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Camelids

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which activity best describes typical packing capacity and distance for South American camelids used as pack animals?

a)

Carrying half their body weight, 5 miles

b)

Carrying light loads only, 30 miles

c)

Carrying a quarter of body weight, 20 miles

d)

Dragging loads equal to body weight, 10 miles

2.

Which are common reasons people keep South American camelids? Select all that apply.

a)

Livestock guardian duties

b)

Fiber production for textiles

c)

Companion animal roles

d)

Tax incentives

e)

Primary dairy production

3.

In camelid terminology, what does the term "cria" refer to?

a)

Birthing process

b)

Hybrid of llama and alpaca

c)

Juvenile offspring

d)

Adult female camelid

4.

Which term correctly names the offspring of an alpaca and a llama?

a)

Vicugna

b)

Guanaco

c)

Suri

d)

Huarizo

5.

Identify the camelid fiber type pair that refers to coat styles.

a)

Orgling and Humming

b)

Cria and Huarizo

c)

Suri and Huacaya

d)

Lock and Kush

6.

Which statement about camelid reproduction and physiology is accurate?

a)

Gestation averages 245 ± 30 days

b)

They are spontaneous ovulators

c)

They are induced ovulators

d)

They typically have litters of multiple crias

7.

According to the diagram of camelid facts, which respiratory trait is characteristic?

a)

Obligate nasal breathers

b)

Dual oral-nasal breathers

c)

Primarily oral breathers

d)

Facultative mouth breathers

8.

From the body language panel, which behavior indicates a warning?

a)

Head raised, ears back

b)

Neck extended forward

c)

Sternal recumbency position

d)

Ears forward, alert gaze

9.

Match each labeled behavior in the body language images to its general social meaning.

a)

Submission reduces conflict

b)

Alert signals attention

c)

Fighting asserts dominance

d)

Stay away indicates distance

10.

Which physical trait best distinguishes a llama from an alpaca in field identification?

a)

Smaller ears and shorter neck

b)

Shorter face and stockier frame

c)

Longer face and taller frame

d)

Wool covering face and ears

11.

Which pairing about camelid chromosomes and interbreeding is accurate?

a)

Same chromosome number enables fertile hybrids

b)

Different chromosome number prevents hybridization

c)

Same chromosome number allows hybridization but fertility varies

d)

Hybridization requires identical mitochondrial DNA

12.

Llamas are commonly used for packing. Which property makes them suitable for this role?

a)

Short limbs for steep terrain stability

b)

Preference for solitary travel over herding

c)

Efficient load carrying with calm temperament

d)

Wide hooves that sink into soft soils

13.

When placing a halter on a camelid head, where should the noseband sit relative to the nasal bone regions labeled on the diagram?

a)

High on the danger region near soft tissue

b)

Centered between the danger and safe regions

c)

Low across the safe bony region of the nose

d)

Directly over the premaxilla near the incisors

14.

On an alpaca farm, what stocking density is recommended as an upper limit with rotational grazing?

a)

Two to three camelids per acre

b)

Five to seven camelids per acre

c)

Eight to ten camelids per acre

d)

Twelve or more camelids per acre

15.

Which set of pens should be present and interconnected with catch pens on a well-managed camelid farm?

a)

Show preparation, hospital, training, storage

b)

Racing arena, playground, waterfowl, pasture

c)

Breeding, birthing, weanlings, males, quarantine

d)

Milking, feedlot, transport, isolation, nursery

16.

For birthing pens, which conditions are most important to maintain?

a)

Visibility to humans and visual contact with herd

b)

Cria safety with clean environment

c)

Permanent separation of mother from herd

d)

Complete isolation from all herd members

17.

Which fencing strategy best protects camelids from predators and disease-carrying animals?

a)

Electric or portable fencing options

b)

Single rope perimeter around fields

c)

Open pasture without barriers

d)

Low wooden rails without gates

18.

During physical examination of an alpaca, the marked sites on the diagram most likely indicate locations for which assessments?

a)

Palpation of carpal joint swelling

b)

Respiratory auscultation over thorax

c)

Heart auscultation at left apex

d)

Body condition scoring along ribs

19.

In camelid medicine, what is a ‘Llamoid’ best described as?

a)

Crossbreed between llama and alpaca

b)

Juvenile alpacas under six months old

c)

Any Old World camel species only

d)

Members of the Lama genus and relatives

20.

Which term refers to a newborn camelid, typically from birth until weaning?

a)

Cria

b)

Huarizo

c)

Llamoid

d)

Suri

21.

A ‘Huarizo’ is specifically which type of camelid?

a)

Alpaca with Suri fleece

b)

Hybrid of llama and alpaca

c)

Camelid in Kush posture

d)

Young male llama calf

22.

In restraint or handling, the ‘Kush position’ indicates what body posture?

a)

Crouched squatting on hind limbs

b)

Lateral recumbency on one side

c)

Standing alert with ears forward

d)

Sternal recumbency with legs tucked

23.

Suri and Huacaya are terms that distinguish which feature in alpacas?

a)

Breeding soundness category

b)

Fleece type and fiber structure

c)

Age class before weaning

d)

Hybrid status with llamas

24.

What characterizes Suri fleece compared with Huacaya fleece?

a)

Mixed fibers from hybrid crosses

b)

Short, crimped fiber with loft

c)

Long, lustrous locks that hang down

d)

Coarse guard hair predominant

25.

During breeding, ‘Orgling’ most commonly refers to what behavior in male camelids?

a)

Continuous mating vocalization

b)

Territorial neck wrestling

c)

Humming to locate herd mates

d)

Alarm call during handling

26.

Which vocalization is commonly used by camelids to communicate calmly within the herd?

a)

Bellowing

b)

Orgling

c)

Humming

d)

Bleating

27.

Select the terms that correctly pair with their definitions.

a)

Cria: neonatal camelid until weaning

b)

Kush: sternal recumbency restraint posture

c)

Huarizo: alpaca–llama hybrid

d)

Suri/Huacaya: breeding soundness grades

28.

Which trait best describes camelid reproductive physiology?

a)

Obligate parthenogens without males

b)

Spontaneous ovulators with cycles

c)

Induced ovulators requiring mating

d)

Seasonally polyestrous breeders

29.

Camelids are pseudo-ruminants. What key anatomical feature supports this classification?

a)

Crop and gizzard like birds

b)

Four-chamber ruminant stomach

c)

Three-compartment forestomach system

d)

Single stomach without compartments

30.

Typical life expectancy for healthy camelids under managed care is closest to which range?

a)

15–25 years commonly

b)

8–12 years in most herds

c)

45–55 years frequently

d)

30–40 years routinely

31.

Which body language cue most reliably signals a camelid is agitated and may spit?

a)

Pinned ears with head raised

b)

Lying sternal with humming

c)

Ears forward and relaxed posture

d)

Tail tucked with chewing cud

32.

White South American camelids show increased risk of which sensory condition?

a)

Photosensitivity leading to hypervision

b)

Enhanced hearing above normal

c)

Inherited deafness occurs more often

d)

Congenital blindness predominates

33.

You examine a camelid’s lower eyelid using a FAMACHA card. Which interpretation correctly links eyelid color to action?

a)

D: pale, treat for Haemonchus promptly

b)

E: very white, urgent anthelmintic intervention

c)

C: pink, monitor and recheck soon

d)

A/B: bright red, deworm only if other signs

34.

Which routine health procedures are emphasized for camelid husbandry?

a)

Hoof trimming using horseshoes

b)

Vaccinations tailored to regional risks

c)

Strategic deworming guided by FAMACHA

d)

Dental care focusing on fighting teeth

35.

When trimming camelid feet, what structure is primarily managed?

a)

Cartilaginous flippers adapted

b)

Single hoof like horses

c)

Pads with toenails on each toe

d)

Cloven hooves with hard walls

36.

Which intramuscular injection sites are commonly used in camelids as shown by arrows on the diagram?

a)

Gluteal muscles over pelvis

b)

Triceps brachii of forelimb

c)

Intercostal muscles near ribs

d)

Cervical epaxial muscles of neck

e)

Semimembranosus/semitendinosus of hind limb

37.

Subcutaneous injections in camelids are generally preferred. What are typical locations highlighted in the diagram?

a)

Dorsal midline over spine

b)

Axillary region behind elbow

c)

Base of neck in loose skin

d)

Intermandibular space under jaw

e)

Distal limb over cannon bone

38.

For venous access in camelids, which veins are practical targets and what positioning reduces risk?

a)

Jugular vein with head slightly extended

b)

Carotid artery with strong tourniquet

c)

Cephalic vein with limb flexed and supported

d)

Lateral saphenous vein with animal recumbent

e)

Tail vein with tail lifted high

39.

During jugular venipuncture in a llama, which risk is most critical to avoid based on neck anatomy?

a)

Mild skin infection from needle touch

b)

Accidental tracheal puncture causing emphysema

c)

Inadvertent carotid cannulation causing hematoma

d)

Temporary alopecia from clip site

e)

Skin bruising from excessive alcohol

40.

Which stocking density best prevents stress and overgrazing in alpacas or llamas on well-managed pasture?

a)

Four adults per 0.2–0.4 hectare

b)

One adult per 0.1 hectare

c)

One adult per 0.2–0.4 hectare

d)

Two adults per 0.1 hectare

41.

A breeding facility wants separate areas for males, females with crias, and quarantine. Which pen design principle most supports welfare and biosecurity?

a)

Rotating open paddocks only

b)

Large shared central pen

c)

Dedicated pens with solid partitions

d)

Interconnected pens without gates

42.

Select the fencing features that reduce predator entry while remaining safe for camelids.

a)

Tight gates and buried apron

b)

Barbed wire lower course

c)

Woven wire 1.2–1.5 m tall

d)

Wide square openings

e)

Electric strands at nose height

43.

Which characteristic defines a proper birthing pen for camelids to minimize neonatal disease risk?

a)

Dark enclosed stall without airflow

b)

Deep mud for soft footing

c)

Clean, draft-free, easily disinfected

d)

Crowded space with shared feeders

44.

When integrating guard dogs with camelids to deter predators, which management step is most important at introduction?

a)

Immediate off-leash roaming at night

b)

Feeding from camelid troughs only

c)

Housing dogs away from paddocks

d)

Gradual supervised acclimation to herd

45.

You plan fencing for a mixed-age herd near wooded predator habitat. Which combination is most appropriate?

a)

Single smooth wire perimeter

b)

Three-strand barbed wire perimeter

c)

Woven wire with top hot wire

d)

Five-strand electric only perimeter

46.

For a quarantine pen, which design element best limits pathogen spread to the main herd?

a)

Shared manure pile access

b)

Adjacent open-air sleeping area

c)

Dedicated equipment and footbath

d)

Shared water source piping

47.

Image shows elliptical red blood cells typical of camelids. Which clinical concern commonly accompanies this hematology finding?

a)

Leukocytosis from infection only

b)

Anemia with immature cells present

c)

Polycythemia from dehydration

d)

Thrombocytosis with clot risk

48.

In camelid fore-stomach management, which technique safely collects rumen-like C1 fluid?

a)

Endoscopic biopsy of C3 mucosa

b)

Rectal aspiration of fecal fluid

c)

Percutaneous C1-centesis under asepsis

d)

Oral swab sample of saliva

49.

During treatment of C1 gas distension, which therapeutic route is appropriate for rapid relief and supportive care?

a)

Orogastric tube decompression

b)

Nasogastric tube placement

c)

Intramuscular antibiotics only

d)

Topical poultice on flank

e)

Direct C1-centesis for gas

50.

There are no vaccines labeled for camelids in the US. Which factors should primarily guide vaccine use decisions?

a)

Availability of discount coupons

b)

Risk of disease exposure

c)

Cost of each dose

d)

Known side effects

e)

Efficacy evidence

51.

Which timing precaution is recommended when scheduling vaccines for camelids?

a)

Administer during hottest summer days

b)

Avoid during first trimester pregnancy

c)

Give immediately after transport stress

d)

Always at night for better tolerance

52.

Which pathogens are targeted by the core CD&T vaccine used in camelids?

a)

Mycobacterium bovis; Brucella abortus strains

b)

Campylobacter fetus; Chlamydia psittaci infections

c)

Clostridium perfringens C and D; Clostridium tetani

d)

Pasteurella multocida; Mannheimia haemolytica serotypes

53.

A cria receives the CD&T vaccine at 3 months. What is the recommended follow-up schedule?

a)

Booster after 3 weeks; annual repeats

b)

Two boosters monthly; biennial repeats

c)

Single dose only; no annual repeats

d)

Booster after 6 months; triennial repeats

54.

Which statement best describes a risk-based vaccination program for camelids?

a)

Select vaccines based on local disease exposure

b)

Administer every possible vaccine regardless

c)

Vaccinate only when animals show illness signs

d)

Use pediatric human vaccines off-label routinely

55.

For E. coli control associated with neonatal mortality and uterine infections, what dosing guidance is given?

a)

Females 1 cc pre-breeding and pre-parturition

b)

All other animals 1 cc administered annually

c)

Neonates 3 cc weekly until weaning

d)

Males 1 cc only at 6 months of age

56.

Regarding rabies vaccination in camelids, which recommendations are correct?

a)

Annual booster following initial series

b)

Boost every five years after priming dose

c)

Initial vaccination at 3–4 months of age

d)

Prefer killed vaccines labeled for large animals

57.

Leptospirosis prevention in camelids often uses a Lepto 5 vaccine. Which schedule is indicated?

a)

Short immunity; boosters every 6 months

b)

Monthly boosters for the first two years

c)

No boosters; lifetime protection after series

d)

Long immunity; boosters every 3 years

58.

West Nile virus vaccination guidance for camelids includes what protocol?

a)

Three doses three weeks apart; before mosquito season

b)

Two doses two months apart; after mosquito season

c)

Single spring dose; repeat every three years

d)

Weekly dosing until vector numbers decline

59.

What are key best practices for camelid toenail trimming shown?

a)

Use appropriate restraint during trimming

b)

Trim at least every six months

c)

Perform only when nails crack naturally

d)

Avoid trimming to preserve hoof length

60.

Which findings most consistently indicate an obese camelid during body condition scoring?

a)

Spine forms a trench of soft tissue

b)

Transverse processes hard to palpate

c)

Fat deposits at tailhead

d)

Ribs easily palpable throughout

61.

During routine assessment, you cannot see bony landmarks, but the transverse processes are palpable with firm pressure. What nutritional status is most likely?

a)

Underfed and losing weight

b)

Adequate and stable intake

c)

Overfed with mild excess

d)

Severely malnourished

62.

Which step improves accuracy in camelid body condition scoring when fleece is long or matted?

a)

Use systematic palpation points

b)

Rely on rib cage contour alone

c)

Trim teeth before scoring

d)

Score only by visual inspection

63.

In camelids, fighting teeth include the upper third incisor and canines. Which trimming tools are commonly used for these teeth?

a)

Gigli wire saw handles

b)

Orthodontic elastics

c)

High-speed Dremel tool

d)

Hand scaler for plaque

64.

Which color change in the lower eyelid conjunctiva most strongly indicates severe anemia in FAMACHA scoring?

a)

Bright salmon-pink coloration

b)

Pale pink with slight blanching

c)

White to very pale coloration

d)

Deep red with visible vasculature

65.

How should scoring frequency change during high parasite risk seasons when using FAMACHA in camelids?

a)

Only score after clinical signs appear

b)

Increase scoring to weekly or biweekly

c)

Maintain the same as low-risk periods

d)

Decrease scoring to monthly checks

66.

Which interpretation aligns with FAMACHA scoring principles for camelid anemia management?

a)

Consistent moderate scores warrant monitoring and nutritional support

b)

Higher numeric score indicates paler conjunctiva and worse anemia

c)

Scores help target selective deworming to affected animals

d)

FAMACHA replaces all other anemia diagnostics entirely

67.

Which approach best describes strategic deworming in camelids to slow parasite resistance while maintaining animal health?

a)

Dose lightly at every feeding

b)

Frequent blanket dosing year-round

c)

Treat only when fecal counts rise

d)

Rotate every drug monthly

68.

When administering medications to camelids, which practice minimizes aspiration risk and ensures accurate dosing?

a)

Mix dose in large water bucket

b)

Give oral paste slowly over tongue

c)

Inject intramuscular behind shoulder

d)

Bolus quickly while head elevated

69.

Which vaccination strategy is most appropriate for herd-level protection in camelids?

a)

One-time mass vaccination

b)

Only vaccinate young males

c)

Core vaccines on schedule

d)

Risk-based boosters added

70.

In routine dental and foot care for camelids, which combination reflects proper preventive husbandry?

a)

Float sharp teeth as needed

b)

Rely solely on soft pasture

c)

Trim toenails regularly

d)

Ignore minor malocclusions

71.

Which site is most appropriate for intramuscular injection in camelids to minimize nerve injury risk?

a)

Neck muscles near jugular

b)

Gluteal muscles near hip

c)

Longissimus along lumbar spine

d)

Triceps brachii lateral head

e)

Semimembranosus–semitendinosus group

72.

When choosing a subcutaneous injection site in camelids, which location provides loose skin and reduces the chance of hitting muscle?

a)

Dorsal lumbar epaxial area

b)

Axillary fold behind elbow

c)

Gluteal crest region

d)

Hamstring area caudal thigh

e)

Cervical region over jugular

73.

Which combination lists common intravenous access sites in camelids and one key consideration?

a)

Saphenous vein with minimal restraint

b)

Jugular vein with thick skin

c)

Ear vein with slow flow

d)

Cephalic vein with reliable visualization

e)

Tail vein with high pressure

74.

You must administer a large-volume medication. Which route and site pairing is most suitable to reduce tissue irritation?

a)

Intramuscular in neck for viscous drugs

b)

Subcutaneous at axilla for dilute fluids

c)

Intravenous in jugular for isotonic solutions

d)

Subcutaneous over dorsum for hypertonic

e)

Intramuscular in gluteal for large volumes

75.

Which statement best describes medication volume limits for intramuscular injections in adult camelids?

a)

Up to 25 mL per single muscle belly

b)

Large volumes safer than subcutaneous

c)

Volume limits only apply to juveniles

d)

No limit if drug is isotonic and sterile

e)

Small volumes per site to avoid soreness

76.

Which risk is specifically higher with intravenous administration compared to intramuscular or subcutaneous routes?

a)

Delayed absorption variability

b)

Local muscle fiber necrosis

c)

Rapid systemic adverse reactions

d)

Skin tenting and leakage

e)

Fibrosis at injection site

77.

For subcutaneous injections in camelids, which technique detail improves accuracy and comfort?

a)

Massage vigorously after injection

b)

Use largest gauge available

c)

Lift a skin tent before inserting

d)

Aim toward underlying muscle belly

e)

Insert needle perpendicular deeply

78.

Which scenario warrants avoiding the jugular vein for IV access in camelids and selecting an alternative site?

a)

Severe neck cellulitis present

b)

Drug requires slow absorption

c)

Owner prefers fewer visible marks

d)

Patient is mildly dehydrated

e)

Needle length is shorter than usual