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Medical Terminology Chap 6/7

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which suffix means surgical repair in medical terminology?

a)

-plasty

b)

-lysis

c)

-ptosis

d)

-stasis

2.

The suffix -rrhaphy is best defined as which process?

a)

digestion

b)

opening

c)

vomiting

d)

suture

3.

What does the suffix -rhea indicate in a term like diarrhea?

a)

eating, swallowing

b)

spitting

c)

droop, sag

d)

flow, discharge

4.

Select the suffix that refers to tightening or narrowing of a passage.

a)

-phagia

b)

-tresia

c)

-stasis

d)

-stenosis

5.

In the term hemoptysis, the suffix -ptysis means what?

a)

stretching, dilation

b)

suture

c)

spitting

d)

surgical repair

6.

Which suffix pair both relate to stretching, dilation, or widening?

a)

-rrhage, -rrhea

b)

-ptosis, -tresia

c)

-lysis, -stasis

d)

-ectasis, -ectasia

7.

Which suffix indicates an opening, as in atresia versus -tresia?

a)

-ptosis

b)

-tresia

c)

-rrhaphy

d)

-pepsia

8.

Choose the correct meaning of the suffix -pepsia.

a)

suture

b)

digestion

c)

vomiting

d)

flow, discharge

9.

The suffix -spasm denotes which condition?

a)

bursting forth of blood

b)

sudden, involuntary contraction

c)

tightening or stricture

d)

surgical opening formation

10.

Which suffix means to stop or control, as in hemostasis?

a)

-phagia

b)

-stasis

c)

-ptosis

d)

-plasia

11.

The suffix -rrhage or -rrhagia refers to what event?

a)

drooping of eyelid

b)

bursting forth of blood

c)

spitting of mucus

d)

narrowing of vessels

12.

What is the meaning of the suffix -phagia?

a)

eating, swallowing

b)

digestion

c)

vomiting

d)

surgical repair

13.

The suffix -ptosis would describe which clinical finding?

a)

droop, sag, protrude

b)

to stop or control

c)

opening or orifice

d)

flow or discharge

14.

Match each combining form with its correct meaning.

a)

Bucc/o

1.

cheek

b)

Gastr/o

2.

stomach

c)

Hepat/o

3.

liver

d)

Dent/i

4.

tooth

e)

Chol/e

5.

gallbladder

15.

Match each combining form to the structure named.

a)

Cholangi/o

1.

bile vessel

b)

Cholecyst/o

2.

gallbladder

c)

Choledoch/o

3.

common bile duct

d)

Col/o

4.

colon, large intestine

e)

Colon/o

5.

colon

16.

Which combining form specifically means small intestines?

a)

Jejun/o

b)

Ile/o

c)

Duoden/o

d)

Enter/o

17.

Choose the correct meaning for the combining form Esophag/o.

a)

ileum

b)

esophagus

c)

tongue

d)

palate

18.

Which pair correctly links the combining form to its meaning?

a)

Lip/o = fat

b)

Gloss/o = tongue

c)

Gingiv/o = gums

d)

Labi/o = lip

19.

Select the combining form that means stone, as used in lithotripsy.

a)

Lith/o

b)

Glyc/o

c)

Odont/o

d)

Herni/o

20.

Which combining form refers to sugar, relevant in hyperglycemia?

a)

Or/o

b)

Palat/o

c)

Hepat/o

d)

Glyc/o

21.

Match each oral structure combining form to its meaning.

a)

Cheil/o

1.

lip

b)

Labi/o

2.

lip

c)

Palat/o

3.

palate

d)

Odont/o

4.

tooth

22.

Which compound is a primary nitrogenous waste excreted in human urine?

a)

Glucose absorbed by nephrons

b)

Lactate from anaerobic muscle

c)

Urea formed from amino groups

d)

Bile salts from the gallbladder

23.

Which kidney-produced hormone directly stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow?

a)

Vasopressin from posterior pituitary

b)

Aldosterone from adrenal cortex

c)

Renin secreted by juxtaglomerular

d)

Erythropoietin released by kidneys

24.

Which statement best describes the urinary bladder?

a)

Hollow muscular sac storing urine

b)

Paired ducts draining calyces

c)

Thin capsule around glomeruli

d)

Triangular region called trigone

25.

Where is the trigone located?

a)

Proximal end of renal pelvis

b)

Medial kidney hilum region

c)

Renal cortex around Bowman capsule

d)

Base of bladder near urethral opening

26.

Urination (micturition) is defined as which process?

a)

Expelling urine through urethra

b)

Filtering plasma in glomerulus

c)

Reabsorbing salts to capillaries

d)

Propelling urine by peristalsis

27.

Blood first enters each kidney through which vessels?

a)

Hepatic portal branches

b)

Right and left renal veins

c)

Common iliac arteries

d)

Right and left renal arteries

28.

Arrange the vessels in the correct order as blood approaches the glomerulus.

a)

Artery

1.

Largest incoming vessel

b)

Arteriole

2.

Smaller branching vessel

c)

Capillary

3.

Smallest exchange vessel

29.

What is the glomerulus?

a)

Ball of capillaries for filtration

b)

Muscular sphincter at ureter

c)

Collecting duct in medulla

d)

Hormone-secreting kidney cell

30.

Which structure directly surrounds the glomerulus and collects filtrate?

a)

Bowman capsule enclosing tuft

b)

Renal pelvis funneling calyces

c)

Trigone at bladder base

d)

Proximal ureter muscular tube

31.

During urine formation, which events occur within the renal tubule?

a)

Return of some salts to blood

b)

Reabsorption of water and sugars

c)

Transport of wastes toward pelvis

d)

Synthesis of erythropoietin

e)

Conversion of urea to ammonia

32.

Into which structure is the final tubular waste emptied before entering the ureter?

a)

Peritubular capillary bed

b)

Medullary collecting papilla

c)

Glomerular Bowman space

d)

Renal pelvis narrowing to ureter

33.

Which urine color change most strongly suggests hematuria rather than dehydration or dilution?

a)

Pale straw in the morning

b)

Deep amber after exercise

c)

Smokey-red or brown appearance

d)

Bright yellow with vitamins

34.

A patient’s urine is cloudy with leukocytes and bacteria. Which condition is most consistent with this finding?

a)

Ketoacidosis from prolonged fasting

b)

Liver failure causing bilirubinuria

c)

Urinary tract infection with bacteriuria

d)

Excess water intake causing dilution

35.

Large amounts of albumin detected on urinalysis best indicate which abnormality?

a)

Ketonuria during starvation

b)

Hematuria from kidney stones

c)

Proteinuria consistent with albuminuria

d)

Glycosuria due to hyperglycemia

36.

An infant lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase. Which screening urine finding is expected and why is early detection important?

a)

Glycosuria; avoids diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Phenylketonuria; prevents mental retardation

c)

Hematuria; stops renal colic events

d)

Albuminuria; reduces nephrotic syndrome

37.

Which term means vomiting blood from the digestive tract?

a)

hemostasis

b)

hemoptysis

c)

hematemesis

d)

hemorrhage

38.

Which suffix refers to dilation or expansion of a structure?

a)

-rrhaphy

b)

-ptosis

c)

-lysis

d)

-ectasis

39.

Select the term for destruction or breakdown of red blood cells.

a)

hemoptysis

b)

hematemesis

c)

hemostasis

d)

hemolysis

40.

Polyphagia best describes which condition?

a)

Excessive eating

b)

Vomiting blood

c)

Painful swallowing

d)

Indigestion symptoms

41.

Match each term with its correct meaning.

a)

dyspepsia

1.

difficult digestion

b)

proptosis

2.

forward protrusion of the eye

c)

blepharoplasty

3.

surgical repair of the eyelid

d)

rhinoplasty

4.

surgical repair of the nose

42.

Which term means spitting up blood from the respiratory tract, not the GI tract?

a)

hemoptysis

b)

hematemesis

c)

hematuria

d)

hemolysis

43.

Menorrhagia is defined as which of the following?

a)

Absence of menstruation

b)

Irregular menstruation

c)

Painful menstruation

d)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

44.

Pylorospasm refers to what event at the pyloric sphincter?

a)

Abnormal dilation

b)

Involuntary contraction

c)

Complete paralysis

d)

Surgical repair

45.

Cholestasis is best described as which process?

a)

Removal of gallbladder

b)

Stoppage of bile flow

c)

Formation of gallstones

d)

Dilation of bile ducts

46.

Which term means narrowing of the pyloric sphincter?

a)

pyloric stenosis

b)

achalasia

c)

pylorospasm

d)

atresia

47.

Biliary atresia means which condition?

a)

Obstruction by gallstones

b)

Dilation of the bile ducts

c)

Inflammation of the bile ducts

d)

No opening of the bile ducts

48.

Match each combining form–based term with its meaning.

a)

buccal

1.

pertaining to the cheek

b)

cecal volvulus

2.

twisting of the cecum on itself

c)

celiac disease

3.

villi damaged by gluten intake

d)

cheilosis

4.

abnormal condition of the lip

e)

cholelithiasis

5.

abnormal condition of gallstones

49.

What is the visual examination of the colon called?

a)

colonoscopy

b)

colectomy

c)

colonography

d)

colostomy

50.

Gastrojejunostomy creates which new connection?

a)

Between stomach and duodenum

b)

Between stomach and jejunum

c)

Between ileum and colon

d)

Between esophagus and stomach

51.

Which pair correctly matches term and meaning?

a)

palatoplasty — removal of palate

b)

glycolysis — breakdown of sugar

c)

hepatomegaly — shrinkage of liver

d)

ileostomy — removal of ileum

52.

Steatorrhea refers to which stool finding?

a)

Discharge of fat in feces

b)

Presence of occult blood

c)

Excess mucus discharge

d)

Undigested fiber content

53.

Which term means new opening of the stomach to the outside of the body?

a)

gastropexy

b)

gastrostomy

c)

gastrectomy

d)

gastrotomy

54.

Proctosigmoidoscopy visualizes which region?

a)

Anus and rectum

b)

Jejunum and ileum

c)

Duodenum and pylorus

d)

Cecum and appendix

55.

Which term means pertaining to under the tongue?

a)

labio glossopharyngeal

b)

sublingual

c)

glossopharyngeal

d)

oropharynx

56.

Periodontal membrane refers to tissue in which location?

a)

Covering the palate

b)

Lining the esophagus

c)

Surrounding a tooth

d)

Encasing the liver

57.

Which enzyme digests fat?

a)

trypsin

b)

pepsin

c)

lipase

d)

amylase

58.

Identify the term for hernia of the rectum.

a)

rectocele

b)

rectotomy

c)

rectoplasty

d)

rectorrhaphy

59.

Which term means dilation of a calyx in the kidney?

a)

Nephropathy

b)

Caliceal

c)

Caliectasis

d)

Cystitis

60.

Cystectomy is defined as which procedure?

a)

New opening of the kidney

b)

Incision of the meatus

c)

Surgical repair of a ureter

d)

Removal of the urinary bladder

61.

Meatal stenosis is best described as what condition?

a)

Hardening of kidney arterioles

b)

Excess fluid in the kidney

c)

Holding back blood flow to kidney

d)

Narrowing of the meatus opening

62.

Paranephric pertains to which location?

a)

Pertaining to near the kidney

b)

Pertaining to within the bladder

c)

Pertaining to the renal pelvis

d)

Pertaining to the urethral opening

63.

Nephropathy refers to which general concept?

a)

Hardening of arterioles

b)

Nitrogen in the blood

c)

Pain from a kidney stone

d)

Disease of the kidney

64.

Which term means incision to remove a kidney stone?

a)

Ureterolithotomy

b)

Meatotomy

c)

Nephrolithotomy

d)

Pyelolithotomy

65.

Nephrosclerosis describes which pathological change?

a)

Backflow of urine into ureters

b)

Inflammation of the trigone area

c)

Hardening of the kidney arterioles

d)

Excessive urination at night

66.

Hydronephrosis is a condition involving what?

a)

Protein present in the urine

b)

Backflow of urine to ureters

c)

Excess ketones in the urine

d)

Excess fluid in the kidney

67.

Nephrostomy creates which structure?

a)

New opening of the kidney to the outside

b)

New opening of the meatus to the outside

c)

New opening between ureter and ileum

d)

New opening of the bladder to the outside

68.

A pyelogram is best described as what record?

a)

X-ray of the urinary bladder

b)

X-ray of the renal pelvis

c)

X-ray of the glomerular capillaries

d)

X-ray of the urethral opening

69.

Renal colic most specifically means what?

a)

Excessive urination at night

b)

Backflow of urine to the ureters

c)

Inflammation of the renal pelvis

d)

Kidney pain resulting from a stone

70.

Trigonitis refers to what inflammation?

a)

Inflammation of the renal pelvis tissues

b)

Inflammation of the kidney glomeruli

c)

Inflammation of the trigone area in the bladder

d)

Inflammation of the urethral meatus opening

71.

Ureteroplasty is which surgical procedure?

a)

Surgical repair of a ureter

b)

Surgical repair of the urethra

c)

Removal of the urinary bladder

d)

Incision of the renal pelvis

72.

Ureteroileostomy creates which new connection?

a)

Opening of the bladder to the outside

b)

Opening between ureter and urinary bladder

c)

Opening between a ureter and the ileum

d)

Opening of the kidney to the outside

73.

Which term means inflammation of the urethra?

a)

Urethritis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Trigonitis

d)

Nephritis

74.

Urethroplasty refers to which procedure?

a)

Removal of the urinary bladder

b)

Surgical repair of a ureter

c)

Surgical repair of the urethra

d)

New opening of the bladder

75.

Urethral stricture indicates what condition?

a)

Excessive thirst

b)

Protein in the urine

c)

Backflow of urine

d)

Narrowing of the urethra

76.

Perivesical most closely means which phrase?

a)

Pertaining to the renal pelvis

b)

Pertaining to near the kidney

c)

Pertaining to a glomerulus

d)

Pertaining to surrounding the bladder

77.

Vesicoureteral reflux is best defined as what?

a)

Backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureters

b)

Backflow of blood into the renal veins

c)

Backflow of urine from ureter into the bladder

d)

Backflow of lymph into renal tissues

78.

Match each urine finding with its term.

a)

Protein present in urine

1.

Albuminuria

b)

Bacteria present in urine

2.

Bacteriuria

c)

Ketone bodies in urine

3.

Ketonuria

d)

Nitrogenous wastes in blood

4.

Azotemia

79.

Polydipsia refers to which symptom?

a)

Condition of increased urination

b)

Condition of painful urination

c)

Condition of increased thirst

d)

Condition of decreased thirst

80.

Ketosis is defined as which abnormal condition?

a)

Abnormal condition of ketones in blood and body tissues

b)

Abnormal condition of protein in the urine

c)

Abnormal condition of bacteria in the urine

d)

Abnormal condition of stones in the kidney

81.

Nephrolithiasis means what condition?

a)

Excessive urination at night

b)

Hardening of kidney arterioles

c)

Inflammation of the urethra

d)

Abnormal condition of kidney stones

82.

Nocturia is best described as which pattern?

a)

Excessive urination at night

b)

Excessive urination during day

c)

Lack of urination at night

d)

Painful urination with blood

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