wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Objectives

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Anika is learning about how diabetes develops in her medical class. Which concept best describes the changes that occur at the cellular and hormonal level in diabetes?

a)

Pathophysiology of insulin dysregulation

b)

Sociocultural access to healthy foods

c)

Administrative billing for clinic visits

d)

Marketing strategies for glucose meters

2.

Ethan is reviewing his health risks with his doctor. Which set of factors would his doctor most likely identify as predictive risk factors for diabetes?

a)

Obesity, family history, physical inactivity

b)

High education level, wealth accumulation

c)

Mindfulness, yoga practice, meditation

d)

Annual dental cleaning, flu vaccination

3.

Aria is a nurse caring for a client with diabetes. Which step belongs in the nursing process?

a)

Negotiating clinic lease contracts

b)

Assessment of blood glucose patterns

c)

Designing pharmaceutical advertisements

d)

Selling insurance policy options

4.

Anika has recently been diagnosed with diabetes and is assembling her collaborative care team. Which professional should be part of her team for diabetes management?

a)

Retail store merchandiser

b)

Registered dietitian nutritionist

c)

Patent attorney specialist

d)

Airline operations supervisor

5.

Oliver has diabetes and is working with his healthcare team to improve his health outcomes. Which determinant of health will most directly impact Oliver's ability to manage his diabetes?

a)

Number of streaming subscriptions

b)

Preference for luxury fashion brands

c)

Frequency of international tourism

d)

Access to affordable, nutritious food

6.

During a period of fasting, Isla's body needs to maintain her blood glucose levels. Which pathway helps generate glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors to support her energy needs?

a)

Lipogenesis in adipose tissue

b)

Gluconeogenesis in the liver

c)

Proteolysis in the pancreas

d)

Glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

7.

Emma is learning about how her body stores energy after eating a meal. According to the diagram, which tissue in her body is primarily responsible for triglyceride storage under the influence of hormones?

a)

Skeletal muscle fibers

b)

Adipose tissue depots

c)

Pancreatic islets

d)

Renal cortex cells

8.

Mia is training for a marathon and has been fasting for an extended period, leading to depleted glycogen stores. Which process must increase in her body to maintain blood glucose?

a)

Anaerobic glycolysis in muscle

b)

Triglyceride storage in adipose

c)

Glycogenolysis in the liver

d)

Gluconeogenesis from amino acids

9.

After a long run, Ava's skeletal muscles begin to break down proteins. Based on the diagram, which statement best describes what happens to the amino acids released from her muscles?

a)

They perform hepatic gluconeogenesis

b)

They store triglycerides long term

c)

They convert glucose to ketones

d)

They are released into blood

10.

After a long run, Evelyn's body releases hormonal signals that promote glycogenolysis. Which immediate outcome will most directly increase as a result?

a)

Triglyceride synthesis rate

b)

Blood glucose concentration

c)

Renal gluconeogenesis flux

d)

Protein transcription activity

11.

Maya recently went for a routine health check-up. Her doctor explained that in healthy adults, the typical fasting blood glucose is closest to which value range?

a)

120–130 mg/dL fasting level

b)

100–110 mg/dL fasting level

c)

80–90 mg/dL fasting level

d)

60–70 mg/dL fasting level

12.

Ethan has just finished eating a mixed meal and wants to check his blood glucose level. What blood glucose range is expected for nondiabetic individuals immediately after a meal?

a)

100–120 mg/dL post-meal

b)

130–150 mg/dL post-meal

c)

90–100 mg/dL post-meal

d)

70–90 mg/dL post-meal

13.

After eating a meal, Evelyn’s blood glucose rises. Which statement best describes insulin’s immediate role in her body?

a)

Insulin enables glucose entry into cells

b)

Insulin triggers glucose release from liver

c)

Insulin converts glucose into fatty acids

d)

Insulin blocks glucose formation in muscle

14.

After eating a meal, Mason’s pancreas fails to increase insulin production. Which immediate physiological consequence is most likely?

a)

Intestinal glucose absorption stops

b)

Rapid drop in fasting glucose occurs

c)

Blood glucose remains elevated longer

d)

Enhanced cellular glucose uptake occurs

15.

After eating a meal, Daniel experiences changes in his body to regulate blood sugar. Place the following events in the most logical order for normal post-meal glucose regulation: A) Insulin secretion increases, B) Cells take up glucose, C) Blood glucose rises.

a)

C → B → A sequence order

b)

C → A → B sequence order

c)

B → C → A sequence order

d)

A → C → B sequence order

16.

Zoe is studying how the pancreas works in her biology class. She wants to know which pancreatic tissue is responsible for secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream. Which tissue should she focus on?

a)

Acini in the exocrine pancreas

b)

Ductal epithelium of pancreas

c)

Pancreatic capsule connective tissue

d)

Islets of Langerhans endocrine

17.

David is diagnosed with a condition where his pancreatic beta cells are not functioning. Which hormone is most immediately decreased?

a)

Glucagon secretion from alpha cells

b)

Insulin secretion from beta cells

c)

Somatostatin from delta cells

d)

Digestive enzymes from acini

18.

Scarlett is studying for her physiology exam and is trying to remember which islet cell type produces which hormone. Help her match each islet cell type with its primary hormone product.

a)

Delta cells secrete somatostatin

b)

Alpha cells release insulin

c)

Beta cells produce glucagon

d)

Acini release amylin

19.

Emma is studying how different structures in the pancreas function. She wants to know which structure most likely releases enzymes into the duodenum rather than hormones into blood. Which should she choose?

a)

Pancreatic acini exocrine clusters

b)

Beta-cell cords within islets

c)

Islets of Langerhans endocrine tissue

d)

Alpha-cell rims of islets

20.

Charlotte is learning about hormones that regulate metabolism. Her teacher asks: Which statement best characterizes insulin in metabolic regulation?

a)

Catabolic hormone increasing blood glucose

b)

Neurotransmitter modulating appetite signals

c)

Anabolic hormone lowering blood glucose

d)

Paracrine factor elevating lipolysis rate

21.

After eating a meal, Lily's blood sugar rises and her pancreas releases insulin. What is the immediate cellular effect of this increase in insulin?

a)

Reduced glucose uptake by target cells

b)

Increased glucose uptake by target cells

c)

Accelerated glycogen breakdown in muscle

d)

Enhanced gluconeogenesis in the liver

22.

After eating a meal, Elijah's body releases insulin. Select the best explanation of how insulin supports energy storage in this real-world scenario.

a)

Diverts glucose to ketone production in liver

b)

Promotes triglyceride breakdown for fuel

c)

Channels glucose into glycogen and adipose fat

d)

Stimulates proteolysis to free amino acids

23.

Jackson is diagnosed with a condition that causes his body to produce chronically low levels of insulin. Which pattern is most consistent with this state?

a)

Decreased gluconeogenesis and reduced lipolysis

b)

Increased gluconeogenesis and enhanced glycogenolysis

c)

Elevated glucose uptake and expanded adipose stores

d)

Augmented protein synthesis and lower blood glucose

24.

Imagine Aria is trying to enter a secure building, but she needs a special key to unlock the door. Which step best explains how the key (insulin) enables Aria (glucose) to enter the building (target cell)?

a)

The key enters the building and carries Aria inside

b)

The key blocks the lock to prevent Aria from leaving

c)

The key binds to the lock and triggers the door to open

d)

The key is converted into Aria within the building

25.

Elijah checks his blood glucose level right before lunch and notices it is higher than usual. Which physiological response would most likely occur in his body?

a)

No change in pancreatic hormone release

b)

Increased insulin release from beta cells

c)

Increased glucagon release from beta cells

d)

Reduced insulin release from beta cells

26.

Imagine Hannah is trying to enter a secure building, and she needs a key card to unlock the door. Mechanistically, what does this “unlocking” accomplish at the door?

a)

It allows Hannah to walk through the door without using the key card

b)

It initiates a signal that opens the door for Hannah

c)

It displaces another person from inside the building

d)

It forces Hannah to convert her belongings outside the building

27.

Kai has a genetic mutation that causes his insulin receptor to bind insulin weakly but not internalize the hormone. Predict the most immediate cellular consequence for Kai.

a)

Insulin accumulates inside the cytosol rapidly

b)

Glucose entry increases through constant transporter opening

c)

Glucose entry decreases due to poor signaling

d)

Glucagon signaling is permanently silenced

28.

Grace is studying how the body maintains blood glucose levels. She learns that certain pancreatic cells primarily produce glucagon to help regulate this process. Which cells are responsible for this function?

a)

Alpha cells in pancreatic islets

b)

Acinar cells of the pancreas

c)

Beta cells in pancreatic islets

d)

Delta cells in pancreatic islets

29.

Michael is participating in a medical study where he must fast overnight. During this period, what is glucagon’s main hepatic action to prevent hypoglycemia?

a)

Stimulating glycogenesis in hepatocytes

b)

Initiating glycogenolysis in hepatocytes

c)

Blocking gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes

d)

Increasing insulin secretion from hepatocytes

30.

During a long-distance run, Henry notices his energy levels dropping as his blood glucose decreases. How does glucagon respond to this challenge?

a)

Decreases secretion to spare glycogen

b)

Increases secretion to mobilize glucose

c)

Remains unchanged to avoid fluctuations

d)

Switches to promoting lipogenesis

31.

Charlotte is studying how the body maintains blood glucose during fasting. She learns that beyond glycogen breakdown, another process is enhanced by glucagon to provide additional glucose substrates. Which process is this?

a)

Insulin-mediated glucose uptake in muscle

b)

Protein synthesis and urea cycle activity

c)

Ketone body synthesis and lipid storage

d)

Amino acid transport and protein-to-glucose conversion

32.

After enjoying a large pasta dinner, Michael's blood glucose levels rise. Which hormone is released by the pancreas immediately after this carbohydrate-rich meal to lower his elevated blood glucose?

a)

Glucagon from alpha cells

b)

Insulin from beta cells

c)

Epinephrine from adrenal medulla

d)

Cortisol from adrenal cortex

33.

After eating a large meal, Ethan’s body releases insulin. What is the liver’s primary action in response to insulin during this fed state?

a)

Convert excess glucose to glycogen

b)

Release glycogen as glucose

c)

Increase gluconeogenesis rapidly

d)

Inhibit pancreatic hormone release

34.

Grace has not eaten for several hours and her blood glucose levels begin to drop. Which sequence best describes the corrective pathway her body uses to restore normal blood glucose?

a)

Pancreas releases epinephrine, muscle absorbs glucose

b)

Pancreas releases cortisol, liver synthesizes ketones

c)

Pancreas releases glucagon, liver breaks down glycogen

d)

Pancreas releases insulin, liver stores glycogen

35.

After eating a large meal, Aria's blood glucose rises above the set point. Which statement best explains how homeostasis is achieved in this situation?

a)

Cortisol raises blood glucose during stress

b)

Epinephrine increases hepatic glucose output

c)

Insulin signals tissues to uptake glucose

d)

Glucagon signals glycogen breakdown

36.

Samuel skips lunch and his blood glucose drops. What direct hepatic effect does glucagon trigger in this situation?

a)

Activate glycogen synthesis pathways

b)

Increase insulin receptor expression

c)

Suppress gluconeogenesis enzymes

d)

Stimulate glycogenolysis to release glucose

37.

Arjun is learning about how the body controls blood sugar. Which statement best describes counterregulatory hormones in glucose control?

a)

They promote insulin-driven glycogen storage

b)

They oppose insulin to maintain blood glucose

c)

They block all hepatic glucose production

d)

They act only during carbohydrate overfeeding

38.

Michael is participating in a week-long wilderness survival challenge with limited food supplies. During this prolonged fasting, which hormone group primarily helps sustain his blood glucose by counteracting insulin?

a)

Parathyroid calcium regulators

b)

Thyroid follicular hormones

c)

Catecholamines from adrenal medulla

d)

Pancreatic amylin peptides

39.

During a marathon, Grace, an endurance athlete, finds herself with limited access to glucose-rich snacks mid-race. Which regulatory response is most likely to occur to stabilize her blood glucose?

a)

Reduced growth hormone release during stress

b)

Increased insulin secretion and lipogenesis

c)

Activation of catecholamines and glucagon

d)

Suppressed glucocorticoid signaling

40.

During a stressful situation, such as when Ava is about to give a public speech and her body needs to quickly regulate blood glucose, which source produces epinephrine to help her respond?

a)

Anterior pituitary gland

b)

Adrenal medulla tissue

c)

Pancreatic beta cells

d)

Thyroid follicular cells

41.

During a sudden emergency, Mason experiences acute stress and his body releases epinephrine. Which mechanism primarily raises his blood glucose in this situation?

a)

Stimulated glycogenolysis in liver

b)

Accelerated lipogenesis in adipose

c)

Enhanced glycolysis in muscles

d)

Increased gluconeogenesis in kidneys

42.

During a marathon, Olivia experiences hypoglycemia due to intense physical exertion. Which action of epinephrine most directly counteracts this state?

a)

Promotes insulin secretion from beta cells

b)

Inhibits insulin release from beta cells

c)

Facilitates glucose uptake into muscle cells

d)

Suppresses hepatic glycogenolysis pathways

43.

During a sudden emergency, Olivia experiences a fight-or-flight response. Epinephrine alters her muscle energy stores. Which statement best explains this change?

a)

Muscle glycogen stores expand substantially

b)

Muscle glycogen stores remain unchanged

c)

Muscle glycogen stores break down more rapidly

d)

Muscle glycogen stores convert into triglycerides

44.

Nora is studying for her medical exams and comes across a question about hormone synthesis. She wonders: Which site is responsible for synthesizing glucocorticoids in humans?

a)

Pancreatic islet beta cells

b)

Adrenal cortex zona fasciculata

c)

Anterior pituitary corticotrophs

d)

Liver hepatocyte cytosol

45.

Samuel is participating in a week-long wilderness survival challenge with very limited food supplies. During this period of prolonged fasting, what is the primary metabolic role of glucocorticoids in his body?

a)

Stimulate gluconeogenesis from noncarbohydrate substrates

b)

Increase peripheral glucose uptake in muscle

c)

Enhance insulin-mediated glycogenesis

d)

Promote ketone body oxidation in neurons

46.

Grace is being treated with high-dose glucocorticoids for an autoimmune condition and develops hyperglycemia. Which mechanism best explains the increase in her blood glucose?

a)

Enhanced insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells

b)

Increased hepatic glucose production through gluconeogenesis

c)

Suppressed hepatic glucose output via glycogenolysis

d)

Upregulated GLUT4 insertion in adipocytes

47.

Grace visits her doctor due to worsening joint pain from her autoimmune condition. Her doctor prescribes glucocorticoids to help manage her symptoms. Which direct effect underlies the therapeutic use of glucocorticoids in this situation?

a)

Suppression of the inflammatory phase of the immune response

b)

Potentiation of neutrophil oxidative burst activity

c)

Activation of pro-inflammatory cytokine transcription

d)

Stimulation of mast cell degranulation

48.

Maya visits her doctor after experiencing frequent thirst and urination. Her blood tests reveal persistently high blood sugar levels. Based on this scenario, which statement best defines the condition Maya is likely experiencing?

a)

A vascular condition primarily causing hypotension

b)

A genetic syndrome with electrolyte imbalance

c)

An acute infectious disease causing leukocytosis

d)

A chronic metabolic disorder with hyperglycemia

49.

Sophia has uncontrolled diabetes, which leads to impaired glucose transport into her cells. What is the immediate cellular consequence?

a)

Cells accumulate excess glycogen stores

b)

Cells become starved of usable energy

c)

Cells rapidly regenerate pancreatic beta cells

d)

Cells increase aerobic ATP production

50.

Emma, who has been diagnosed with diabetes, is experiencing persistent high blood sugar levels. This hyperglycemia most directly results from which imbalance?

a)

Epinephrine depletion and receptor downregulation

b)

Glucagon deficiency and cortisol excess

c)

Insulin secretion and tissue responsiveness

d)

Thyroid hormone surplus and iodine lack

51.

When glucose cannot enter cells, what metabolic shift is expected?

a)

Increased breakdown of fat and protein

b)

Decreased ketone formation and lipolysis

c)

Enhanced glycogenesis and protein synthesis

d)

Suppressed gluconeogenesis and beta-oxidation

52.

Which statement best represents the estimated diabetes prevalence among U.S. adults?

a)

About 96 million people have diabetes

b)

About 37 million people have diabetes

c)

About 327 thousand people have diabetes

d)

About 13 million people have diabetes

53.

Approximately what fraction of adults with diabetes are unaware of their condition?

a)

About 1 in 5 adults

b)

About 1 in 2 adults

c)

About 1 in 10 adults

d)

About 1 in 20 adults

54.

Which range best reflects the proportion of adult diabetes cases that are type 2?

a)

About 90% to 95% of cases

b)

About 40% to 50% of cases

c)

About 10% to 15% of cases

d)

About 60% to 70% of cases

55.

Which statistic most accurately describes prediabetes among U.S. adults?

a)

About 327 billion adults have prediabetes

b)

About 8 million adults have prediabetes

c)

About 37 million adults have prediabetes

d)

About 96 million adults have prediabetes

56.

Which set lists common serious health risks associated with diabetes?

a)

Asthma, dermatitis, migraine, anemia

b)

Fractures, sprains, concussions, rashes

c)

Appendicitis, influenza, tinnitus, scoliosis

d)

Blindness, kidney failure, heart disease, stroke

57.

Medical costs for people with diabetes compared to those without are typically:

a)

Slightly lower on average

b)

Negligible difference

c)

About the same overall

d)

More than twice as high

58.

Which figure represents the total annual economic burden of diagnosed diabetes (medical costs and lost work/wages)?

a)

About $3.27 trillion

b)

About $327 million

c)

About $32.7 billion

d)

About $327 billion

59.

Which population groups are noted to have higher diabetes prevalence compared with others?

a)

American Indians/Alaska Natives, Non-Hispanic African Americans, Hispanic Americans

b)

Non-Hispanic Whites, Pacific Islanders, Middle Eastern Americans

c)

Asian Americans, non-Hispanic Whites, Eastern Europeans

d)

Pacific Islanders, Scandinavian Americans, non-Hispanic Whites

60.

A community health team must prioritize screening resources. Based on known disparities, which strategy best targets groups at elevated risk for complications and death from diabetes?

a)

Prioritize areas with the lowest reported diabetes rates

b)

Concentrate testing only on adolescents irrespective of ethnicity

c)

Allocate equally across all neighborhoods regardless of demographics

d)

Focus outreach on American Indians/Alaska Natives and Hispanic Americans

61.

Which feature best distinguishes Type 1 diabetes from other types?

a)

Hyperglycemia due to medication-induced insulin resistance

b)

Glucose intolerance starting in second or third trimester

c)

Insulin resistance with impaired insulin secretion

d)

Autoimmune beta-cell destruction with absolute deficiency

62.

Prediabetes is defined primarily by which statement?

a)

Hyperglycemia first recognized during pregnancy

b)

Insulin resistance with metabolic syndrome is established

c)

Persistent absolute insulin deficiency is present

d)

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes are not yet met

63.

Which description aligns most with Type 2 diabetes pathophysiology?

a)

Autoimmune loss of pancreatic beta cells

b)

Insulin resistance and reduced insulin secretion

c)

Transient glucose intolerance in late pregnancy

d)

Hyperglycemia following partial pancreatectomy

64.

Gestational diabetes is best characterized by which scenario?

a)

Hyperglycemia beginning before conception

b)

Autoimmune destruction causing absolute deficiency

c)

Glucose intolerance first occurring in pregnancy

d)

Insulin resistance unrelated to pregnancy hormones

65.

Diabetes due to other causes most plausibly results from which situation?

a)

Autoimmune reaction to islet antigens in youth

b)

Removal of pancreatic tissue or pancreatic disease

c)

Placental hormones causing transient intolerance

d)

Long-term metabolic syndrome without obesity

66.

Which feature best distinguishes Type 1 diabetes from Type 2 in this diagram?

a)

Adult onset, gradual symptoms

b)

Autoimmune, absent insulin

c)

Family history, mild hyperglycemia

d)

Obesity, insulin resistance

67.

The classic “3 P’s” listed for diabetes assessment refer to which symptom set?

a)

Proteinuria, pyrexia, petechiae

b)

Pruritus, pallor, palpitations

c)

Polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria

d)

Pain, paresthesia, photophobia

68.

According to the diagram, which diagnostic threshold confirms diabetes on a different day when repeated?

a)

Random glucose below 200 mg/dl

b)

A1C above 5.0 percent

c)

Fasting glucose above 126 mg/dl

d)

Fasting glucose above 90 mg/dl

69.

Which complication category is directly linked to insulin therapy in the diagram?

a)

Retinopathy and nephropathy

b)

Neuropathy and peripheral disease

c)

Angiopathy and infections

d)

Hypoglycemia and lipodystrophy

70.

A patient presents with weight loss, excessive thirst, bed-wetting, and rapid onset. Which type fits best with the diagram’s cues?

a)

Gestational diabetes type

b)

Type 1 diabetes features

c)

Maturity-onset diabetes

d)

Type 2 diabetes features

71.

Which treatment plan aligns with the diagram for managing diabetes long term?

a)

Vitamin supplements with bed rest

b)

Antibiotics with fluid restriction

c)

Diet and exercise with insulin or orals

d)

Insulin only without diet changes

72.

Which acute complication cluster is associated with poorly controlled diabetes in the diagram?

a)

Lipodystrophy, Somogyi effect, allergy

b)

Polyphagia, fatigue, urinary infections

c)

Angiopathy, retinopathy, nephropathy

d)

Diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar state, non-ketotic coma

73.

Which lifestyle pattern is a recognized risk factor for prediabetes?

a)

Consistent high-intensity training

b)

Habitual inactivity in daily routines

c)

Occasional light activity on weekends

d)

Balanced activity with weekly exercise

74.

Which combination of lipid values indicates increased prediabetes risk?

a)

HDL 50 mg/dl; triglycerides 100 mg/dl

b)

HDL 45 mg/dl; triglycerides 150 mg/dl

c)

HDL 60 mg/dl or higher; triglycerides 120 mg/dl

d)

HDL 35 mg/dl or lower; triglycerides 250 mg/dl or higher

75.

A patient with previous gestational diabetes is evaluating risk. Which scenario aligns with higher prediabetes risk?

a)

Cesarean section due to breech presentation

b)

History of gestational diabetes or LGA baby over nine pounds

c)

History of preterm labor without diabetes

d)

No pregnancy complications and average birthweight

76.

Which medical history element raises prediabetes risk in diverse populations?

a)

Belonging to Asian, African-American, Hispanic, or Native American groups

b)

European ancestry with no family history

c)

Mixed ancestry with low cardiovascular risk

d)

Any ancestry with routine athletic training

77.

Which health indicator most directly increases prediabetes risk?

a)

Blood pressure variability without elevation

b)

Low-normal systolic and diastolic pressures

c)

Elevated blood pressure in clinical readings

d)

Normal resting blood pressure values

78.

Which HbA1C range indicates prediabetes in adults?

a)

7.1% to 7.8%

b)

6.5% to 7.0%

c)

5.7% to 6.4%

d)

5.0% to 5.6%

79.

A patient has a fasting plasma glucose of 118 mg/dl. Which classification is most appropriate?

a)

Hypoglycemia state

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Prediabetes range

d)

Normal glycemia

80.

Two hours after an oral glucose tolerance test, a patient’s blood glucose is 165 mg/dl. What is the most accurate interpretation?

a)

Definite diabetes diagnosis

b)

Indeterminate test result

c)

Prediabetes threshold met

d)

Normal post-load value

81.

Which factor most increases suspicion for prediabetes when combined with borderline lab values?

a)

Increased body weight history

b)

Younger age without symptoms

c)

Low-carbohydrate diet adherence

d)

Regular endurance training

82.

Which feature best distinguishes Type 1 diabetes from other forms of diabetes?

a)

Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues

b)

Transient hyperglycemia during acute illness

c)

Absolute lack of insulin due to beta cell loss

d)

Partial insulin deficiency from beta cells

83.

A teenager presents with hyperglycemia. Which pathophysiologic mechanism is most consistent with Type 1 diabetes?

a)

Reduced renal glucose excretion capacity

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

c)

Genetic defect causing excess glucagon release

d)

Primary hepatic overproduction of glucose

84.

Which statement correctly links prevalence and age pattern in Type 1 diabetes?

a)

Accounts for about 50% of diabetes, mostly elderly

b)

Accounts for about 5% of diabetes, often young

c)

Accounts for about 25% of diabetes, middle-aged

d)

Accounts for about 10% of diabetes, predominantly neonatal

85.

In Type 1 diabetes, which downstream metabolic consequence results directly from absent insulin signaling?

a)

Enhanced glycogen synthesis in liver

b)

Breakdown of body fats and proteins

c)

Increased glucose uptake by muscle

d)

Suppressed hepatic gluconeogenesis