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Honors Anatomy & Physiology Fall Semester Exam Practice

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the smallest unit of all living things?

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ system

d)

Organ

2.

The heart and blood vessels are the primary organs of the ________ system.

a)

lymphatic

b)

integumentary

c)

cardiovascular

d)

muscular

3.

The skeletal muscles that contract and shorten to move the bones form the ________ system.

a)

skeletal

b)

muscular

c)

endocrine

d)

reproductive

4.

The ________ system rids the body of indigestible food residue in feces while the ________ system removes nitrogen-containing metabolic waste in urine.

a)

urinary; digestive

b)

digestive; urinary

c)

reproductive; digestive

d)

cardiovascular; urinary

5.

The ability to sense a mosquito landing on your arm and swat it away is described as ________.

a)

homeostasis

b)

metabolism

c)

excretion

d)

responsiveness (irritability)

6.

When body temperature rises above 37°C, sweat glands release sweat to cool the body. What part of this negative feedback mechanism is the sweat gland?

a)

Stimulus

b)

Receptor

c)

Effector

d)

Control center

7.

In anatomical position, the palms of the hands are assumed to be facing ________.

a)

behind

b)

forward

c)

down

d)

to the side

8.

The central region of the thoracic cavity containing the heart is called the ________.

a)

visceral cavity

b)

quadrant

c)

pleural cavity

d)

mediastinum

9.

The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the ________ region.

a)

left hypochondriac

b)

hypogastric (pubic)

c)

right hypochondriac

d)

right lumbar

10.

The diaphragm creates a ________ section by dividing the ventral body cavity into superior and inferior subdivisions.

a)

transverse (cross)

b)

midsagittal

c)

median

d)

frontal (coronal)

11.

The two major internal body cavities are the ________ cavity and the ________ cavity.

a)

cranial; dorsal

b)

thoracic; ventral

c)

ventral; dorsal

d)

abdominopelvic; thoracic

12.

Which body cavity can be further subdivided into quadrants and regions?

a)

Cranial

b)

Spinal

c)

Dorsal

d)

Abdominopelvic

13.

The epigastric region is ________ to the right hypochondriac region of the abdominopelvic cavity.

a)

lateral

b)

dorsal

c)

medial

d)

superior

14.

The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships to one another is called ________.

a)

anatomy

b)

physiology

c)

homeostasis

d)

negative feedback

15.

Which of the following levels of organization is inclusive of all others?

a)

Chemical level

b)

Tissue level

c)

Cellular level

d)

Organ level

e)

Organ system level

16.

The structural and functional unit of all living things is the ________.

a)

element

b)

cell

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

e)

organelle

17.

Which of the following is not a structural component of the nucleus?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Nuclear pores

d)

Nuclear envelope

e)

Golgi apparatus

18.

What are the three basic parts or regions of a cell?

a)

Cytoplasm, membrane, extracell fluid

b)

Nucleus, cytoplasm, plasma membrane

c)

Nuclear envelope, DNA, nuclear pores

d)

Nucleus, intracell fluid, organelles

e)

Cytosol, cytoplasm, intracell fluid

19.

The membrane connections that prevent the leaking of fluid between cells are called ________.

a)

microvilli

b)

desmosomes

c)

tight junctions

d)

gap junctions

20.

Muscle cells need abundant ATP for contractions. Which organelle must commonly be found in muscle cells to accommodate ATP production?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Golgi apparatus

21.

The passive process that involves the movement of water through aquaporins is ________.

a)

solute pumping

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

endocytosis

d)

osmosis

22.

What separates the intracellular fluid from the extracellular fluid?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Mitochondrion

23.

The nucleotides of DNA join in a complementary way in which adenine pairs with ________ while cytosine pairs with ________.

a)

adenine; cytosine

b)

uracil; guanine

c)

thymine; guanine

d)

guanine; thymine

24.

The period of the cell cycle when the cell grows and performs its metabolic activities is ________.

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

interphase

d)

anaphase

25.

The DNA segment that carries information for building one protein or polypeptide chain is called a(n) ________.

a)

codon

b)

amino acid

c)

gene

d)

anticodon

26.

Groups of cells that are similar in both structure and function are known as ________.

a)

organs

b)

tissues

c)

organ systems

d)

atoms

27.

Which of the following is not a hallmark feature of epithelial tissues?

a)

Epithelial tissues are well vascularized.

b)

Epithelial tissues cover body surfaces inside and outside.

c)

Epithelial tissues have an apical surface.

d)

Epithelial tissues have a basement membrane.

28.

The specific type of epithelial tissue found lining organs of the digestive system such as the small intestine is ________.

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

simple columnar

d)

pseudostratified columnar

29.

Tendons and ligaments are classified as ________.

a)

dense connective (regular fibrous) tissue

b)

loose connective tissue

c)

skeletal muscle tissue

d)

areolar connective tissue

30.

The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is ________.

a)

cardiac muscle

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

smooth muscle

d)

both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle

31.

The pleura and pericardium are examples of ________ membranes that cover organs in a body cavity closed to the exterior.

a)

synovial

b)

cutaneous

c)

serous

d)

mucous

32.

The ________ membrane lines the fibrous capsule surrounding joints.

a)

mucous

b)

serous

c)

synovial

d)

cutaneous

33.

The skin and its appendages (nails, glands, and hairs) are collectively called the ________.

a)

immune system

b)

skeletal system

c)

integumentary system

d)

endocrine system

34.

Which of the following is a vital function of the integumentary system?

a)

The skin aids in material transport.

b)

The skin synthesizes vitamin D.

c)

The skin absorbs vitamin C.

d)

The epidermis stores glycogen for energy.

35.

Although you get wet while swimming, which protein makes the epidermis a tough protective layer?

a)

Mucus

b)

Keratin

c)

Melanin

d)

Serous fluid

36.

The epidermis is composed of ________.

a)

adipose tissue

b)

stratified squamous epithelium

c)

simple columnar epithelium

d)

areolar tissue

37.

The outermost layer of the epidermis is keratinized and known as stratum ________.

a)

corneum

b)

basale

c)

spinosum

d)

granulosum

38.

Which of these layers directly connects to the dermis?

a)

Stratum lucidum

b)

Stratum basale

c)

Stratum granulosum

d)

Stratum corneum

39.

What provides toughness to the dermis and holds water in this skin layer?

a)

Elastic fibers

b)

Melanocytes

c)

Collagen fibers

d)

Merkel cells

40.

Which of the following contains chemicals that kill bacteria and prevent bacterial invasions of the skin?

a)

Sweat

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Sebum

d)

Keratin

41.

The gland that produces sweat is indicated by ________. (Use the document: sweat gland = Label E)

a)

Label E

b)

Label D

c)

Label A

d)

Label C

42.

The sebaceous and sweat glands associated with the skin are classified as ________ glands because they release secretions on to the skin's surface via ducts.

a)

exocrine

b)

endocrine

c)

serous

d)

mucous

43.

Which of the following is the least malignant and most common skin cancer that affects the cells of stratum basale?

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Basal cell carcinoma

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Malignant melanoma

44.

A nurse tends to a patient with a sunburn. She sees blisters and red, swollen skin. The patient complains of pain. What feature of this burn distinguishes it from a first-degree burn?

a)

Blisters

b)

Pain

c)

Swollen skin

d)

Red skin

45.

A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by ________.

a)

measuring urinary output and fluid intake

b)

observing tissues that are usually moist

c)

blood analysis

d)

using the "rule of nines"

46.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

a)

Storage of fat and minerals

b)

Support of the body

c)

Protection of soft body organs

d)

Regulation of blood pressure

47.

What bones protect the spinal cord?

a)

Ribs

b)

Vertebrae

c)

Coxal bones

d)

Sternum

48.

Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called ________ bones.

a)

flat

b)

long

c)

irregular

d)

short

49.

Small canals that connect osteocytes in their lacunae to the central canal are known as ________.

a)

canaliculi

b)

perforating (Volkmann's) canals

c)

central (Haversian) canals

d)

perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

50.

The process of bone formation is known as ________.

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

hemostasis

c)

metabolism

d)

ossification

51.

Mothers who breast-feed their children will lose a percentage of calcium from their bones. Which hormone is responsible for raising blood calcium levels when they drop below homeostatic levels?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Insulin

52.

An eighty-six-year-old woman has lost several inches of height due to crushed bone in her vertebrae. What type is common in osteoporotic bones of older people?

a)

Compression

b)

Impacted

c)

Greenstick

d)

Spiral

53.

The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the ________ skeleton.

a)

main

b)

axial

c)

central

d)

appendicular

54.

The temporal bones are joined with the parietal bones at the ________ sutures.

a)

lambdoid

b)

squamous

c)

sagittal

d)

coronal

55.

From superior to inferior, what is the correct order of the vertebrae?

a)

sacral, cervical, and lumbar

b)

cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

c)

cervical, lumbar, and thoracic

d)

lumbar, thoracic, and cervical

56.

The head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula.

a)

coracoid process

b)

glenoid cavity

c)

suprascapular notch

d)

acromion process

57.

Two or more bones meet at a location called a(n) ________.

a)

marrow cavity

b)

articulation (joint)

c)

hematoma

d)

fracture

58.

Immovable joints are functionally classified as ________.

a)

symphyses

b)

diarthroses

c)

synarthroses

d)

amphiarthroses

59.

What does collagen contribute as a component of bone?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Hardness

c)

Brittleness

d)

Flexibility

60.

Which of the following could create an open, or compound, fracture?

a)

When the bone is broken into many fragments

b)

When the broken bone penetrates through the skin

c)

When the broken bone ends are forced into each other

d)

When the bone is crushed

61.

Striated involuntary muscle tissue found in the heart is ________.

a)

dense regular

b)

dense irregular

c)

smooth muscle

d)

skeletal muscle

e)

cardiac muscle

62.

What organelle wraps and surrounds the myofibril and stores calcium?

a)

Cross bridge

b)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

Sarcolemma

d)

Sarcomere

63.

Muscle tissue has the ability to shorten when adequately stimulated, a characteristic known as ________.

a)

extensibility

b)

irritability

c)

contractility

d)

elasticity

64.

One neuron and all the skeletal muscles it stimulates is known as a ________.

a)

neuromuscular junction

b)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

motor unit

d)

synaptic cleft

65.

According to the sliding filament theory, how does muscle contraction occur?

a)

Myosin heads attach and detach from thin filaments, causing thin filaments to shorten.

b)

Both thick and thin filaments shorten as the muscle contracts.

c)

Myosin heads form cross bridges and pull thin filaments, causing them to slide.

d)

A bands bunch up and shorten as myosin heads attach to thin filaments.

66.

The method that regenerates the most ATP during muscle activity is ________.

a)

anaerobic pathway

b)

aerobic pathway

c)

direct phosphorylation

d)

lactic acid pathway

67.

A smooth, sustained contraction, with no evidence of relaxation, is called ________.

a)

a twitch

b)

summing of contractions

c)

fused, or complete, tetanus

d)

unfused, or incomplete, tetanus

68.

The point of muscle attachment to an immovable or less movable bone is known as the ________.

a)

insertion

b)

action

c)

origin

d)

innervation

69.

Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?

a)

Production of movement

b)

Maintenance of posture

c)

Stabilization of joints

d)

Generation of heat

e)

Blood cell formation

70.

What is released by axon terminals into the synaptic cleft to stimulate a muscle to contract?

a)

Myosin heads

b)

Actin

c)

Potassium ions

d)

Neurotransmitter

e)

Sodium ions

71.

Which organelle stores calcium in muscle fibers?

a)

Sarcolemma

b)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

Sarcoplasm

d)

Myofilament

e)

Myofibril

72.

Why are calcium ions necessary for skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

Calcium ions trigger the binding of myosin heads to actin filaments.

b)

Calcium ions release the inhibition on Z discs.

c)

Calcium ions cause ATP binding to actin.

d)

Calcium ions increase the speed of the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma.

e)

Calcium ions bind to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments.

73.

What enzyme breaks down acetylcholine into acetic acid and choline to prevent continued contraction of the muscle fiber?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Potassium ions

c)

Cross bridges

d)

Acetylcholinesterase

e)

Calcium ions

74.

Which of the following is a type isometric exercise in which muscles increase in size and strength?

a)

Jogging

b)

Dancing

c)

Biking

d)

Swimming

e)

Pushing against a wall

75.

Which one of the following is not a criterion generally used in naming muscles?

a)

Number of origins of the muscle

b)

Shape of the muscle

c)

Relative size of the muscle

76.

What are the two main functional subdivisions of the nervous system?

a)

Somatic and autonomic

b)

Sensory and motor

c)

Central and peripheral

d)

Autonomic and sympathetic

77.

What cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS?

a)

Microglial cells

b)

Satellite cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Schwann cells

78.

Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called ________.

a)

oligodendrocytes

b)

microglia

c)

neuroglia

d)

myelin sheaths

79.

The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the ________.

a)

axon

b)

synaptic cleft

c)

cell body

d)

dendrite

80.

The gaps between Schwann cells found at regular intervals in peripheral system neurons are called ________.

a)

myelin sheaths

b)

nodes of Ranvier

c)

axon terminals

d)

synaptic clefts

81.

Sensory receptors located in muscles and tendons are termed ________.

a)

Meissner's corpuscles

b)

proprioceptors

c)

lamellar corpuscles

d)

association neurons

82.

A polarized neuron is characterized by the presence of more ________ ions outside the cell and more ________ ions inside the cell.

a)

calcium; sodium

b)

potassium; sodium

c)

sodium; calcium

d)

sodium; potassium

83.

Myelinated fibers form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________ matter.

a)

motor; sensory

b)

gray; white

c)

sensory; motor

d)

white; gray

84.

What type of neuron connects sensory and motor neurons in neural pathways?

a)

Efferent neurons

b)

Bipolar neurons

c)

Afferent neurons

d)

Interneurons (association neurons)

85.

After repolarization, what ions are pumped out of the cell?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Both sodium and potassium

d)

Calcium

86.

The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus collectively constitute the ________.

a)

diencephalon (interbrain)

b)

cerebrum

c)

brain stem

d)

cerebellum

87.

The brain and spinal cord are protected and cushioned by three connective tissue membranes that are collectively called ________.

a)

ventricles

b)

meninges

c)

sinuses

d)

arachnoid villi

88.

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed from blood by clusters of capillaries in the brain known as ________.

a)

arachnoid villi

b)

choroid plexuses

c)

ventricles

d)

sinuses

89.

Which of the following indicates a contusion?

a)

Aphasia

b)

Coma due to injury to the reticular activating system

c)

Seeing "stars"

d)

Hemiplegia

90.

Which branch of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes the body during extreme situations, such as rage or fear?

a)

Somatic division

b)

Sympathetic division

c)

Parasympathetic division

d)

Sensory division

91.

The membrane that covers the outer surface of the eye and lines the eyelids is the ________.

a)

conjunctiva

b)

retina

c)

sclera

d)

choroid

92.

Which gland is located above the lateral end of each eye and releases tears?

a)

Tarsal

b)

Ceruminous

c)

Ciliary

d)

Lacrimal

93.

The fibrous covering of the eye consists of the white outer layer known as the ________, and a transparent portion known as the ________.

a)

pupil; cornea

b)

iris; pupil

c)

conjunctiva; sclera

d)

sclera; cornea

94.

Which layer of the eye contains photoreceptors known as rods and cones?

a)

Choroid

b)

Retina

c)

Sclera

d)

Cornea

95.

Which portion of the retina contains a concentration of cones?

a)

Fovea centralis

b)

Optic disc

c)

Blind spot

d)

Ciliary body

96.

The biconvex structure that focuses light on the retina is the ________.

a)

iris

b)

cornea

c)

pupil

d)

lens

97.

What separates the aqueous humor in the anterior segment from the vitreous humor in the posterior segment of the eye?

a)

Cornea

b)

Ciliary body

c)

Lens

d)

Iris

98.

What is the ability of the eye to focus on close objects?

a)

Accommodation

b)

Refraction

c)

Inversion

d)

Binocular vision

99.

Fibers from the medial side of each eye cross over to the opposite side of the brain at the ________.

a)

optic tracts

b)

optic radiation

c)

convergence

d)

optic chiasma

100.

The membrane that divides the outer ear from the middle ear is the ________.

a)

Tympanic membrane (eardrum)

b)

Cochlea

c)

Auricle (pinna)

d)

Vestibule