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Economics Fundamentals Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is your opportunity cost of attending college?

a)

The price of tuition.

b)

The price of books.

c)

The price of housing.

d)

The foregone wages that you could earn in a full-time job.

2.

A marginal change is one that:

a)

is not important for public policy.

b)

incrementally alters an existing plan.

c)

makes an outcome inefficient.

d)

does not influence incentives.

3.

Governments may intervene in a market economy in order to:

a)

protect property rights.

b)

correct a market failure due to externalities.

c)

achieve a more competitive environment.

d)

All of the above.

4.

A point inside the production possibilities frontier is:

a)

efficient but not feasible.

b)

feasible but not efficient.

c)

both efficient and feasible.

d)

neither efficient nor feasible.

5.

The slope of the production possibility frontier is the:

a)

marginal cost.

b)

transactional cost.

c)

sunk cost.

d)

opportunity cost.

6.

The producer who can create more output with the same inputs has a:

a)

comparative advantage.

b)

relative advantage.

c)

absolute advantage.

d)

no advantage.

7.

The producer with the lowest opportunity cost has a:

a)

comparative advantage.

b)

relative advantage.

c)

absolute advantage.

d)

no advantage.

8.

Successful trade decreases opportunity cost and increases comparative advantage through:

a)

utilization.

b)

specialization.

c)

facilitation.

d)

degradation.

9.

If the marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost, then you should:

a)

do nothing.

b)

do more.

c)

do less.

d)

do a dance.

10.

In the Circular Flow Model, the two decision-makers are:

a)

households and firms.

b)

producers and consumers.

c)

buyers and sellers.

d)

workers and employers.

11.

A positive statement describes the world “how it is” and a __________ statement describes the world “how it should be.”

a)

normative

b)

descriptive

c)

factual

d)

theoretical

12.

The demand curve has a __________ slope and the supply curve has a __________ slope.

a)

downward; upward

b)

upward; downward

c)

flat; steep

d)

steep; flat

13.

A point that is exactly on the production possibility frontier is considered __________, while a point that is inside of the production possibility frontier is considered __________.

a)

efficient; inefficient

b)

inefficient; efficient

c)

feasible; infeasible

d)

infeasible; feasible

14.

The demand curve represents the marginal benefit or marginal cost of a buyer’s willingness to buy or willingness to produce.

a)

marginal benefit

b)

marginal cost

c)

total benefit

d)

total cost

15.

An increase in technology will shift the supply curve:

a)

to the right/out

b)

to the left/in

c)

not at all

d)

up

16.

If income increases, we expect supply or demand for normal goods to shift:

a)

right/out

b)

left/in

c)

not at all

d)

up

17.

If income decreases, we expect supply or demand for inferior goods to shift:

a)

right/out

b)

left/in

c)

not at all

d)

up

18.

If the price of a complement decreases, we expect supply or demand for the existing good to shift:

a)

right/out

b)

left/in

c)

not at all

d)

up

19.

If the price of a substitute increases, we expect supply or demand for the existing good to shift:

a)

right/out

b)

left/in

c)

not at all

d)

up

20.

If a country allows trade and, for a certain good, the domestic price without trade is lower than the world price, the country will be:

a)

an exporter of the good.

b)

an importer of the good.

c)

neither an exporter nor an importer.

d)

unable to trade.

21.

When a country allows trade and becomes an exporter of a good:

a)

domestic producers gain and domestic consumers lose.

b)

domestic producers lose and domestic consumers gain.

c)

domestic producers and domestic consumers both gain.

d)

domestic producers and domestic consumers both lose.

22.

When a country allows trade and becomes an importer of a good, what happens to consumer surplus and producer surplus?

a)

consumer surplus and producer surplus both increase.

b)

consumer surplus and producer surplus both decrease.

c)

consumer surplus increases and producer surplus decreases.

d)

consumer surplus decreases and producer surplus increases.

23.

If a paper manufacturer does not bear the entire cost of the dioxin it emits, what will happen?

a)

emit a lower level of dioxin than is socially efficient.

b)

emit a higher level of dioxin than is socially efficient.

c)

emit an acceptable level of dioxin.

d)

not emit any dioxin than is socially efficient.

24.

Which of the following represents a way that a government can help the private market to internalize an externality?

a)

taxing goods that have negative externalities

b)

subsidizing goods that have positive externalities

c)

The government cannot improve upon the outcomes of private markets.

d)

Both a and b are correct

25.

The difference between social cost and private cost is a measure of the:

a)

loss in profit to the seller as the result of a negative externality.

b)

cost of an externality.

c)

cost reduction when the negative externality is eliminated.

d)

cost incurred by the government when it intervenes in the market.

26.

Internalizing a positive externality will cause the demand curve to:

a)

shift up.

b)

shift down.

c)

become more elastic.

d)

remain unchanged.

27.

Both public goods and common resources are:

a)

rival in consumption.

b)

nonrival in consumption.

c)

excludable.

d)

nonexcludable.

28.

A free rider is a person who:

a)

will only purchase a product on sale.

b)

receives the benefit of a good without paying for it.

c)

can produce a good at no cost.

d)

takes advantage of tax loop-holes to lower his taxes.

29.

If the use of a common resource is not regulated, what is likely to happen?

a)

it cannot be used by anyone.

b)

the economy will end up with too much of a good thing.

c)

it becomes a private good.

d)

it will be overused.

30.

The firm's efficient scale is the quantity of output that minimizes:

a)

average total cost.

b)

average fixed cost.

c)

average variable cost.

d)

marginal cost.

31.

Marginal cost is equal to average total cost when:

a)

average variable cost is falling.

b)

average fixed cost is rising.

c)

marginal cost is at its minimum.

d)

average total cost is at its minimum.

32.

Whenever marginal cost is greater than average total cost, what happens?

a)

marginal cost is rising.

b)

marginal cost is falling.

c)

average total cost is rising.

d)

average total cost is falling.

33.

If a firm produces nothing, which of the following costs will be zero?

a)

total cost

b)

fixed cost

c)

opportunity cost

d)

variable cost

34.

Marginal cost is equal to average total cost when:

a)

average variable cost is falling.

b)

average fixed cost is rising.

c)

marginal cost is at its minimum.

d)

average total cost is at its minimum.

35.

In calculating the economic profit of her catering business, the $25,000 income that Susan gave up is counted as part of the catering firm's:

a)

total revenue.

b)

opportunity costs.

c)

explicit costs.

d)

marginal costs.

36.

In general, elasticity is a measure of:

a)

the extent to which advances in technology are adopted by producers.

b)

the extent to which a market is competitive.

c)

how firms’ profits respond to changes in market prices.

d)

how much buyers and sellers respond to changes in market conditions.

37.

If the quantity demanded of a certain good responds only slightly to a change in the price of the good, then the:

a)

demand for the good is said to be elastic.

b)

demand for the good is said to be inelastic.

c)

law of demand does not apply to the good.

d)

demand curve for the good shifts only slightly in response to a change in price.

38.

If a price ceiling is not binding (or effective), then:

a)

the equilibrium price is above the price ceiling.

b)

the equilibrium price is below the price ceiling.

c)

it has no legal enforcement mechanism.

d)

None of the above is correct because all price ceilings must be binding.

39.

Which of the following observations would be consistent with the imposition of a binding price ceiling on a market? After the price ceiling becomes effective,

a)

a smaller quantity of the good is bought and sold.

b)

a smaller quantity of the good is demanded.

c)

a larger quantity of the good is supplied.

d)

the price rises above the previous equilibrium.

40.

Consumer surplus is:

a)

the amount a buyer is willing to pay minus the amount the buyer actually pays for it.

b)

the amount a buyer is willing to pay minus the cost of producing the good.

c)

the amount the quantity supplied of a good exceeds the quantity demanded of the good.

d)

a buyer's willingness to pay for a good plus the price of the good.

41.

Total Social Surplus is maximized when:

a)

price floors ensure producers receive high prices.

b)

governments intervene in markets.

c)

resources are efficiently allocated.

d)

price ceilings ensure consumers pay low prices.

42.

When a government removes a tax on a good, then the quantity of the good sold will:

a)

increase.

b)

decrease.

c)

not change.

d)

All of the above are possible.

43.

The relative share of the tax burden depends on:

a)

who the government wants to tax.

b)

the amount of deadweight loss.

c)

the relative elasticities of supply and demand.

d)

the size of the tax.

44.

If the price elasticity of demand is less than 1, you can increase or decrease price and expect that the total revenue will:

a)

increase.

b)

decrease.

c)

stay the same.

d)

not be affected.

45.

If the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, you can increase or decrease price and expect that the total revenue will:

a)

increase.

b)

decrease.

c)

stay the same.

d)

not be affected.

46.

A price floor (that is binding) will create a:

a)

surplus.

b)

shortage.

c)

equilibrium.

d)

deadweight loss only.

47.

A price ceiling (that is binding) will create a:

a)

surplus.

b)

shortage.

c)

equilibrium.

d)

deadweight loss only.

48.

As a government policy maker, you can always increase the size of a tax to increase the size of tax revenue. True OR False.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only if demand is elastic

d)

Only if supply is inelastic

49.

If you seek to reduce deadweight loss, then you should tax an elastic OR inelastic good.

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Both equally

d)

Neither

50.

When thinking about income elasticity, if the percent change of income increased then we expect that the percent change in quantity demanded of an inferior good would:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay constant

d)

become negative

51.

When thinking about cross price elasticity, if the percent change in the price of one good negatively affects quantity demanded of another good then we would say the goods are:

a)

substitutes

b)

complements

c)

unrelated

d)

inferior

52.

When thinking about income elasticity, if the percent change of income increased then we expect that the percent change in quantity demanded of a normal good would:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay constant

d)

become negative

53.

When thinking about cross price elasticity, if the percent change in the price of one good positively affects quantity demanded of another good then we would say the goods are:

a)

substitutes

b)

complements

c)

unrelated

d)

inferior

54.

When a tax is levied, the price consumers pay (Pd) is higher OR lower than the original market price, and the price suppliers receive (Ps) is higher OR lower than the original market price.

a)

Pd is higher, Ps is higher

b)

Pd is higher, Ps is lower

c)

Pd is lower, Ps is higher

d)

Pd is lower, Ps is lower

55.

What is the definition of inflation?

a)

A decrease in the general price level of goods and services

b)

An increase in the general price level of goods and services

c)

A government policy to reduce unemployment

d)

A rise in the value of currency

56.

Which of the following is considered a factor of production?

a)

Money

b)

Labor

c)

Stocks

d)

Advertising

57.

What does GDP stand for?

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

General Demand Price

c)

Government Debt Percentage

d)

Global Development Plan

58.

What is a market economy?

a)

An economy where the government controls all production

b)

An economy where supply and demand determine prices

c)

An economy with no private ownership

d)

An economy based only on agriculture

59.

What is opportunity cost?

a)

The cost of producing one more unit of a good

b)

The value of the next best alternative foregone

c)

The total money spent on goods and services

d)

The profit made from selling a product

60.

What is the first principle of economics?

a)

People face trade-offs

b)

Markets are always efficient

c)

Government controls the economy

d)

Money is unlimited

61.

The principle that “people respond to incentives” means:

a)

People ignore costs

b)

People change behavior when costs or benefits change

c)

People always act irrationally

d)

People never change their behavior

62.

What does "opportunity cost" refer to?

a)

The money spent on a purchase

b)

The value of the next best alternative foregone

c)

The total cost of production

d)

The profit earned

63.

Positive economics deals with:

a)

What ought to be

b)

What is and can be tested

c)

Moral judgments

d)

Government policies only

64.

Normative economics involves:

a)

Objective facts

b)

Value judgments about what should be

c)

Scientific experiments

d)

Market equilibrium

65.

Interdependence in economics means:

a)

Individuals and countries rely on each other

b)

Everyone is independent

c)

Markets don’t interact

d)

Trade is harmful

66.

Gains from trade occur because:

a)

Everyone produces everything themselves

b)

Specialization increases efficiency and total output

c)

Trade reduces total output

d)

Trade causes shortages

67.

Price elasticity of demand measures:

a)

How quantity demanded changes when price changes

b)

Total sales revenue

c)

Consumer satisfaction

d)

Government intervention

68.

If two goods are complements, a decrease in the price of one will:

a)

Increase demand for the other

b)

Decrease demand for the other

c)

Have no effect

d)

Increase supply

69.

Substitute goods are:

a)

Goods used together

b)

Goods that can replace each other

c)

Goods with no relation

d)

Goods that cause negative externalities

70.

A price ceiling set below equilibrium causes:

a)

Surplus

b)

Shortage

c)

No effect

d)

Increased supply

71.

A price floor set above equilibrium causes:

a)

Surplus

b)

Shortage

c)

No effect

d)

Decreased demand

72.

Consumer surplus is:

a)

The difference between what consumers are willing to pay and what they actually pay

b)

The total revenue of producers

c)

The cost of production

d)

Government tax revenue

73.

Producer surplus is:

a)

The difference between the price producers receive and their cost

b)

The consumer’s gain

c)

The total market supply

d)

The government’s profit

74.

Deadweight loss occurs when:

a)

Markets are perfectly efficient

b)

There is a loss of total surplus due to market distortions

c)

Consumer surplus is maximized

d)

Producers earn maximum profit

75.

Total surplus is:

a)

The sum of consumer and producer surplus

b)

Only consumer surplus

c)

Only producer surplus

d)

Government revenue

76.

Private goods are:

a)

Rival and excludable

b)

Non-rival and non-excludable

c)

Rival and non-excludable

d)

Non-rival and excludable

77.

Club goods are:

a)

Non-rival but excludable

b)

Rival and non-excludable

c)

Rival and excludable

d)

Non-rival and non-excludable

78.

A negative externality is:

a)

A benefit to a third party

b)

A cost imposed on a third party

c)

A government subsidy

d)

A private cost

79.

A positive externality is:

a)

A cost to society

b)

A benefit to a third party

c)

A tax

d)

A monopoly profit

80.

Which is an example of a third party in economics?

a)

Producer

b)

Consumer

c)

Someone affected but not directly involved in a transaction

d)

Government official

81.

The government can correct negative externalities by:

a)

Imposing taxes on producers

b)

Ignoring the problem

c)

Increasing subsidies

d)

Removing regulations

82.

Costs of production include:

a)

Only fixed costs

b)

Fixed and variable costs

c)

Only variable costs

d)

Government taxes only

83.

Economies of scale occur when:

a)

Costs per unit increase as output increases

b)

Costs per unit decrease as output increases

c)

Production is inefficient

84.

Monopolistic competition is characterized by:

a)

Many firms selling identical products

b)

Many firms selling differentiated products

c)

One firm controlling the market

d)

Firms cooperating to set prices

85.

A monopoly is:

a)

A market with many sellers

b)

A single seller with no close substitutes

c)
d)
86.

What does the principle "People Face Trade-offs" mean?

a)

People can have everything they want without sacrificing anything

b)

To get one thing, people must give up something else

c)

People always make irrational decisions

d)

Trade-offs only apply to businesses

87.

The principle "The Cost of Something Is What You Give Up to Get It" refers to:

a)

Monetary price only

b)

Opportunity cost

c)

Market value

d)

Production cost

88.

According to the principle "Rational People Think at the Margin," decisions are made by:

a)

Considering the total cost and benefit

b)

Comparing marginal benefits and marginal costs

c)

Ignoring costs

d)

Random choice

89.

The principle "People Respond to Incentives" implies:

a)

People never change their behavior

b)

Behavior changes when costs or benefits change

c)

Incentives are irrelevant

d)

People always act irrationally

90.

"Trade Can Make Everyone Better Off" means:

a)

Trade benefits only the rich

b)

Trade allows specialization and increases total production

c)

Trade decreases overall wealth

d)

Trade is always harmful

91.

The principle "Markets Are Usually a Good Way to Organize Economic Activity" suggests:

a)

Governments should always control markets

b)

Markets allocate resources efficiently through prices

c)

Markets are never efficient

d)

Prices have no role in markets

92.

"Governments Can Sometimes Improve Market Outcomes" means:

a)

Government intervention is always harmful

b)

Government can correct market failures like externalities

c)

Governments should control all markets

d)

Markets never fail

93.

Positive economics deals with:

a)

What ought to be

b)

What is and can be tested

c)

Opinions and values

d)

Government policies only

94.

Normative economics involves:

a)

Objective analysis

b)

Value judgments about what should be

c)

Scientific experiments

d)

Data collection only

95.

Specialization and trade allow countries to:

a)

Produce less efficiently

b)

Consume beyond their production possibilities

c)

Avoid trade deficits

d)

Produce everything themselves

96.

Price elasticity of demand measures:

a)

How quantity demanded changes with income

b)

How quantity demanded changes with price

c)

How supply changes with price

d)

How price changes with demand

97.

If demand is elastic, a price increase will:

a)

Increase total revenue

b)

Decrease total revenue

c)

Have no effect on total revenue

d)

Increase quantity demanded

98.

Cross-price elasticity between two goods is negative, they are:

a)

Substitutes

b)

Complements

c)

Unrelated

d)

Inferior goods

99.

Income elasticity of demand measures:

a)

Change in quantity demanded with price

b)

Change in quantity demanded with income

c)

Change in price with income

d)

Change in supply with income

100.

If the price of coffee rises and the demand for tea increases, coffee and tea are:

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Unrelated

d)

Inferior goods