity

d)

lack of training

9.

In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

a)

takes minutes of the meeting

b)

takes telephone calls

c)

mediates between people

d)

writes the documents to be reviewed

10.

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a)

decision table

b)

design

c)

code

d)

requirements

11.

How much testing is enough?

a)

this question is easy to answer

b)

this question is impossible to answer

c)

the answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements

d)

this answer depends on the maturity of your developers

12.

Which of the following is the component test standard?

a)

ieee 610

b)

ieee 829

c)

bs7925-1

d)

bs7925-2

13.

Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?

a)

ieee610

b)

ieee829

c)

bs7925-1

d)

bs7925-2

14.

The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a)

iso/iec 12207

b)

bs 7925-1

c)

ansi/ieee 729

d)

ansi/ieee 829

15.

Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a)

incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

b)

incidents may be raised against user requirements.

c)

incidents require investigation and/or correction.

d)

incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

16.

Which of the following is false?

a)

in a system two different failures may have different severities.

b)

a fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

c)

a system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

d)

undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

17.

Which of the following is the odd one out?

a)

white box

b)

functional

c)

structural

d)

glass box

18.

Which of the following is a static test?

a)

coverage analysis

b)

code inspection

c)

usability assessment

d)

installation test

19.

Which of the following is a black box design technique?

a)

statement testing

b)

error- guessing

c)

equivalence partitioning

d)

usability testing

20.

Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

a)

design based

b)

bottom-up

c)

big-bang

d)

top-down

21.

Expected results are:

a)

only important in system testing

b)

most useful when specified in advance

c)

only used in component testing

d)

derived from the code

22.

Incidents would not be raised against:

a)

requirements

b)

documentation

c)

improvements suggested by users

d)

test cases

23.

Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a)

non-functional system testing

b)

component testing

c)

user acceptance testing

d)

maintenance testing

24.

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics?

a)

management review

b)

inspection

c)

walkthrough

d)

post project review

25.

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a)

operating systems

b)

live data

c)

test documentation

d)

user requirement documents

26.

Maintenance testing is:

a)

testing to maintain business advantage

b)

testing a released system that has been changed

c)

testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

d)

updating tests when the software has changed

27.

Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a)

state transition testing

b)

syntax testing

c)

lcsaj

28.

What can static analysis NOT find?

a)

memory leaks

b)

unreachable ("dead") code

c)

the use of a variable before it has been defined

d)

array bound violations

29.

In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:

a)

test high risk areas.

b)

find as many faults as possible.

c)

obtain good test coverage.

d)

test whatever is easiest to test.

30.

Which of the following is false?

a)

an incident can be raised against documentation.

b)

an incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

c)

incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.

d)

incidents should always be fixed.

31.

Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures to be used.

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Phase Definition. It will come under

a)

cmm level 1

b)

cmm level 2

c)

none

33.

Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as

a)

adhoc testing

b)

unit testing

c)

regression testing

d)

functional testing

34.

Acceptance testing is known as

a)

beta testing

b)

greybox testing

c)

test automation

d)

white box testing

35.

Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?

a)

full regression testing

b)

unit regression

c)

regional regression

d)

retesting

36.

Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?

a)

black box testing

b)

white box testing

37.

What are the Types of Integration Testing?

a)

big bang testing

b)

bottom up testing

c)

top down testing

d)

all the above

38.

Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as

a)

process metric

b)

product metric

c)

test metrics

40.

Which is non-functional software testing?

a)

unit testing

b)

block box testing

c)

performance testing

d)

regression testing

41.

The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as?

a)

delivery process

b)

testing process

c)

software process

42.

Executing the same test case on a modified build called as

a)

regression testing

b)

retesting

c)

ad hoc testing

d)

sanity testing

43.

Which is Black-Box Testing method?

a)

equivalence partitioning

b)

code coverage

c)

fault injection

44.

The review process for a particular review begins with a __________ by the author to the moderator in formal review.

a)

request for review

b)

requirement analysis

c)

notice for review

d)

goal design

45.

Configuration management procedures be implemented during __________

a)

test execution

b)

test planning

c)

test design

d)

test success

46.

__________ of information refers to protecting information from being modified by unauthorized parties.

a)

confidentiality

b)

authentication

c)

authorization

d)

integrity

47.

__________ looks for known security issues by using automated tools to match conditions with known vulnerabilities.

a)

discovery

b)

vulnerability scan

c)

security assessment

d)

penetration test

48.

_______ is driven by an Audit or a Risk function to look at a specific control or compliance issue.

a)

security audit

b)

vulnerability scan

c)

vulnerability assessment

d)

penetration test

49.

__________ simulates an attack by a malicious party.

a)

security audit

b)

vulnerability scan

c)

vulnerability assessment

d)

penetration test

50.

__________ builds upon Vulnerability Assessment by adding manual verification to confirm exposure.

a)

security audit

b)

security assessment

c)

vulnerability assessment

d)

penetration test

51.

Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

a)

integration testing

b)

regression testing

c)

system testing

d)

user acceptance testing

52.

What are the Testing Levels?

a)

unit testing

b)

integration testing

c)

system testing and acceptance testing.

d)

all the above

53.

Defect Management process does not include

a)

defect prevention

b)

deliverable base-lining

c)

management reporting

d)

none of the above

54.

Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

a)

10-20

b)

40-50

c)

70-80

d)

5-10

55.

How much testing is enough

a)

this question is impossible to answer

b)

the answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements

c)

the answer depends on the maturity of your developers

d)

the answer should be standardized for the software development industry

56.

Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

a)

operability

b)

observability

c)

simplicity

d)

robustness

57.

Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?

a)

simple loops

b)

nested loops

c)

concatenated loops

d)

all of the above

58.

Inspections can find all the following except

a)

variables not defined in the code

b)

spelling and grammar faults in the documents

c)

requirements that have been omitted from the design documents

d)

how much of the code has been covered

59.

When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a)

a small team to establish the best way to use the tool

b)

everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

c)

the independent testing team

d)

the vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

60.

Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

a)

system testing

b)

usability testing

c)

performance testing

d)

both b & c

61.

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

a)

when the code is complete

b)

when the design is complete

c)

when the software requirements have been approved

d)

when the first code module is ready for unit testing

62.

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a)

requirements

b)

design

c)

code

d)

decision table

63.

Independent Verification & Validation is

a)

done by the developer

b)

done by the test engineers

c)

done by management

d)

done by an entity outside the project's sphere of influence

64.

Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a)

syntax testing

b)

equivalence partitioning

c)

stress testing

d)

modified condition/decision coverage

65.

Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a)

boundary value analysis

b)

usability testing

c)

performance testing

d)

security testing

66.

Test cases are designed during:

a)

test recording

b)

test planning

c)

test configuration

d)

test specification

67.

Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

a)

checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

b)

logging the outcome of test execution.

c)

assessing if more tests are needed.

d)

writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

68.

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

a)

test analysis and design

b)

test implementation and execution

c)

test closure activities

d)

evaluating exit criteria and reporting

69.

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase

a)

test analysis and design

b)

test implementation and execution

c)

test closure activities

d)

evaluating exit criteria and reporting

70.

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a)

operating systems

b)

test documentation

c)

live data

d)

user requirement document

71.

Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase

a)

test analysis and design

b)

test planning and control

c)

test closure activities

d)

evaluating exit criteria and reporting

72.

A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?

a)

pareto analysis

b)

cause-and-effect diagram

73.

Variance from product specifications is called?

a)

report

b)

requirement

c)

defect

74.

Verification is

a)

process based

b)

product based

75.

White box testing is not called as ________

a)

glass box testing

b)

closed box testing

c)

open box testing

d)

clear box testing

76.

Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as

a)

pareto analysis

b)

cause and effect diagram

c)

swot analysis

d)

pie charts

77.

Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?

a)

full regression testing

b)

unit regression

c)

regional regression

d)

retesting

78.

Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

a)

true

b)

false

79.

The testing which is done by going through the code is known as

a)

unit testing

b)

blackbox testing

c)

white box testing

d)

regression testing

80.

Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.

a)

true

b)

false

81.

Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous groups (strata).

a)

true

b)

false

82.

Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing. Is the above statement correct?

a)

yes

b)

no

83.

Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it. Is the above statement correct?

a)

yes

b)

no

84.

Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

a)

severity

b)

priority

c)

fix ability

d)

traceability

85.

Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made?

a)

full regression testing

b)

unit regression

c)

regional regression

d)

retesting

86.

Alpha testing will be done at,

a)

user’s site

b)

developers’ site

87.

SPICE Means

a)

software process improvement and capability determination

b)

software process improvement and compatibility determination

c)

software process invention and compatibility determination

d)

software process improvement and control determination

88.

Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution, Bug Reporting & Maintenance. This Life Cycle comes under

a)

sdlc

b)

stlc

c)

sqlc

d)

blc

89.

It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing processes.

a)

tim (testing improving model)

b)

tmm (testing maturity model)

c)

tqm (total quality management)

90.

Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called?

a)

confirmation management

b)

confederation management

c)

configuration management

d)

compatibility management

91.

Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths

a)

true

b)

false

92.

This type of test includes how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system?

a)

usability testing

b)

user acceptance testing

c)

alpha testing

d)

beta testing

93.

Defects generally fall into the following categories?

a)

wrong

b)

missing

c)

extra

d)

all the above

94.

What is correct Software Process Cycle?

a)

plan(p) → check(c) → act(a) → do(d)

b)

plan(p) → do(d) → check(c) → act(a)

c)

plan(p) → do(d) → act(a) → check(c)

95.

Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and effort required

a)

true

b)

false

96.

Beta testing will be done by

a)

developer

b)

user

c)

tester

97.

Validation plan describes the approach, resources and schedule used for system validation

a)

true

b)

false

98.

Integration, it will come under

a)

cmm level 1

b)

cmm level 3

c)

cmm level 2

d)

none

99.

Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.

a)

true

b)

false

100.

Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting development activities itself

a)

water falls model

b)

spiral model

c)

v-model

d)

linear model