WorksheetsUnit 5 Study Guide
Total questions: 74
Worksheet time: 37mins
Which feature best distinguishes an Indiana pouch from an ileal conduit?
Nonvalved diversion causing constant urinary leakage
Ureters anastomosed to cutaneous stoma appliance
Catheterizable continent reservoir with internal patch
External collection device continuously collects urine
A key patient teaching point after Indiana pouch creation is to self-catheterize at what typical interval?
Only before bedtime nightly
Only when feeling a strong urge
Every 4–6 hours routinely
Every 1–2 hours around the clock
Which postoperative priority is MOST critical for an ileal conduit?
Daily bladder training exercises
Meticulous peristomal skin care
Avoiding abdominal muscle use
Intermittent self-catheterization
Why does an ileal conduit result in continuous urine drainage into an external pouch?
No valve allows voluntary control
Sphincter training enhances retention
A valve mechanism expels urine intermittently
Urethra remains connected to bladder
Which statement describes a core step in TURBT for bladder tumors?
Open cystotomy with bladder removal
Transurethral resection using cystoscope
Percutaneous cryoablation under CT guidance
External beam radiation as sole therapy
What is a known limitation of TURBT that may necessitate repeat procedures?
Permanent loss of urethral function
Mandatory neobladder reconstruction
High risk of urinary diversion need
Reoccurrence and scarring possibility
In orthotopic bladder surgery, the neobladder is typically constructed so urine exits through which route?
Percutaneous suprapubic catheter
Cutaneous stoma to collection device
Ureterostomy directly to skin
Urethra in anatomic position
Which candidate profile is MOST appropriate for orthotopic neobladder reconstruction?
Normal renal and liver function, adequate life expectancy
Severe inflammatory bowel disease with obesity
Advanced metastatic disease with poor liver function
Child with limited motor skills and short lifespan
Which specific surgical risk is higher after perineal radical prostatectomy compared with other approaches?
Infection from proximity to rectum and stool
Diaphragmatic injury from high insufflation
Thromboembolism due to long operative time
Anastomotic leak from ureteral reimplantation
After a mastectomy, which action helps prevent contractures and improves lymph flow in the affected arm?
Begin gradual arm and shoulder exercises
Keep the arm completely immobilized
Apply continuous cold compresses daily
Avoid any movement for two weeks
Which instruction is appropriate regarding blood pressure measurements after a mastectomy on the right side?
Use thigh cuff instead of any arm
Use the right arm only for accuracy
Rotate BP readings between both arms
Avoid BP readings on the right arm
A patient is typically discharged after a mastectomy within what timeframe if stable?
Within 6–8 hours post-surgery
Approximately three weeks later
After 5–7 days inpatient stay
About 24–48 hours post-surgery
Which symptom after mastectomy requires prompt reporting to the healthcare provider?
Redness and unusual swelling at the site
Mild soreness during first motion
Temporary fatigue after analgesics
Decreased appetite on day one
For DVT prevention in oncology patients receiving chemotherapy and immobile, which condition may limit preventive measures?
Low platelet count limiting interventions
Normal hemoglobin without symptoms
Stable electrolytes and hydration
Mild leukocytosis from steroids
During intravesical chemotherapy, how long is the solution generally retained in the bladder?
Approximately 1–3 hours total
Ten minutes with irrigation
Overnight with continuous clamp
Five hours with frequent voids
What positioning instruction accompanies intravesical chemotherapy instillation?
Sit upright continuously
Remain supine without turning
Ambulate briskly each hour
Change position every 15 minutes
Which statement best describes external beam radiation in cancer care?
It is the most widely used radiation method
It is rarely combined with surgery
It replaces all hormone therapies
It only treats metastatic disease
What is a key nursing safety principle when caring for a patient with a brachytherapy implant?
Limit time near patient and use shielding
Skip wearing a film badge if brief
Maintain prolonged bedside presence
Remove shielding to build rapport
Before brachytherapy care begins, how should the nurse address patient anxiety about restrictions?
Promise unrestricted family visitation
Avoid discussing limits to prevent worry
Explain reasons for time and distance limits
Delegate explanations to family only
Who determines allowable bedside time at a specific distance for brachytherapy precautions?
Radiation safety officer provides guidance
Patient chooses based on comfort
Charge nurse on the unit decides
Primary physician estimates roughly
Which mechanism describes how hormone therapy can cause tumor regression in estrogen receptor–positive breast cancer?
Blocking estrogen receptors on tumor cells
Stimulating progesterone receptor activity
Increasing circulating estrogen levels
Enhancing aromatase enzyme function
Aromatase inhibitors primarily reduce estrogen levels by acting on which target?
Ovarian follicle maturation pathway
Pituitary gonadotropin secretion
Hepatic estrogen conjugation
Aromatase enzyme in adipose tissue
Which statement best characterizes Tamoxifen in breast cancer management?
HPV vaccine adjuvant improving chemotherapy effects
Aromatase activator used in premenopausal patients
Selective estrogen receptor blocker for ER-positive disease
Cytotoxic alkylating agent for triple-negative tumors
A known adverse effect profile of Tamoxifen includes which monitoring priority?
Signs of venous thromboembolism and stroke
Renal failure and hyperkalemia signs
Severe cardiomyopathy development
Thyroid storm and ophthalmopathy
In postmenopausal women with breast cancer, which therapy is commonly used to lower estrogen synthesis?
Aromatase inhibitors as standard therapy
Neupogen for endocrine control
High-dose progesterone therapy
Tamoxifen as first-line for all
Why might aromatase inhibitors be harmful in premenopausal women?
They do not block ovarian estrogen production
They trigger progesterone receptor downregulation
They convert estrogen to androgens rapidly
They cause irreversible ovarian failure
Which test can help identify women with hormone-positive early breast cancer who may avoid chemotherapy by using hormone therapy alone?
FDG-PET standardized uptake value
21-gene recurrence score (OncotypeDX)
Circulating tumor DNA methylome
BRCA1 founder mutation panel
Premenopausal patients with ER-positive breast cancer may benefit from which additional intervention?
Ovarian suppression or removal
Long-term G-CSF monotherapy
HPV booster vaccinations
High-dose fluorouracil cycles
Which description matches the HPV vaccine schedule for primary prevention?
Administer only after age twenty-five
Single intranasal dose at adolescence
Four weekly intramuscular boosters
Begin before first sexual contact, ages 11–12
Gardasil is categorized best as which intervention?
HPV vaccine preventing cervical cancer
G-CSF stimulating neutrophil recovery
Selective estrogen receptor modulator
Anthracycline for metastatic disease
Neupogen (filgrastim) is indicated primarily for which condition in oncology care?
Eradication of residual tumor clones
Suppression of ovarian estrogen output
Prevention of venous thromboembolism
Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia management
What is the rationale for combination chemotherapy regimens in breast cancer?
Different mechanisms act at varied cell-cycle points
Lower total dose reduces resistance always
They eliminate need for surgery universally
They solely increase estrogen receptor levels
Which pair correctly matches a standard breast cancer chemotherapy regimen with its components?
CMF: cisplatin and methotrexate
CAF: carboplatin and fluorouracil
AC: doxorubicin plus cyclophosphamide
CEF: epirubicin with paclitaxel
A patient with metastatic breast cancer may receive which long-term treatment approach?
Ongoing palliative chemotherapy over their lifetime
Immediate discontinuation after partial response
Short single cycle of neoadjuvant chemotherapy
HPV vaccination as sole systemic therapy
Which adverse effect risk is associated with prolonged aromatase inhibitor therapy in postmenopausal women?
Osteoporosis development risk increase
Severe venous thromboembolism always
Irreversible retinal detachment consistently
Neutropenic fever after each cycle
Which chemotherapy regimen is standard for Hodgkin's lymphoma in many protocols?
High-dose methotrexate
Imatinib monotherapy
R-CHOP standard regimen
ABVD regimen combination
In early favorable Hodgkin's lymphoma, how many cycles of combination chemotherapy are typically given?
Eight to ten cycles
Six to eight cycles
One to two cycles
Two to four cycles
Which drug combination is part of the ABVD regimen?
Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine
Rituximab, Bendamustine, Cytarabine, Dexamethasone
Cisplatin, Etoposide, Bleomycin, Ifosfamide
Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vincristine, Prednisone
What is the primary goal of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) in HIV management?
Decrease viral load and maintain CD4 counts
Eradicate HIV from latent reservoirs
Boost antibody production permanently
Prevent all medication side effects
Which statement best describes how ART works in the HIV replication cycle?
It targets various points of the replication cycle
It only blocks viral entry at the membrane
It works after replication is fully complete
It solely inhibits integrase without others
A key disadvantage of ART, despite single-tablet options, is which of the following?
Eliminates need for monitoring
No drug–drug interactions at all
Rapid cure within several weeks
High cost and medication side effects
Which interaction warning is important when counseling patients starting ART?
Herbal products like St. John’s wort can interact
All antacids increase ART effectiveness
PPIs always neutralize ART side effects
OTC drugs rarely cause interactions
For prostate cancer screening discussions, which ages align with risk-based recommendations?
50 average risk, 45 high risk, 40 highest risk
60 average risk, 55 high risk, 50 highest risk
55 average risk, 50 high risk, 45 highest risk
40 average risk, 35 high risk, 30 highest risk
Which statement about PSA testing is accurate?
PSA never changes with prostatitis or aging
PSA is unnecessary with digital rectal exam
Any elevated PSA definitively confirms cancer
High PSA does not always indicate prostate cancer
During follow-up after PSA screening, what combination is commonly performed?
Immediate prostatectomy without tests
Only MRI every five years
Annual PSA test and digital rectal exam
Urinalysis without rectal exam
If PSA or DRE is abnormal, what confirms the diagnosis of prostate cancer?
Bone scan as first-line confirmation
Empiric antibiotic therapy trial
Repeat PSA alone three times
Prostate tissue biopsy for confirmation
Which statement best describes monoclonal antibodies produced in multiple myeloma?
They are one-of-a-kind and often ineffective
They are polyclonal forms and usually neutral
They are many types and broadly protective
They are variable chains and always beneficial
Bence Jones proteins are best characterized as which of the following?
Tumor marker fragments from ovarian tumors
Heavy chain fragments of polyclonal antibodies
Light chain fragments of monoclonal antibodies
Complete antibodies filtered by the kidneys
For average-risk women, which guideline matches mammogram timing?
Begin at 55, every year until age seventy
Begin at 45, yearly to 54, then every two years
Begin at 40, yearly to 60, then stop entirely
Begin at 50, every three years indefinitely
What is the primary purpose of a consistent breast self-exam (BSE)?
Diagnose breast cancer without imaging
Facilitate breast self-awareness of normal changes
Detect only skin lesions on the chest
Replace clinical breast examinations entirely
Which statement about breast self-exam is accurate for patient teaching?
It is not a diagnostic test by itself
It definitively confirms malignancy
It eliminates the need for mammography
It should never be reviewed again
Which combination aligns with ovarian cancer screening practices?
Bimanual pelvic exam, pelvic ultrasound, CA-125
PSA test, digital rectal exam, pelvic MRI
Mammography, breast MRI, nipple cytology
Pap smear alone, HPV genotyping alone
Why are most endometrial cancers diagnosed at an early stage?
Annual colonoscopy reveals incidental findings
CA-125 levels rise in early endometrial cancer
Routine screening tests detect asymptomatic disease
Postmenopausal bleeding prompts early evaluation
Which statement about endometrial cancer screening is correct?
There is no routine screening test available
Annual transvaginal ultrasound is recommended
Pap testing reliably detects early disease
Blood biomarkers screen most asymptomatic cases
Which method is listed for prostate cancer screening?
Transvaginal ultrasound imaging
Mammography with breast tomosynthesis
CA-125 tumor marker assessment
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing
Which factor can contribute to a low platelet count in an HIV patient?
Excess vitamin K from supplementation
Iron deficiency alone without infection
Allergy to shellfish without treatment
HIV infection, antiplatelet antibodies, or drugs
A patient’s CD4 count declines over time during untreated HIV. Which interpretation fits this trend?
Disease progression typically lowers CD4 levels
Laboratory error always explains falling counts
Immune recovery is rapidly occurring
Platelet production is increasing steadily
Which statement about screening frequency for ages 55 and older at average breast cancer risk is accurate?
Mammograms are recommended twice per year
Mammograms are recommended every two years
Mammograms are recommended every three years
Mammograms are recommended only once more
During patient teaching, which action supports effective BSE practice?
Review technique regularly with return demonstration
Avoid asking any questions after first instruction
Rely only on pamphlets without practice
Perform only during scheduled clinic visits
A 28-year-old asks about cervical cancer screening. Which interval is correct?
Every three years for ages 21–29
Every five years for ages 21–29
Yearly for ages 21–29
Only if symptoms develop at ages 21–29
Which ovarian cancer evaluation is most consistent with current practice?
Use PSA to screen for ovarian malignancy
Use CA-125 with imaging rather than as a stand-alone
Rely on CA-125 alone for definitive screening
Skip pelvic exams in asymptomatic individuals
Which screening test is specifically tied to the prostate?
PSA blood test for prostate evaluation
CA-125 blood test for prostate disease
Pap test for prostate abnormalities
HPV test for prostate infection
Which statement best describes the primary purpose of a JP drain after surgery?
Decrease hematoma by continuous suction drainage
Deliver antibiotics directly into surgical site
Allow air to circulate within wound cavity
Measure exact blood loss during the operation
Which nursing action is essential for JP drain care to detect complications?
Apply warm compresses over insertion
Clamp the tubing every four hours
Flush the bulb with sterile saline
Assess color and odor of the drainage
Which body fluids are primary vehicles for HIV transmission?
Blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk
Synovial fluid, peritoneal fluid, amniotic fluid
Urine, feces, cerebrospinal fluid, bile
Sweat, tears, saliva, nasal mucus
Which statement correctly reflects the impact of an undetectable HIV viral load on sexual transmission risk?
Transmission risk is high despite laboratory suppression
Sexual transmission is not possible with undetectable viral load
Transmission risk becomes similar to influenza spread
Transmission is certain during any penetrative sexual act
Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by which pathogen?
Human T-lymphotropic virus one
Epstein–Barr virus type four
Human herpesvirus eight infection
Human papillomavirus sixteen
What is the primary goal of preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV?
Reduce the chance of acquiring HIV in at-risk persons
Eliminate viral reservoirs in chronically infected patients
Cure HIV infection through short-course therapy
Provide immediate immunity after accidental exposure
Within what timeframe should postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) be initiated after a potential HIV exposure?
Within seventy-two hours of the exposure
Within seven days after the exposure
Within twelve hours regardless of risk
Within one month if symptoms develop
Which condition is classified as an AIDS-defining opportunistic cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma of the skin
Prostate adenocarcinoma localized
Kaposi sarcoma among listed malignancies
Papillary thyroid carcinoma type one
Which is an AIDS-defining opportunistic infection from the list used clinically?
Localized tinea corporis infection
Candidiasis among systemic fungal infections
Uncomplicated community strep pharyngitis
Seasonal influenza without pneumonia
Which description defines the AIDS-related wasting syndrome?
Rapid gain of more than ten percent body weight
Loss of at least five percent of current body mass
Stable weight with increased muscle strength
Loss of at least ten percent of ideal body mass
A patient with HIV presents with recurrent Salmonella septicemia. What classification change does this finding support?
Remains HIV infection without progression to AIDS
Meets criteria for AIDS due to opportunistic infection
Indicates drug toxicity rather than immune decline
Indicates cure after effective antimicrobial therapy
A healthcare worker sustains a needlestick from a source patient with high HIV viral load. What is the most appropriate immediate strategy?
Initiate PrEP for long-term prevention only
Wait two weeks for baseline serology testing
Begin no treatment unless symptoms develop
Start PEP urgently within seventy-two hours
