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tci gov post test

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these officials serves as one country's highest-ranking, long-term representative to another country?

a)

ambassador

b)

chief of staff

c)

consul

d)

secretary of state

2.

All of the following are basic goals of U.S. foreign policy except

a)

promoting prosperity

b)

preserving world peace

c)

preventing globalization

d)

protecting national security

3.

Diplomacy is the art and practice of which of the following?

a)

competing for advantages in international trade

b)

imposing a powerful country's will upon weaker countries

c)

managing communication and relationships between nations

d)

negotiating agreements between the executive and legislative branches

4.

Which of these foreign policy powers belongs primarily to Congress?

a)

negotiating trade agreements

b)

controlling military spending

c)

gathering foreign intelligence

d)

appointing foreign ambassadors

5.

Sending food to disaster victims in another country is an example of which of the following?

a)

military assistance

b)

security assistance

c)

development assistance

d)

humanitarian assistance

6.

Where is a most-favored-nation clause most likely to appear?

a)

in a multilateral peace treaty

b)

in a bilateral trade agreement

c)

in a cultural exchange contract

d)

in a diplomatic recognition statement

7.

Issuing passports and visas is the responsibility of which of the following?

a)

Department of State

b)

Department of Defense

c)

National Security Council

d)

Central Intelligence Agency

8.

Which of these is considered a "hard power" tool of foreign policy?

a)

foreign aid

b)

covert action

c)

trade agreements

d)

cultural exchanges

9.

What is the main purpose of sanctions?

a)

to reward allies for policies of cooperation

b)

to expose other countries to foreign cultures

c)

to encourage the growth of international trade

d)

to pressure another country to change its policies

10.

Which of these best describes the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

a)

a powerful economic trading bloc

b)

the world's largest military alliance

c)

a coalition of countries fighting terrorism

d)

the international agency for patent enforcement

11.

Which of these human activities do scientists consider the main cause of recent global warming?

a)

burning fossil fuels

b)

cutting down forests

c)

building nuclear plants

d)

mining precious metals

12.

In which of these UN organs or agencies does the United States hold veto power?

a)

World Bank

b)

Security Council

c)

General Assembly

d)

International Monetary Fund

13.

Sustainable development is economic development that meets human needs without doing which of the following?

a)

using up resources needed in the future

b)

limiting the sovereignty of nation-states

c)

favoring wealthy nations over poor ones

d)

increasing extreme poverty in poor countries

14.

In the phrase Geneva Conventions, the word convention refers to which of these?

a)

a traditional practice widely accepted around the world

b)

an amendment or addition to an international treaty

c)

a gathering of heads of state to discuss common issues

d)

an international agreement on matters of broad interest

15.

The International Court of Justice handles which type of legal cases?

a)

disputes between one nation and another

b)

human rights violations such as child labor

c)

requests for military intervention in troubled areas

d)

charges against individuals for crimes against humanity

16.

The Millennium Declaration was signed by leaders of 150 countries at a summit in 2000. What did this document do?

a)

defined the right to freedom of expression

b)

set specific goals to combat global poverty

c)

affirmed human equality regardless of race or religion

d)

agreed on sanctions against countries that threatened others

17.

What did the nations that signed the Kyoto Protocol in 1997 agree to do?

a)

ensure the safety of ships at sea

b)

ban the use of chemical weapons

c)

reduce their greenhouse gas emissions

d)

provide troops for peacekeeping missions

18.

Which organ of the United Nations has power to impose its decisions by force?

a)

Secretariat

b)

Security Council

c)

General Assembly

d)

Economic and Social Council

19.

Which of these international organizations was formed on the basis of shared economic interests?

a)

International Criminal Court (ICC)

b)

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

c)

Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)

d)

Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

20.

What is the purpose of the 1968 Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty?

a)

to stop the spread of nuclear weapons

b)

to solve the problem of storing nuclear waste

c)

to increase the safety of nuclear power plants

d)

to discourage the development of nuclear energy

21.

Which of these does a prosecuting attorney represent?

a)

the injured party in a lawsuit

b)

the officials in the courtroom

c)

the person accused of a crime

d)

the government and the people

22.

What is an order by the Supreme Court directing a lower court to send it the records of a case called?

a)

a writ of certiorari

b)

a writ of habeas corpus

c)

a writ of mandamus

d)

a writ of stare decisis

23.

What is the job of an appellate court when it takes a case on appeal?

a)

to look for errors of law

b)

to conduct a new jury trial

c)

to weigh all the trial evidence

d)

to determine the proper verdict

24.

How does someone become a judge in the federal court system?

a)

by a popular election

b)

by a retention election

c)

by presidential appointment

d)

by passing a civil service test

25.

Which of these established the present system of federal district and circuit courts?

a)

Judiciary Act of 1789

b)

Senate Judiciary Committee

c)

Northwest Ordinance of 1787

d)

Article III of the Constitution

26.

What is meant by the term burden of proof?

a)

the need to examine the reliability of witnesses

b)

the challenge of finding a fair and impartial jury

c)

the duty to prove alleged facts in a case with solid evidence

d)

the obligation to consider a person innocent until proven guilty

27.

Which of the following is most likely to write an amicus curiae brief?

a)

an appellate judge

b)

a defense attorney

c)

an interest group

d)

a special prosecutor

28.

Which term refers to the person who files a lawsuit in a civil case?

a)

bailiff

b)

plaintiff

c)

defendant

d)

friend of the court

29.

The below quotation supports which of the following approaches to making judicial decisions? Judges are like umpires. Umpires don't make the rules, they apply them.

a)

loose construction

b)

judicial activism

c)

judicial restraint

d)

interpretivism

30.

What determines which appeals the Supreme Court will hear?

a)

The attorney general assigns cases.

b)

The justices choose their own cases.

c)

The circuit courts recommend cases.

d)

The special federal courts refer cases.

31.

In our judicial system, for which of these is the jury responsible?

a)

the burden of proof

b)

the arrest warrant

c)

the arraignment

d)

the verdict

32.

What is the purpose of setting bail?

a)

to guarantee that the accused will return for trial

b)

to punish a minor offense without going to court

c)

to cover the costs of time a criminal spends in jail

d)

to enable the judge to dispose of a case more quickly

33.

A crime is defined as a wrongful act that

a)

damages property.

b)

is done with intent.

c)

violates federal law.

d)

does harm to others.

34.

Which of these is typically a felony?

a)

armed assault

b)

disturbing the peace

c)

petty theft

d)

traffic violation

35.

What is the role of the jury foreman during a trial?

a)

to break a tie vote by the jury

b)

to chair the jury's deliberations

c)

to take notes for the jury's use later

d)

to protect the jury from outside pressure

36.

Law enforcement officials must present evidence to a judge in order to do which of the following?

a)

obtain a search warrant

b)

question a suspect in a case

c)

book someone after an arrest

d)

chase a suspect fleeing a crime

37.

What does a grand jury decide?

a)

whether a plea bargain is fair to the accused

b)

whether the rights of the accused were violated

c)

whether an accused person should be brought to trial

d)

whether evidence against the accused was legally obtained

38.

How does restitution differ from other forms of punishment?

a)

It allows prisoners to seek early parole.

b)

It rehabilitates criminals through job training.

c)

It requires defendants to do community service.

d)

It compensates the victims of crimes for their losses.

39.

What is the principal advantage to the criminal justice system of allowing plea bargains?

a)

It protects innocent suspects from pressure.

b)

It ensures that the punishment will fit the crime.

c)

It reduces the number of trials courts must hold.

d)

It gets criminals off the streets for a longer time.

40.

The exclusionary rule excludes which of these from use in trials?

a)

confessions made after an arrest

b)

evidence gained by illegal means

c)

circumstantial or indirect evidence

d)

testimony from unreliable witnesses

41.

Which of these is not a qualification for seeking the presidency?

a)

college graduate

b)

natural-born citizen

c)

at least 35 years old

d)

lived in United States at least 14 years

42.

The position of a lieutenant governor in a state is comparable to that of which position in the federal government?

a)

attorney general

b)

chief of staff

c)

secretary of defense

d)

vice president

43.

Which of these processes allows voters in many states to remove an elected official from office?

a)

impeachment

b)

initiative

c)

recall

d)

referendum

44.

Who initiated the tradition of addressing the president as “Mr. President”?

a)

Andrew Jackson

b)

Abraham Lincoln

c)

Theodore Roosevelt

d)

George Washington

45.

What did Andrew Jackson do that led his critics to call him “King Andrew”?

a)

He called Congress into special session.

b)

He suspended the right of habeas corpus.

c)

He used the presidency as a "bully pulpit."

d)

He expanded the use of the presidential veto.

46.

Which factor most influences whether a president might choose to use a pocket veto?

a)

who in Congress voted for the bill

b)

how close Congress is to adjournment

c)

whether the bill has broad public support

d)

the impact that signing will have on the budget

47.

The president's speechwriters, administrative assistants, and press secretary all work as part of which group?

a)

White House staff

b)

White House press corps

c)

Executive Office of the President

d)

Office of Management and Budget

48.

What does the list below show?

a)

the line of presidential succession

b)

the makeup of the president’s cabinet

c)

the organization of the executive branch

d)

the leadership of the federal bureaucracy

49.

All of the following are examples of independent agencies except the

a)

Peace Corps.

b)

Department of Justice.

c)

National Endowment for the Arts.

d)

Environmental Protection Agency.

50.

Deficit spending occurs when the federal government wants to

a)

lower the national debt.

b)

increase surpluses in the budget.

c)

fund programs without raising taxes.

d)

strengthen local and state governments.

51.

Richard Nixon angered Congress by abusing the presidential power of impoundment. This power allows a president to refuse to

a)

sign spending bills.

b)

spend appropriated funds.

c)

prepare a budget proposal.

d)

honor negotiated agreements.

52.

Which of these events happens first in the budget cycle?

a)

Congress adopts a budget resolution.

b)

Federal bureaucrats prepare budget requests.

c)

Legislators insert earmarks into appropriation bills.

d)

House and Senate budget committees hold hearings.

53.

On which date does the federal fiscal year begin?

a)

January 1

b)

April 1

c)

July 1

d)

October 1

54.

What is the purpose of a continuing resolution?

a)

to combine 12 appropriation bills into one budget

b)

to keep the government working without a budget

c)

to set guidelines for congressional budget making

d)

to close congressional debate on appropriation bills

55.

Which of the following is the largest source of federal revenue?

a)

corporate income taxes

b)

excise taxes

c)

individual income taxes

d)

payroll taxes

56.

What is the largest category of federal discretionary spending?

a)

defense

b)

education

c)

health

d)

welfare

57.

Which of these is an entitlement?

a)

a low-income family's food stamps

b)

a federally funded highway program

c)

a manufacturer's government contract

d)

a federal grant to fund medical research

58.

A government with revenues of 52millionandexpendituresof52 million and expenditures of 49 million in the same year has which of the following?

a)

a budget deficit

b)

a budget surplus

c)

a balanced budget

d)

a proposed budget

59.

Which of these taxes is most likely to be regressive?

a)

a corporate income tax

b)

an estate tax

c)

an individual income tax

d)

a sales tax

60.

Property taxes are the main source of revenue for many local governments. What is the main disadvantage of this type of tax?

a)

It is a difficult tax to collect.

b)

It is a highly progressive tax.

c)

It may discourage people from saving.

d)

It may not reflect people's ability to pay.

61.

Which of these is the best definition of constituents?

a)

donors who contribute cash or services to an electoral campaign

b)

residents of an electoral district represented by an elected official

c)

citizens nationwide who benefit from an elected official's programs

d)

voters in an elected official's home state who belong to the same party

62.

Where do most members of Congress begin their political careers?

a)

as lobbyists

b)

in the military

c)

in local politics

d)

as staff assistants

63.

Which of these events triggers reapportionment of seats in the House of Representatives?

a)

a change in House leadership

b)

a census conducted every 10 years

c)

the election of representatives every 2 years

d)

the decision of the House to authorize redistricting

64.

What determines the number of seats in the Senate?

a)

The Constitution specifies the exact number of seats.

b)

The number of seats depends on the number of states.

c)

Congress fixed the maximum number of seats in 1911.

d)

The number of seats depends on each state's population.

65.

In saying "The power of the speaker of the House is the power of scheduling," Tip O'Neill was referring chiefly to the speaker's power to do which of the following?

a)

choose the hours of breaks and meals

b)

control the meeting dates of committees

c)

determine the timing of national elections

d)

decide which bills will be debated and when

66.

Which of these groups handles most of the detailed work of lawmaking in Congress?

a)

joint committees

b)

select committees

c)

standing committees

d)

conference committees

67.

A conference committee is made up of members from both the

a)

House and Senate.

b)

majority and minority parties.

c)

legislative and executive branches.

d)

Republican and Democratic caucuses.

68.

Which of these powers belongs only to the Senate?

a)

the power to conduct hearings

b)

the power to impeach officials

c)

the power to initiate tax bills

d)

the power to ratify treaties

69.

What do the powers of oversight, confirmation, impeachment, ratification, override, and amendment have in common?

a)

They keep Congress from becoming too powerful.

b)

They enable Congress to dominate the other two branches.

c)

They help Congress check the power of the other two branches.

d)

They force the two chambers of Congress to cooperate with each other.

70.

Which of the following might apply to state lawmakers but not to members of Congress?

a)

advantage of incumbency

b)

minimum age qualifications

c)

residency requirements

d)

term limits

71.

What is meant by logrolling?

a)

trading votes

b)

delaying legislation

c)

meeting with lobbyists

d)

doing favors for constituents

72.

A high school junior who works as a messenger in the House or Senate is called a congressional

a)

cadet.

b)

intern.

c)

page.

d)

plebe.

73.

What is the process used in the Senate to end a filibuster called?

a)

cloture

b)

devolution

c)

prior restraint

d)

vote of no confidence

74.

In their oath of office, lawmakers swear to support and defend

a)

their party.

b)

the Congress.

c)

the Constitution.

d)

their constituents.

75.

Which of these is a key factor in choosing committee chairs?

a)

age

b)

seniority

c)

education

d)

experience

76.

What is a Christmas tree bill?

a)

a bill approved late in the session

b)

a bill that raises the pay of lawmakers

c)

a bill passed as a favor to the president

d)

a bill that has attracted many unrelated riders

77.

Before a bill can be sent to the president, both chambers of Congress must vote to

a)

approve the same version.

b)

restore the original language.

c)

have a supermajority in favor.

d)

authorize the president to change it.

78.

How can Congress override a presidential veto?

a)

Congress must wait until after the next election to reconsider the bill.

b)

Congress must agree to amend the bill to meet the president's objections.

c)

Congress must approve the bill again by a majority vote in both chambers.

d)

Congress must approve the bill again by a two-thirds vote in both chambers.

79.

What does a committee or subcommittee do during markup?

a)

call outside experts to testify

b)

determine the final language of a bill

c)

place a bill on the calendar for discussion

d)

take an initial informal vote before debate

80.

Which kind of vote in Congress tells constituents how their lawmakers voted?

a)

voice vote

b)

roll-call vote

c)

standing vote

d)

up-or-down vote

81.

Which of these are considered the building blocks of civil society?

a)

groups that people join voluntarily

b)

media that influence public opinion

c)

patterns of generally accepted behavior

d)

agencies of local or county government

82.

Which part of the U.S. Constitution defines U.S. citizenship?

a)

Preamble

b)

Article VI

c)

Bill of Rights

d)

Fourteenth Amendment

83.

Which term is defined in the box below?

a)

civic virtue

b)

public good

c)

rule of law

d)

political culture

84.

Which political ideology favors the least government regulation of any kind?

a)

conservatism

b)

liberalism

c)

libertarianism

d)

socialism

85.

Which of the following committed the United States to protecting the rights of all Americans regardless of race, sex, religion, or national origin?

a)

Plessy v. Ferguson

b)

Fourteenth Amendment

c)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

d)

Brown v. Board of Education

86.

What is the primary goal of political parties?

a)

to create a national platform

b)

to get their candidates elected

c)

to collect campaign contributions

d)

to attract members who agree on issues

87.

The idea that political power should be distributed and shared among various groups in society is known as

a)

centrism

b)

pluralism

c)

socialism

d)

libertarianism

88.

Which political party in the United States had the longest continuous existence?

a)

Democrats

b)

Federalists

c)

Progressives

d)

Republicans

89.

Which of these is found in a party platform?

a)

a description of the party's structure

b)

a statement of the party's principles

c)

a list of the party's campaign contributors

d)

a plan for getting the party's candidates elected

90.

Which of these is the first step in the policymaking process?

a)

agenda setting

b)

policy adoption

c)

policy evaluation

d)

issue identification

91.

Which of the following is the best definition of public opinion?

a)

the sum of many individual views

b)

what journalists think about issues

c)

the beliefs of one or more interest groups

d)

how politicians express common attitudes

92.

Which of the following is the most important reason why a scientific poll is more accurate than a straw poll?

a)

the type of questions asked

b)

the number of people surveyed

c)

the method of sampling employed

d)

the means of contacting people used

93.

The founders of our country saw a free press as a safeguard against

a)

negative campaigning.

b)

the abuse of power.

c)

the rise of parties.

d)

political gridlock.

94.

How can the company conducting an opinion poll reduce the margin of error?

a)

ask fewer questions

b)

survey a larger sample

c)

use mail instead of phone

d)

limit the survey to college graduates

95.

How do political analysts determine the voting patterns of women and men?

a)

conduct exit polls

b)

examine the ballots

c)

review election results

d)

interview election judges

96.

The emphasis on elections in the United States most reflects which constitutional principle?

a)

individual rights

b)

popular sovereignty

c)

checks and balances

d)

separation of powers

97.

Which of the following groups benefited most from the Voting Rights Act of 1965?

a)

women

b)

18- to 20-year-olds

c)

Indigenous people

d)

African Americans

98.

What is the main criticism leveled against the Electoral College system for electing presidents?

a)

It takes too long.

b)

It is undemocratic.

c)

It discourages voting.

d)

It costs too much money.

99.

What is the main source of funding for election campaigns?

a)

public financing

b)

contributions from PACs

c)

personal wealth of candidates

d)

donations from individual citizens

100.

Which of these is the most likely reason for a donor to contribute to two opposing campaigns?

a)

to encourage others to donate as well

b)

to reduce the risk of a third-party victory

c)

to show support for the two-party system

d)

to gain access to whichever candidate wins

101.

Which of the following best defines the principle of popular sovereignty?

a)

The powers of a government are limited by the people.

b)

Government is based on laws that apply to all the people.

c)

The ultimate source of governmental authority is the people.

d)

Elected leaders work through government to serve the people.

102.

Which complaint was the greatest barrier to ratifying the Constitution?

a)

It did not include a bill of rights.

b)

It had to be approved by all 13 states.

c)

It allowed too many people to vote.

d)

It created a weak central government.

103.

Consider the quotations below. “Life, liberty, and property . . . ” —John Locke “Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness . . . ” —Declaration of Independence Both quotations list what our nation's founders believed to be

a)

civil virtues.

b)

natural rights.

c)

the general will.

d)

the rights of Englishmen.

104.

The Articles of Confederation reflected Americans' fear of

a)

a permanent standing army.

b)

a strong central government.

c)

a threatened foreign invasion.

d)

a breakdown in law and order.

105.

Thomas Paine, author of Common Sense, was influenced by Rousseau's argument that a government should be dissolved if it

a)

was too weak to be effective.

b)

acted contrary to the general will.

c)

depended on inherited leadership.

d)

could not keep the economy stable.

106.

The Preamble to the Constitution lists which of the following?

a)

steps for amending the Constitution

b)

purpose to be served by the Constitution

c)

procedures for ratifying the Constitution

d)

guidelines for interpreting the Constitution

107.

Why did the framers of the Constitution create three separate branches of government?

a)

to help people with different opinions cooperate

b)

to increase the power of the central government

c)

to keep any one group from gaining too much power

d)

to provide enough officials to handle the volume of work

108.

Which of these is the defining characteristic of a federal system of government?

a)

Elected representatives make decisions for the nation.

b)

Power is divided between central and regional bodies.

c)

Separate branches have different areas of responsibility.

d)

Legislative actions are limited by a set of written guidelines.

109.

Which of these is the best example of constitutional checks and balances?

a)

Treaties require Senate approval.

b)

The Constitution may be amended.

c)

The president is paid for his services.

d)

Courts decide conflicts between states.

110.

The process of amending the Constitution involves both

a)

the Congress and the states.

b)

the president and the Congress.

c)

the states and the Supreme Court.

d)

the Supreme Court and the president.

111.

Which of these plays the largest role in interpreting the Bill of Rights?

a)

Congress

b)

state legislatures

c)

the Supreme Court

d)

the executive branch

112.

Which of these unpopular forms of expression is protected by the First Amendment?

a)

libel

b)

slander

c)

obscenity

d)

flag burning

113.

The Fifth, Sixth, Seventh, and Eighth amendments protect

a)

voting rights.

b)

privacy rights.

c)

rights in the legal system.

d)

rights reserved to the states.

114.

The phrase “You have the right to remain silent” reflects the provision in the Bill of Rights regarding

a)

double jeopardy.

b)

eminent domain.

c)

judicial review.

d)

self-incrimination.

115.

The term prior restraint refers to which government action?

a)

deciding a law is unconstitutional

b)

preventing publication of certain material

c)

jailing individuals without bail before a trial

d)

searching people suspected of planning a crime

116.

According to the U.S. Constitution, the national government must guarantee that every state government

a)

updates its laws regularly.

b)

has a republican structure.

c)

has a bicameral legislature.

d)

limits governors to two terms.

117.

Presidents Richard Nixon and Ronald Reagan both advocated a policy known as devolution. What was this policy aimed at?

a)

limiting taxes levied by states

b)

reducing federal grants to the states

c)

transferring power back to the states

d)

improving cooperation among the states

118.

Which of these descriptions best defines gerrymandering?

a)

interpreting laws in a way that benefits the party in power

b)

enlarging a court by the addition of politically appointed judges

c)

drawing legislative district boundaries to give one group an advantage

d)

combining local governments into larger units to increase their influence

119.

Which of these units of government is most likely to regulate water systems, cemeteries, hospitals, sewers, fire protection services, and schools?

a)

a city council

b)

a state legislature

c)

a special-purpose district

d)

a county board of supervisors

120.

Which form of city government, combining democratic rule with professional expertise, is most common in the United States today?

a)

council-manager

b)

elected commission

c)

weak mayor-council

d)

strong mayor-council

121.

Which of these is an essential feature of political activity?

a)

It is difficult.

b)

It is idealistic.

c)

It is individualistic.

d)

It is purposeful.

122.

On December 1, 1955, Rosa Parks went to jail rather than give up her bus seat to a white passenger. Her action was an example of which of the following?

a)

horse trading

b)

power struggle

c)

collective action

d)

civil disobedience

123.

Which of the following are considered the basic building blocks of government?

a)

political conflict and compromise

b)

revenue collection and coercion

c)

a legitimate ruler and happy subjects

d)

a stable population and fixed territory

124.

Which kind of country is most likely to have a federal system of government?

a)

large, with a diverse population

b)

urban, with an industrial economy

c)

poor, with an unskilled population

d)

small, with an abundance of resources

125.

What is a coup?

a)

removal of a dictator from power with a vote

b)

establishment of colonial rule by a global superpower

c)

a sudden overthrow of a government by a small military

d)

peaceful protests

126.

Which kind of economy is most common in the world today?

a)

market

b)

mixed

c)

command

d)

traditional

127.

In a parliamentary democracy, who chooses the prime minister?

a)

the country's single party

b)

an assembly of eligible voters

c)

electors appointed by the monarch

d)

the party with a legislative majority

128.

A ruler's legitimacy depends mainly on which of these factors?

a)

the ruler's personal wealth

b)

the ruler's political ambition

c)

people's acceptance of the ruler's authority

d)

people's fear of the ruler's power

129.

Which of these factors most distinguishes dictators from monarchs?

a)

how they acquire and retain power

b)

how they make economic decisions

c)

how they choose their close advisers

d)

how they regard the rights of citizens

130.

Which of these individuals is most likely to exercise power without authority?

a)

a traffic officer

b)

a school principal

c)

an armed robber

d)

a business owner

131.

In a command economy, who decides how much to produce?

a)

government planners

b)

individual consumers

c)

industrial labor unions

d)

corporate shareholders

132.

Which of these is most likely to involve horse trading?

a)

a labor strike

b)

a local election

c)

a business deal

d)

a protest march

133.

Which of these is a common feature of market economies?

a)

low living standards for most people

b)

economic stability with no recessions

c)

public ownership of farms and factories

d)

production of high-quality goods and services

134.

Socialism began as an attempt to correct which disadvantage of capitalism?

a)

lack of motivation to work

b)

failure to reward new ideas

c)

uneven distribution of wealth

d)

inflexibility in the face of change

135.

Which of these is the best example of a public good?

a)

a gas station

b)

a movie theater

c)

a clothing store

d)

a town library

136.

Nazism is a form of fascism built on the idea of

a)

free enterprise.

b)

market socialism.

c)

racial superiority.

d)

national sovereignty.

137.

A New England town meeting is an example of

a)

confederal democracy.

b)

direct democracy.

c)

parliamentary democracy.

d)

federal democracy.