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Geography IGCSE – Paper 11 MJ 2024 (Worksheet Extraction)

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Suggest why birth rates are high in LEDCs such as Bolivia, Lesotho and Niger (4). Select all reasons that apply.

a)

Lack of availability or affordability of contraception and family planning

b)

Less education about contraception/family planning and about problems caused by high birth rates

c)

Religious intolerance of contraception or abortion

d)

High infant mortality leading families to have more children

e)

High GDP per capita encourages smaller families

2.

Describe the problems experienced by people living in urban areas with a high population density, such as Yaoundé. (5). Select all that apply.

a)

Pressure on or cannot afford health services

b)

Limited access to or unaffordable education

c)

Expensive, cramped housing or squatter settlements/homelessness

d)

Traffic congestion and jams

e)

Abundant clean water supply

3.

Give three advantages of living in the rural-urban fringe. (3). Select all advantages that apply.

a)

Low-cost land

b)

Good air quality and less air pollution

c)

Close to green spaces or allotments

d)

Easy to commute daily with less congestion

e)

Higher noise pollution

4.

Describe the impacts of urban sprawl on the natural environment. (4). Select all impacts that apply.

a)

Loss of vegetation and deforestation

b)

Loss of habitat with wildlife displaced

c)

Reduction of biodiversity; ecosystems and food chains destroyed

d)

Air and water pollution leading to soil degradation

e)

Increase in species population diversity

5.

Describe the causes and effects of one named type of pollution likely to be experienced by the people living in the area shown in Fig. 2.2. (5). The figure shows a water canal dividing two parts of a street with many cars and homes. Select all causes or effects that apply to water pollution in this setting.

a)

Sewage discharge into the canal

b)

Industrial/factory waste entering the waterway

c)

Oil spills and runoff from vehicles near the street

d)

Agricultural runoff carrying fertilizers into the canal

e)

Waterborne diseases affecting residents

6.

Select all statements that explain why equatorial and hot desert climates have different amounts of rainfall (4).

a)

Equatorial air is humid while desert air is dry.

b)

Equatorial areas have rising air while deserts have descending air.

c)

Desert regions have more sources of water leading to more evaporation.

d)

Equatorial areas are less likely to be affected by dry winds.

e)

Deserts are more likely to be close to cold currents, which have less capacity to hold moisture.

7.

Using the map of deforestation in the Amazon rainforest, select all statements that help explain the distribution of recent deforestation (5).

a)

Deforestation clusters along major roads and railways.

b)

Areas distant from urban centers show more deforestation because wood is not in demand.

c)

Different countries have different policies and attitudes toward the Amazon.

d)

Conservation areas and indigenous reserves limit deforestation in some zones.

e)

Government restrictions and approval requirements vary, preventing clearing in some parts.

8.

Select all reasons why deposition occurs where a river enters the sea (4).

a)

The river is carrying a large/heavy load.

b)

The amount of energy increases as it meets calm seawater.

c)

The speed slows down in calm seawater.

d)

Flocculation occurs due to higher salinity/presence of salt water.

e)

It becomes impossible for the river to carry its load.

9.

Select all statements that correctly describe how an oxbow lake is formed. You may use a labeled diagram (5).

a)

Erosion occurs on outer bends while deposition occurs on inner bends.

b)

The neck of the meander narrows.

c)

During time of flood the river breaks through the neck.

d)

The cut-off meander is sealed by deposition, forming an oxbow lake.

e)

The river flows straight on and the meander separates.

10.

Select all reasons why many dairies are located in rural areas (5).

a)

Raw materials such as milk are available nearby as cows, sheep, and goats graze near farms.

b)

Transport costs are higher in rural areas.

c)

Milk is perishable and can be delivered to the dairy before it goes off.

d)

Land is lower cost and there is plenty of space to build a dairy.

e)

Dairies can be near raw materials even if far from markets because processed products can be transported widely.

11.

Explain why there is a relationship between HDI and average number of years of education. (3)

a)

Education is used as part of the HDI calculation.

b)

High HDI countries have better quality/more schools and teachers.

c)

In low HDI countries, children often work from an early age due to lack of legislation preventing child employment.

d)

HDI excludes education so school years are unrelated.

e)

In high HDI countries, boys and girls are treated equally and can attend school.

12.

Compare the usefulness of HDI and the total GNP (Gross National Product) of a country as indicators of its level of development. (4)

a)

HDI is a composite index that includes education and health indicators.

b)

GNP values are directly comparable between countries even when currency values vary.

c)

HDI is measured on a 0 to 1 scale, enabling useful comparison between countries.

d)

A high GNP does not always mean a high quality of life or standard of living.

e)

Total GNP does not consider population size.

13.

Suggest reasons why the percentage of women employed in the tertiary sector in cities in India has changed between 1984 and 2018. (5)

a)

Women and girls have become more qualified and skilled.

b)

Gender equality/emancipation has enabled women to get jobs in banks and offices.

c)

Growth of the tertiary/service sector has increased opportunities.

d)

Fewer women migrated to cities during this period.

e)

Smaller families mean women have more time to work.

14.

Describe the problems which overpopulation may cause to the natural environment. (3)

a)

Deforestation and loss of vegetation.

b)

Reduction of biodiversity and disruption of ecosystems/food chains.

c)

Atmospheric pollution, including greenhouse gases and acid rain.

d)

Overpopulation reduces soil erosion by increasing plant cover.

e)

Water pollution and reduced aquifer levels.

15.

Explain how birth rates are being reduced in many LEDCs. (5)

a)

Greater availability and use of contraception/family planning.

b)

Legal access to abortion.

c)

Later marriage means many people have children later in life.

d)

Rising infant mortality increases desired family size.

e)

Government anti‑natal policies such as a one‑child policy.

16.

Describe four different problems faced by people living in large urban areas in LEDCs. (4)

a)

Difficulty finding affordable housing; cramped squatter settlements/homelessness.

b)

Traffic congestion and jams.

c)

Abundant, easy access to clean water for all residents.

d)

Air pollution from smog and car exhausts.

e)

Poor sanitation and waterborne diseases.

17.

Explain why urban areas are attractive to migrants from rural areas in LEDCs (5). Select all reasons that apply.

a)

Employment is available with higher pay and better jobs

b)

Better availability of hospitals and health care

c)

Better access to water supply and sanitation

d)

Urban areas have a higher risk of drought than rural areas

e)

Access to public transport

18.

Describe three different characteristics of a coral reef (3). Select all statements that correctly describe coral reefs.

a)

They consist of living creatures such as polyps and zooxanthellae

b)

They are composed primarily of calcium carbonate

c)

They are typically found in deep, dark freshwater lakes

d)

They include many different species and function as an ecosystem

e)

They often have small holes in their structure and can be fragile

19.

Describe the conditions that are required for the development of a coral reef (4). Select all conditions that are necessary.

a)

Sunlight is needed; coral cannot grow where there is no light

b)

Water temperatures between 18182727 C\mathrm{^\circ C}

c)

Water shallower than 60607070 metres

d)

Water free from sediment and pollution (clear, clean)

e)

Freshwater conditions are required

20.

Explain how coral reefs and mangroves can benefit people living on the coast (5). Select all benefits that apply.

a)

Protection of the coast from erosion, storms, flooding, and tsunamis

b)

Provide food through fishing and catching crabs and shellfish

c)

Tourism encourages economic development and earns revenue

d)

Remove carbon from the atmosphere (carbon sinks), reducing global warming

e)

They increase coastal erosion, damaging roads and housing

21.

Explain how a spit is formed in a coastal area. Include a labeled diagram (7). Based on the diagram showing a coastline with prevailing wind direction, longshore drift moving beach material in a zigzag pattern, deposition at a change in the coastline, and a recurved end forming near a salt marsh, select all processes that contribute to spit formation.

a)

Longshore drift transports material along the coast

b)

Prevailing winds determine the angle of wave swash

c)

Backwash returns at right angles to the shore, creating zigzag movement

d)

Deposition occurs where the coastline changes, building out a spit

e)

Strong offshore winds prevent longshore drift and stop spit formation

22.

Explain why transpiration varies from time to time (2). Select all factors that can cause transpiration to change.

a)

Temperature, sunshine, and light intensity

b)

The amount of precipitation or water in the soil

c)

Type of plants and the number or type of leaves

d)

Wind speed that moves air away from the leaf surface, increasing the concentration gradient

e)

Calm air always increases transpiration regardless of other conditions

23.

Explain why overland flow varies from place to place (2) (Overland flow is water that runs across the land after rainfall). Select all factors that influence overland flow.

a)

Amount, density, and type of plant cover or deforestation

b)

Relief and angle of slope

c)

Areas of bare rock

d)

Differences in rainfall (more or less)

e)

Soil infiltration rates

24.

Explain how rivers, such as those shown in Figs. 4.2 and 4.3, erode their banks and bed. (5) Select all processes that apply.

a)

Hydraulic action removing unconsolidated materials from banks and bed

b)

Abrasion by transported load wearing the bed and banks

c)

Corrosion/solution chemically dissolving rock such as limestone

d)

Deposition building up sediment on the bed

e)

Evaporation increasing atmospheric moisture over the channel

25.

Some parts of South Africa experience tropical storms. Describe the problems this may create for farmers. (4) Select all impacts that apply.

a)

Flooding of farmland and crops

b)

Waterlogging of soils

c)

Damage to or blocking of roads preventing transport of produce

d)

Loss of livestock and farm animals

e)

Fertilisers and topsoil washed away, leading to declining soil fertility

26.

Explain how agricultural output can be increased. (5) Select all methods that apply.

a)

Applying fertilisers or manure

b)

Practising crop rotation

c)

Irrigating fields

d)

Mechanising farm operations

e)

Terracing slopes to slow runoff and reduce erosion

27.

Describe the impacts of air pollution. (4) Select all effects that apply.

a)

Breathing difficulties such as asthma or emphysema

b)

Reduced visibility and the formation of smog

c)

Irritation and problems for skin and eyes

d)

Global warming and climate change

e)

Birth defects in humans and animals

28.

Explain why increasing numbers of old dependents may cause problems for LEDCs, such as India. (5) Select all reasons that apply.

a)

Reduction in the size of the workforce and economic activity

b)

Higher dependency ratio placing strain on economically active people

c)

Greater spending on health care and care homes for the elderly

d)

Workers needing to pay higher taxes

e)

Increased need for immigration to meet labour demand

29.

Describe the location of industrial zones within urban areas. (4) Select all locations that apply.

a)

Close to railway lines

b)

Close to roads or motorways

c)

Near the port or river

d)

Around or near the CBD in the inner city

e)

Around the edge of the city on the rural–urban fringe

30.

Select the statements that correctly describe high-order services compared with low-order services. You should refer to examples. (5)

a)

They are found mainly in cities while low-order services are found in most settlements.

b)

They have a smaller sphere of influence than low-order services.

c)

They require a larger threshold population.

d)

They are used less frequently (for example, monthly rather than daily).

e)

They typically sell more expensive comparison goods rather than convenience goods.

31.

Select the features of an ideal location to place a wind vane. (3)

a)

On a high point such as a roof.

b)

In the open, not close to trees.

c)

Where wind flow is not affected or blocked.

d)

Inside a building to protect it from weather.

e)

Where people are unlikely to tamper with it.

32.

Select the actions you would take to use traditional instruments to measure and record wind direction and wind speed for one month. (5)

a)

Use a weather vane to determine wind direction.

b)

Refer to compass points to note the direction the arrow points.

c)

Use an anemometer to measure wind speed.

d)

Observe and record the figure shown on the instrument’s dial.

e)

Record measurements at the same time each day.

33.

Select the attractions of living along a coastline. (4)

a)

Opportunities for fishing and related livelihoods.

b)

Access to port and harbour trade activities.

c)

Scenic beauty such as cliffs, beaches, and sea views.

d)

Fresh air and cooler temperatures with a quiet, peaceful environment.

e)

High likelihood of frequent earthquakes.

34.

Select the processes that explain how longshore drift formed the Homer Spit. (5)

a)

Prevailing winds approach the coast at an angle.

b)

Waves and swash move sediment at the same angle set by the wind.

c)

Backwash carries sediment straight back at right angles to the shoreline.

d)

Beach materials move in a zigzag pattern along the coast.

e)

Deposition occurs where the angle of the coast changes.

35.

Select ways the tourist industry benefits people living in areas where tourism has developed. Do not write about employment. (4)

a)

Improved roads and airports are constructed.

b)

Tourist spending leads to a multiplier effect in the local economy.

c)

Taxes raised from tourists support public services.

d)

Investment improves water and electricity supply networks.

e)

Tourism reduces investment in schools and hospitals.

36.

During periods with few tourists, select the problems a country dependent on tourism may face. (5)

a)

Unemployment or not enough seasonal work.

b)

Irregular or low income and a decrease in the economy (e.g., GNP/GNI).

c)

Businesses have to close or go bankrupt.

d)

Severe traffic congestion due to overcrowded streets.

e)

Workers must regularly work long hours.

37.

During periods with many tourists, select the problems a country dependent on tourism may face. (5)

a)

Overcrowded streets and shops.

b)

Traffic congestion causing delays for locals.

c)

Atmospheric and water pollution.

d)

Water scarcity or rationing with priority given to tourists.

e)

Inflation and price increases for goods such as food.

38.

A temperate climate is never extremely hot or extremely cold and has moderate rainfall spread across the year. Explain how mixed farmers may benefit from a temperate climate. (3)

a)

Moderate rainfall reduces the need for irrigation for crops and animals

b)

Stable temperatures lessen stress on crops and livestock

c)

High yields allow increased output and profit

d)

Animals must be kept indoors due to cold extremes

e)

Pasture grows well so there is less need for artificial feed

39.

Describe how the relief of the land influences the way land is used for agriculture. (4)

a)

Flat land is suitable for cultivation and can be easily mechanised

b)

Steep slopes are more suited to grazing than to arable farming

c)

Higher land has colder temperatures which may limit crops

d)

Aspect affects sunshine; south-facing slopes in northern hemisphere favour ripening of vines

e)

Slopes are never susceptible to soil erosion

40.

Suggest reasons why a farmer in Queensland is likely to grow many different crops on the farm. (5)

a)

Risk is spread because if one crop fails, others may succeed

b)

Different market demands can be met by diversifying crops

c)

Income can be received at different times through the year

d)

Only flat land can be used, so diversification is limited

e)

Different parts of the farm suit different crops, allowing crop rotation and maintaining soil fertility

41.

Explain two different reasons why there may be small areas of high population density within large areas that are sparsely populated. (4)

a)

Settlements near rivers or oases offer water supply in arid regions

b)

Mining or oil drilling creates employment hubs

c)

Valley floors in mountainous areas provide flatter land for settlement

d)

Dry-point sites in marshy areas offer firmer ground

e)

Remote areas far from transport routes

42.

Using evidence from Figs. 1.2, 1.3 and 1.4 only, explain the reasons for the distribution of population in Australia. (5)

a)

People concentrate where rainfall and water sources are available

b)

Agriculture and irrigation are more productive in wetter areas

c)

Mining regions attract workers and lead to roads and railways that reduce isolation

d)

Coastal areas have tourism and employment opportunities that draw people

e)

Most people choose deserts to avoid flood risk

43.

The migration of people from rural areas may result in rural depopulation. Describe the problems caused for rural areas by rural depopulation. (4)

a)

Closure or reduction of local services such as schools and clinics

b)

Ageing population and labour shortages in farming and rural industries

c)

Decline of the local economy and fewer jobs

d)

Improved access to services due to lower demand

e)

Underuse or abandonment of land and facilities

44.

Using evidence from Figs. 2.2 and 2.3 only, identify the problems of living in the squatter settlement shown. Select all that apply (5 marks).

a)

Homes built of flimsy materials easily damaged in storms

b)

Waste and stagnant water present near homes indicating poor sanitation

c)

Limited space and privacy inside small dwellings

d)

Access to homes is difficult due to narrow, raised walkways

e)

High-rise apartment blocks provide safe, serviced housing

45.

Describe the likely changes to the characteristics of the river as it flows from X to Y when a tributary joins the main river. Select all that apply (4 marks).

a)

Width increases

b)

Depth increases

c)

Cross-sectional area increases

d)

Wetted perimeter increases

e)

Gradient becomes steeper

46.

As the river flows from X to Y, which changes are expected along its course? Select all that apply (4 marks).

a)

Velocity increases

b)

Gradient decreases (becomes less steep)

c)

Average particle size in the river’s load decreases

d)

Channel becomes more meandering

e)

Erosion increases and deposition decreases

47.

Suggest why flooding of the River Vltava may occur. Select all that apply (5 marks).

a)

Prolonged heavy rainfall leading to saturated soils

b)

Urbanisation creating impermeable surfaces that reduce infiltration

c)

Snow and ice melting in the drainage basin

d)

Deforestation reducing interception and increasing runoff

e)

Construction of high levees that greatly increase channel capacity

48.
Question Image

Match each stage in the formation of an oxbow lake to its description (7 marks).

a)

Erosion on outer bends of a meander

1.

Hydraulic action and abrasion remove material on the outer bank

b)

Deposition on inner bends

2.

Sediment builds up on the inner bank forming point bars

c)

Meander neck narrows

3.

Outer and inner bank processes bring the two loops closer together

d)

Neck is cut through during a flood

4.

River breaks through the neck creating a cutoff

e)

New straighter river course forms and the old meander is sealed by deposition

5.

Deposition isolates the former meander, forming the oxbow lake

49.

Y is labelled on a convergent (destructive) plate boundary. Explain why plate movements cause volcanoes to erupt at Y. (3)

a)

Plates converge; the denser plate subducts and melts to produce magma

b)

Intense friction at the subduction zone generates heat that aids melting

c)

Pressure from magma forces it up through cracks to erupt

d)

Plates slide past each other smoothly with no sticking so magma cannot form

50.

Z is labelled on a conservative plate boundary. Describe the processes which may result in earthquakes in the region around Z. (4)

a)

Plates slide past each other at different speeds alongside one another

b)

Friction causes plates to lock and pressure builds

c)

When pressure is overcome, plates jolt and energy is released

d)

Seismic waves spread vibrations to the surface

e)

A subducting plate melts to form magma that triggers earthquakes at Z

51.

Describe the problems caused for people by volcanic eruptions. (5)

a)

Loss of life and injury

b)

Ash clouds and toxic fumes cause health problems

c)

Homes and property are damaged or destroyed

d)

Immediate improvement in soil fertility reduces impacts on people

e)

Air travel is disrupted by widespread ash clouds

52.

Describe and explain the relationship between the level of development of a country and its employment structure. (5) (Note: Max 3 on each description/explanation.)

a)

As development increases, the share of primary employment decreases

b)

MEDCs have high tertiary and quaternary employment

c)

Secondary employment rises and then falls as development increases

d)

Mechanisation increases reliance on primary labour

e)

Increasing wealth and demand for services raise tertiary employment

53.

Explain why many people living in rural areas in LEDCs do not have enough water. (3)

a)

Drought and high evaporation

b)

Long distance from water sources or lack of reservoirs and wells

c)

Abundant modern treatment plants provide free safe water to rural communities

d)

Water sources are polluted; treatment or imported bottled water is unaffordable

54.

Describe the problems caused by water shortages in rural areas of LEDCs. (4)

a)

Crops fail or have low yields; irrigation water is lacking

b)

Farm animals die

c)

People suffer dehydration and water-borne diseases due to lack of safe drinking water

d)

Improved sanitation reduces disease immediately

e)

People migrate away or conflict occurs over scarce water

55.

Select two advantages and two disadvantages for LEDCs when large numbers of people move away from them. Select all that apply. (4)

a)

Remittances sent back to families

b)

Less pressure on employment

c)

Loss of skills/brain drain

d)

Fewer people paying taxes

e)

More food produced

56.

Select reasons why many workers and their families move away from LEDCs such as the Philippines. Select all that apply. (5)

a)

Difficulty finding employment

b)

To obtain better education/training

c)

High pay in the home country

d)

To obtain better healthcare

e)

To escape war/conflict or an unstable government

57.

Describe the site and situation of settlement X shown in the photograph. Select all the features that apply. (3)

a)

In a valley with gentle lower slopes

b)

At the base of steep cliffs in the mountains

c)

On a coastal plain next to the sea

d)

In shelter

e)

Far from farmland and forest

58.

Suggest reasons why the settlement at X has remained small and not grown into an urban area. Select all that apply and develop your choices. (4)

a)

Limited flat land to build on because of steep slopes

b)

Isolation from main roads and transport routes

c)

Presence of large factories providing many jobs

d)

Cold winters and blocked roads make building and travel difficult

e)

Abundant employment opportunities nearby

59.

Select reasons why many people aged 65 and over would like to live in a rural area. Select all that apply. (5)

a)

Quiet and peaceful, less stressed

b)

More open space and closer to nature

c)

Higher crime rates

d)

Less air pollution

e)

Need to commute to work daily

60.

Explain why many people still live in areas where earthquakes occur. Select all that apply. (4)

a)

Poverty prevents them from moving

b)

Emotional attachment to place and family ties

c)

Close to work and schools

d)

Unaware of danger or prepared to take risks

e)

Government bans building in safe areas

61.

Explain the advantages of living close to a volcano such as Mount Vesuvius. Select all that apply. (5)

a)

Fertile soils give high crop yields

b)

Tourism provides jobs and income

c)

Geothermal energy and hot water as renewable power

d)

Scenic beauty attracts residents and tourists

e)

Frequent lava flows destroy homes