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Worksheets

Maternity Final

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client at 32 weeks with preeclampsia reports severe epigastric pain. BP 170/112. What is the nurse’s PRIORITY action?

a)

Offer a warm blanket

b)

Assess reflexes

c)

Notify provider immediately

d)

Apply external fetal monitor

2.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate becomes difficult to arouse. RR 8/min. What is FIRST?

a)

Increase IV fluids

b)

Stop magnesium infusion

c)

Give oxygen

d)

Call rapid response

3.

A preeclamptic patient reports visual disturbances. Which assessment must the nurse perform FIRST?

a)

Temperature

b)

Deep tendon reflexes

c)

Fundal height

d)

Appetite

4.

A woman with gestational hypertension suddenly has facial swelling and a severe headache. What is the nurse’s BEST response?

a)

Recheck BP in 30 minutes

b)

Ask about stress

c)

Place the patient on left side

d)

Call provider and prepare magnesium

5.

A postpartum client on magnesium has absent reflexes but stable respirations. What is the priority?

a)

Administer calcium gluconate

b)

Continue monitoring

c)

Decrease infusion rate

d)

Encourage ambulation

6.

A client with chronic hypertension is 14 weeks pregnant. Which teaching is PRIORITY?

a)

Avoid all antihypertensives

b)

Risk for superimposed preeclampsia

c)

Increase activity

d)

Use diuretics only

7.

A patient with severe preeclampsia is admitted for magnesium sulfate. Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Foley catheter

b)

Seizure precautions

c)

Ambulate every hour

d)

Continuous fetal monitoring

8.

A nurse is caring for a preeclamptic client with brisk reflexes and clonus. What action is PRIORITY?

a)

Administer magnesium sulfate

b)

Increase IV rate

c)

Lower HOB

d)

Offer warm blankets

9.

A woman on magnesium sulfate has urine output 20 mL/hr. What should the nurse do FIRST?

a)

Encourage fluids

b)

Stop infusion

c)

Notify provider

d)

Document finding

10.

A 39-week patient with preeclampsia begins to seize. Which action is FIRST?

a)

Insert tongue blade

b)

Turn patient on side

c)

Call provider

d)

Document seizure length

11.

After a seizure ends, the nurse’s IMMEDIATE priority is:

a)

Insert urinary catheter

b)

Check FHR

c)

Start Pitocin

d)

Perform sterile vaginal exam

12.

Which statement indicates the client understands future risks after severe preeclampsia?

a)

“I won’t have this again.”

b)

“This increases my risk of heart disease later.”

c)

“I can stop monitoring BP now.”

d)

“This only happens once.”

13.

A preeclamptic patient asks why light is dimmed. Best response?

a)

“It improves your mood.”

b)

“It helps lower your blood pressure.”

c)

“It reduces stimulation that can trigger seizures.”

d)

“It helps your baby sleep.”

14.

A nurse receives report. Which preeclampsia patient should be seen FIRST?

a)

BP 148/98, denies symptoms

b)

Headache unrelieved by acetaminophen

c)

Trace proteinuria

d)

Edema in hands

15.

Which assessment MOST indicates worsening preeclampsia?

a)

Weight gain of 1 lb

b)

1+ protein

c)

New visual floaters

d)

Leg cramps

16.

A nurse is teaching about magnesium sulfate. Which statement is correct?

a)

"It lowers your blood pressure."

b)

"It prevents seizures by relaxing the CNS."

c)

"It helps your baby’s lungs mature."

d)

"It increases your contractions."

17.

A preeclamptic patient experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes. What is the first action?

a)

Check cervix

b)

Check fetal heart rate

c)

Call provider

d)

Start Pitocin

18.

A nurse admits four hypertensive patients. Who is priority?

a)

BP 152/90, no symptoms

b)

Severe frontal headache

c)

Reports mild swelling

d)

Mild nausea

19.

The nurse teaching a client with mild preeclampsia at home should emphasize:

a)

High-salt diet

b)

Report RUQ pain immediately

c)

Avoid BP checks

d)

Increase strenuous exercise

20.

A pregnant patient with BP 168/112 has late decels on FHR monitor. Which action FIRST?

a)

Administer magnesium

b)

Turn to left side

c)

Increase Pitocin

d)

Prepare for delivery

21.

A nurse receives lab results for a client with suspected HELLP. Which confirms the diagnosis?

a)

Platelets 200,000

b)

AST/ALT elevated, platelets 90,000

c)

Low creatinine

d)

Mild anemia

22.

Which new order for a client with severe preeclampsia is MOST concerning?

a)

Ambulate twice daily

b)

Insert Foley

c)

Continuous monitoring

d)

Magnesium sulfate

23.

A postpartum patient suddenly becomes pale and anxious with a boggy uterus. What is FIRST?

a)

Call provider

b)

Start IV fluids

c)

Massage the fundus

d)

Give oxygen

24.

The fundus is firm but bleeding continues. What is the nurse’s next action?

a)

Reposition the patient

b)

Assess for perineal lacerations

c)

Increase Pitocin

d)

Start magnesium

25.

Which postpartum finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention?

a)

Passing small clots

b)

Saturating pad in 15 minutes

c)

Mild cramping

d)

Fundus midline

26.

A nurse notes a postpartum hematoma. What symptom is expected?

a)

Bright red bleeding

b)

Firm fundus

c)

Extreme perineal pain

d)

Painless swelling

27.

Which order should be questioned in a patient with PPH and hypertension?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Cytotec

c)

Hemabate

d)

Methergine

28.

A patient is hemorrhaging, and Pitocin is ineffective. What drug should nurse anticipate?

a)

Zofran

b)

Cytotec (rectally)

c)

Narcan

d)

Penicillin

29.

A postpartum patient has BP 80/4080/40 , HR 130130 . What is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Notify provider

c)

Begin rapid infusion of fluids

d)

Lower HOB completely

30.

Which finding is an EARLY sign of hemorrhagic shock?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Absent pulses

31.

A nurse notes concealed bleeding and a firm uterus. What should she suspect?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Retained placenta

c)

Hematoma

d)

Abruption

32.

A postpartum patient with DIC displays oozing at IV sites. What is PRIORITY?

a)

Start magnesium

b)

Obtain clotting labs

c)

Prepare blood products

d)

Place patient in Fowler’s

33.

A nurse caring for a postpartum patient receiving Methergine should monitor:

a)

Temperature

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Reflexes

d)

FHR

34.

Which postpartum patient requires evaluation FIRST?

a)

Fundus firm and midline

b)

Reports mild dizziness after standing

c)

Pad soaked in 10 minutes

d)

Reports mild pain

35.

After giving Hemabate, what side effect is most concerning?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Nausea

c)

Bronchospasm

d)

Cramping

36.

A postpartum patient is shivering uncontrollably. Fundus firm, bleeding minimal. What should nurse suspect?

a)

Normal postpartum response

b)

Shock

c)

Infection

d)

Magnesium toxicity

37.

A postpartum patient hemorrhaging requires manual removal of placenta. What is priority post-procedure?

a)

Check BP

b)

Administer Methergine if no hypertension

c)

Start IV antibiotics

d)

Encourage ambulation

38.

What is the FIRST sign a postpartum patient is deteriorating?

a)

Typing on phone

b)

Increasing anxiety

c)

Deep sleep

d)

Hungry

39.

Which intervention BEST prevents PPH postpartum?

a)

Ambulation

b)

Frequent fundal checks

c)

Warm blankets

d)

Foley catheter

40.

Which finding after delivery requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Clots smaller than egg

b)

Moderate cramping

c)

BP increase from 100/60 → 146/96

d)

Headache after epidural

41.

A postpartum patient has a firm fundus but brisk dark red bleeding. What is the likely cause?

a)

Retained placenta

b)

Atony

c)

Infection

d)

Uterine inversion

42.

Which postpartum finding indicates the uterus is NOT effectively contracting?

a)

Firm fundus

b)

Midline location

c)

Boggy uterus

d)

Lochia rubra

43.

A postpartum patient is hypotensive after heavy bleeding. Which position improves perfusion?

a)

Supine

b)

High Fowler

c)

Side-lying

d)

Modified Trendelenburg

44.

A 28-year-old G2P1 client at 10 weeks has vaginal bleeding and is scheduled for a suction D&C. Her blood type is O negative. What is the nurse’s PRIORITY action?

a)

Encourage fluids

b)

Schedule follow-up ultrasound

c)

Confirm order for Rhogam

d)

Teach Kegel exercises

45.

A nurse is reviewing labs of four postpartum clients. Which one needs Rhogam?

a)

Rh-negative mom, Rh-negative baby

b)

Rh-positive mom, Rh-negative baby

c)

Rh-negative mom, Rh-positive baby, indirect Coombs negative

d)

Rh-positive mom, Rh-positive baby

46.

A client asks, “Why do I need another Rhogam shot after birth if I had one at 28 weeks?” Best response?

a)

The first dose wears off quickly.

b)

We repeat it because your baby’s blood type may be different from yours.

c)

It treats your baby’s jaundice.

d)

It prevents infection after delivery.

47.

A client’s LMP was March 20, 2025. Using Naegele’s rule, which EDD should the nurse document?

a)

December 20, 2025

b)

December 27, 2025

c)

January 3, 2026

d)

January 5, 2026

48.

A woman in her second trimester asks when she should call the clinic instead of waiting for her next visit. Which symptom requires IMMEDIATE reporting?

a)

Mild ankle swelling at end of day

b)

Occasional heartburn

c)

Decreased fetal movement

d)

Increased appetite

49.

A client with pregestational diabetes is 10 weeks pregnant. Which statement indicates need for more teaching?

a)

I can stop my insulin now that I’m pregnant.

b)

I will monitor my blood glucose as directed.

c)

I will keep my prenatal appointments regularly.

d)

I will report episodes of hypoglycemia.

50.

A diabetic pregnant woman arrives in active labor with glucose 198 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s PRIORITY action?

a)

Notify provider and anticipate IV insulin

b)

Give the patient orange juice

c)

Continue to monitor without intervention

d)

Give a high-carbohydrate snack

51.

A newborn of a diabetic mother is jittery and tachypneic. Which action is PRIORITY?

a)

Check blood glucose

b)

Start IV fluids immediately

c)

Place under radiant warmer

d)

Call the provider

52.

A newborn glucose returns at 32 mg/dL. The baby is awake and able to feed. What is the nurse’s FIRST action?

a)

Give IV dextrose

b)

Breastfeed or formula feed immediately

c)

Repeat glucose in 4 hours

d)

Observe only

53.

The nurse cares for a newborn of a diabetic mother (IDM). Which assessment finding is MOST concerning?

a)

Weight 9 lb 2 oz

b)

Blood glucose 60 mg/dL

c)

Respiratory grunting and nasal flaring

d)

Pink color with acrocyanosis

54.

A G2P1 client with gestational diabetes asks why the nurse is checking the baby’s blood glucose. Best response?

a)

“All babies get their sugar checked.”

b)

“Your baby may produce extra insulin, causing low blood sugar.”

c)

“Babies of diabetic moms always get diabetes.”

d)

“We do it to see if your baby needs insulin.”

55.

A diabetic pregnant woman asks how her condition affects labor. Which explanation is MOST accurate?

a)

“Your labor will be shorter.”

b)

“Your baby is more likely to be small for gestational age.”

c)

“Your baby might be large, increasing the risk for difficult delivery.”

d)

“Labor will not be affected at all.”

56.

A client with gestational diabetes states, “Once the baby is born, I can forget about diabetes.” What is the best response?

a)

“Yes, gestational diabetes always goes away.”

b)

“You’re right; you never have to worry about it again.”

c)

“You now have a higher risk of type 2 diabetes later in life.”

d)

“You won’t need follow-up testing.”

57.

A patient is being prepped for a non-emergent C-section. Which nursing action is MOST important prior to transfer to the OR?

a)

Encouraging the partner to eat

b)

Administering ordered sodium citrate

c)

Applying abdominal binder

d)

Starting Pitocin infusion

58.

Thirty minutes after epidural placement, a laboring client reports feeling dizzy. BP is 82/48. What is the nurse’s PRIORITY action?

a)

Place patient in high Fowler’s

b)

Turn patient to left side and increase IV fluids

c)

Stop IV fluids

d)

Encourage deep breathing

59.

The nurse is caring for a patient after C-section with Duramorph in the epidural. Which assessment is PRIORITY?

a)

Itching

b)

Pain score

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Bowel sounds

60.

A laboring client using patterned breathing and birthing ball asks how this helps. Which explanation shows understanding of gate control theory?

a)

“It distracts you so you forget about the pain.”

b)

“It blocks some of the pain signals traveling to your brain.”

c)

“It decreases uterine contractions.”

d)

“It prevents complications.”

61.

A nurse is assisting a patient in active labor who is groaning and clenching fists with each contraction. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

a)

Tell her to be quiet to conserve energy

b)

Coach her through slow deep breathing and offer position changes

c)

Turn up fetal monitor alarm

d)

Encourage her to push with each contraction

62.

A client at 36 weeks presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain and a firm, board-like uterus. There is scant dark red vaginal bleeding. What is the nurse’s PRIORITY?

a)

Prepare for a vaginal exam

b)

Place patient on bedrest and observe

c)

Notify provider—suspected placental abruption

d)

Discharge home with precautions

63.

A 34-week patient presents with painless bright red bleeding. Fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which nursing action is MOST important?

a)

Perform a sterile vaginal exam

b)

Place patient on bedrest and schedule ultrasound

c)

Start Pitocin infusion

d)

Encourage ambulation

64.

A laboring client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notes clear fluid. The FHR suddenly drops from 140 to 80. What is the FIRST action?

a)

Document and recheck in 10 minutes

b)

Call rapid response

c)

Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse

d)

Start Pitocin

65.

During assessment, the nurse palpates a pulsating cord in the vagina. Which action is PRIORITY?

a)

Remove the hand and wait for provider

b)

Insert Foley catheter

c)

Manually lift presenting part off the cord and maintain pressure

d)

Ask the patient to start pushing

66.

Which position is MOST appropriate for a patient with a prolapsed cord while waiting for C-section?

a)

Supine with legs extended

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Knee-chest or steep Trendelenburg

d)

High Fowler’s

67.

A nurse evaluates an electronic fetal heart strip: baseline 140, moderate variability, accelerations present, no decelerations. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Place patient on left side

c)

Continue to observe; pattern is reassuring

d)

Prepare for emergency delivery

68.

A strip shows recurrent late decelerations with each contraction. What is the priority action?

a)

Increase Pitocin

b)

Turn the patient to left side and apply oxygen

c)

Have patient hold breath and push

d)

Sit the patient upright

69.

Variable decelerations are noted. What is the likely cause?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Placental insufficiency

c)

Cord compression

d)

Head compression

70.

A nurse sees early decelerations that mirror contractions. What is the MOST appropriate action?

a)

Call provider immediately

b)

Document and continue monitoring

c)

Turn patient side-lying

d)

Stop Pitocin

71.

A nulliparous patient asks how she will know she is in “true labor.” Which response best uses application-level teaching?

a)

“You’ll just know when it happens.”

b)

“True labor contractions cause cervical change and get stronger and closer together.”

c)

“When you can’t talk during contractions, it’s true labor.”

d)

“Any pain you feel is labor.”

72.

The parents of an uncircumcised male newborn ask how to clean his penis. Which teaching is MOST appropriate?

a)

“Fully retract the foreskin daily and scrub.”

b)

“Gently clean only the outside; do not force the foreskin back.”

c)

“Use alcohol wipes after every diaper change.”

d)

“Apply petroleum jelly inside the foreskin.”

73.

After circumcision with a Gomco clamp, which parent statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

“I should remove the yellow crust each day.”

b)

“I’ll apply petroleum jelly on the diaper to prevent sticking.”

c)

“If I see a few drops of blood, I’ll rush to the ER.”

d)

“We will clean it with alcohol every change.”

74.

A nurse is checking a newborn’s car seat before discharge. Which finding requires intervention?

a)

The chest clip is positioned at armpit level.

b)

The infant is placed in a rear-facing seat in the back seat.

c)

Bulky blanket and puffy jacket are used under the harness straps.

d)

The harness straps are snug with no slack at the shoulders.

75.

Which teaching indicates correct use of a rear-facing infant car seat?

a)

“We’ll put the seat forward-facing after 1 month.”

b)

“We will place the seat rear-facing in the back seat, tightly installed.”

c)

“We can hold the baby if the back seat is crowded.”

d)

“We’ll move the chest clip near the belly for comfort.”

76.

A nurse calls a provider twice about a critical BP in a preeclamptic patient with no response. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Wait 30 more minutes and try again

b)

Document and stop trying

c)

Activate the chain of command and notify charge nurse

d)

Call the patient’s family

77.

A nurse is alone in a room with an increasingly aggressive family member. The nurse feels unsafe. What is the PRIORITY action?

a)

Continue teaching but speak more firmly

b)

Shout at the family member to stop

c)

Leave the room and call security/charge nurse

d)

Ignore the behavior

78.

A patient in active labor is moaning and gripping bedrails during contractions. Which nursing response BEST promotes comfort and physiologic labor?

a)

“You need to be quiet to save your energy.”

b)

“Let’s change your position and focus on your breathing together.”

c)

“I’ll just turn up your Pitocin so we can finish faster.”

d)

“Try to hold your breath through it.”

79.

In the first trimester, which teaching is MOST appropriate?

a)

Fetal movement counting

b)

Preparation for labor positions

c)

Managing nausea/vomiting and recognizing signs of miscarriage

d)

Breastfeeding techniques

80.

A provider orders Methergine IM for a woman with heavy postpartum bleeding. Her BP is 162/104. What should the nurse do FIRST?

a)

Give medication as ordered

b)

Hold medication and notify provider

c)

Give half the dose

d)

Ask another nurse to administer it

81.

A woman with a history of asthma is hemorrhaging. The nurse anticipates orders for which medication to be AVOIDED?

a)

Carboprost (Hemabate)

b)

Methylergonovine (Methergine)

c)

Oxytocin (Pitocin)

d)

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

82.

A nurse is teaching a patient in the second trimester. Which topic is MOST appropriate?

a)

Grief after loss

b)

Fetal movement patterns and body changes

c)

Immediate labor signs

d)

Newborn car seat laws only

83.

A patient in transition (8–10 cm) is screaming, saying “I can’t do this!” Which action is PRIORITY?

a)

Increase room noise so she can focus

b)

Tell her to calm down

c)

Use firm, direct coaching and breathing guidance

d)

Leave room to call provider

84.

A nurse is calculating a magnesium sulfate loading dose. The order: “4 grams over 30 minutes.” The IV bag is labeled 40 g MgSO4 in 1000 mL. What rate should the pump be set at? (You don’t have to show math on the exam; choose the most reasonable nursing action.)

a)

30 mL/hr

b)

60 mL/hr

c)

120 mL/hr

d)

240 mL/hr

85.

A nurse notes that a postpartum patient who lost 1200 mL blood seems unusually calm and says, “I’m fine, don’t worry about me,” while her BP is dropping. What is the BEST interpretation?

a)

She is coping well

b)

She is in denial and may be in early shock

c)

She does not understand postpartum changes

d)

She is ready for discharge

86.

A laboring client with epidural anesthesia suddenly cannot move her arms and complains of shortness of breath. What does the nurse suspect FIRST?

a)

Normal epidural effect

b)

High spinal block

c)

Panic attack

d)

Placental abruption

87.

During active labor, which nursing action MOST supports physiologic progression of labor?

a)

Keeping patient confined to bed

b)

Encouraging frequent position changes and upright posture

c)

Restricting oral fluids

d)

Avoiding any movement to “rest the uterus”

88.

A labor nurse caring for two patients must decide who to see FIRST. Which patient is the PRIORITY?

a)

A woman in early labor requesting pain medication

b)

A woman with epidural whose BP is 84/50

c)

A woman in active labor walking in the hall

d)

A woman waiting for her admission assessment

89.

A mother insists on placing the infant’s car seat in the front passenger seat with the airbag “off.” What is the nurse’s BEST response?

a)

“That is okay if the airbag is off.”

b)

“As long as the straps are tight, that’s safe.”

c)

“The safest place is rear-facing in the back seat of the car.”

d)

“You can hold the baby just this once.”

90.

Which of the following situations requires the nurse to use the chain of command to protect the patient?

a)

Provider disagrees with patient’s birth plan, but patient is stable

b)

Provider refuses to come evaluate a patient with late decelerations and BP 170/110 after multiple calls

c)

Family is dissatisfied with hospital food

d)

Patient is anxious about a procedure

91.

A client reports fatigue, nausea in the morning, and breast tenderness. Which type of pregnancy signs are these?

a)

Probable

b)

Presumptive

c)

Positive

92.

A nurse notes a bluish discoloration of the cervix (Chadwick’s sign) during an exam. What type of pregnancy sign is this?

a)

Probable

b)

Presumptive

c)

Positive

93.

An ultrasound shows a fetal skeleton and cardiac activity. How should the nurse interpret this?

a)

Positive

b)

Probable

c)

Presumptive

94.

A patient is receiving Penicillin G before a C-section. Which finding indicates the medication is being used correctly?

a)

The patient reports decreased pain

b)

It is given before surgery begins to prevent infection

c)

The nurse administers it IM in the thigh

d)

It is used to control bleeding after birth

95.

A pregnant patient is given Betamethasone at 30 weeks. Which statement demonstrates correct understanding?

a)

"This will stop my contractions.”

b)

“This is to help mature my baby’s lungs before birth.”

c)

“This will help with my pain.”

d)

“This is only for controlling my blood pressure.”

96.

A laboring patient in early active labor reports increasing back pain with each contraction. The nurse applies firm counter-pressure to the patient’s lower back. The patient reports the pain “feels more manageable now.” According to the gate control theory of pain, what explains this response?

a)

Counter-pressure stops uterine contractions

b)

Non-painful sensory stimulation blocks pain signals from reaching the brain

c)

Pressure increases endorphin release from the placenta

d)

Counter-pressure reduces fetal descent, decreasing pain

97.

A client at 5 cm dilation is breathing heavily and reports, “These contractions are coming so much stronger and closer together.” Contractions are every 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds. The nurse recognizes the client is MOST likely in which phase of labor?

a)

Latent phase of the first stage

b)

Active phase of the first stage

c)

Transition phase of the first stage

d)

Second stage of labor

98.

A multipara client is 10 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is +2 station. The client reports a strong urge to push with every contraction. What is the nurse’s PRIORITY action?

a)

Instruct the client to blow through contractions

b)

Have the client begin pushing with each contraction

c)

Immediately call for the anesthesia provider

d)

Recheck the cervix to confirm dilation

99.

A client at her first prenatal visit reports she has been pregnant three times, has two living children, and had one miscarriage at 8 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL?

a)

G3 T2 P0 A1 L2

b)

G4 T2 P1 A0 L2

c)

G3 T1 P1 A1 L2

d)

G4 T1 P1 A1 L1

100.

A client at 30 weeks pregnant asks when she should return for her next prenatal appointment. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Which response is MOST accurate?

a)

“Every 4 weeks until delivery.”

b)

“Every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly.”

c)

“Weekly until delivery.”

d)

“Only return if you feel something is wrong.”