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Pre AP Final Exam

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 6hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the point that represents atomic mass.

A
B
C
D
2.
Calculate the average, weighted atomic mass of Sulfur if 95.00% of Sulfur-32 atoms have a mass of 31.972 amu; 0.76% of Sulfur -33 atoms have a mass of 32.971 amu; and 4.22% of Sulfur-34 atoms have a mass of 33.967 amu. (Round to the hundredths place)
a)
30.25 amu
b)
31.36 amu
c)
32.06 amu
d)
32.10 amu
3.
Which orbital shows a violation of Hund's Rule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
4.
A student completed the electron orbital diagram for Carbon. What is wrong with their diagram?
a)
It does not have a complete lower level
b)
It does not have one electron in each orbital before they pair
c)
It does not have both electrons spinning down in each orbital
d)
It does not have the correct number of electrons
5.
How would the electron configuration change for the Beryllium ion above?
a)
It would not change because it is the same element.
b)
It would have two extra electrons and look like Carbon.
c)
It would have two fewer electrons and look like Helium.
d)
It would have two extra protons and look like Carbon.
6.
These symbols explain the relationship between frequency and wavelength. What do the arrows represent?
a)
Frequency and wavelength are directly proportional. Both increase together.
b)
Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional. One increases the other decreases.
c)
Frequency and wavelength are always equal.
d)
Frequency and wavelength are not related.
7.
In the flame lab, electrons emitted light when...
a)
they got excited and moved up levels
b)
they relaxed and released energy
c)
they remained in the same energy level
d)
they flew out of the atom
8.
When scientists observe light waves through a spectrometer, they create an emission spectra. Using the key for emission spectra, which of the following is matches the unique spectra for the element hydrogen.
a)

b)

c)

9.
Which of the following atoms is most likely to bond with another atom?
a)

b)

c)

d)

10.

Using the model for the formation of Scandium Fluoride (an ionic compound), write the chemical formula.

a)

Sc3F

b)

Sc3F3

c)

Sc+3F-1

d)

ScF3

11.
Which of the following compounds contains the lead (II) ion?
a)

b)

c)

d)

12.
What is the correct formula for Calcium Carbonate?
a)

b)

c)

d)

13.
In this ionic bonding diagram, which element is the cation?
a)
Magnesium because it gains two electrons
b)
Magnesium because it loses two electrons
c)
Fluorine because it gains one electron
d)
Fluorine because it loses one electron
14.

Which of the following produce Hydrogen ions (H+) in a water solution and have a formula such as HCl or H2(NO3)?

a)
Bases
b)
Acids
c)
Solutes
d)
Solutions
15.
Which of the following chemicals is an example of a Base?
a)
HCl
b)

H2(SO4)

c)
Ca(OH)
d)
MgF
16.
What is the correct formula for Sulfuric acid?
a)

b)

c)

d)

17.
The relationship between the number of electrons in an atom's outer shell and the atom's tendency to bond is called the octet rule. Which element is the has an exception?
a)
Neon because it is a noble gas.
b)
Carbon because it is in group 4A.
c)
Gold because it is a transitional metal.
d)
Hydrogen because it can only hold two.
18.
What are the differences between an ionic compound and a covalent compound? (Select the THREE that apply!)
a)
Ionic compounds transfer, while covalent compounds share
b)
Ionic compounds are formed between two metals, covalent compounds are not
c)
Ionic compounds have cations, covalent compounds do not
d)
Ionic compounds are formed between a metal and nonmetal, covalent compounds are not
19.
What is the correct formula for the compound sulfur hexafluoride?
a)

b)

c)

d)

20.
Which of the following correctly shows the bonding of the following molecule?
a)

b)

c)

d)

21.
What is wrong with the bonding diagram?
a)
Hydrogen needs more electrons
b)
Sulfur needs a double bond to both hydrogens
c)
Sulfur needs another pair of lone electrons
d)
Hydrogen needs another atom
22.
What is responsible for the pyramidal shape of the following molecule?
a)
Lone pair electrons
b)
Single bond
c)
Double bond
d)
Central atom
23.

Why is NaNO3 Soluble? Select ALL that apply.

a)

Nitrates are soluble

b)

Ions with alkali metals are soluble

c)

Sodium is an exception to insoluble

d)

Nitrates are an exception to insoluble

24.

Which of the following is a polar molecule?

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

NH3

d)

CH4

25.

Which of following would correctly describe the following molecule CH3F?

a)

A nonpolar Ionic Compound

b)

A polar Ionic Compound

c)

A nonpolar covalent Compound

d)

A polar covalent compound

26.
Calculate the Formal Charge for the Oxygen Labeled 1 
a)
-1
b)
+1
c)
0
d)
-2
27.

Compounds that are composed of the same number and type of atoms but have them arranged in different ways are ___________.

a)

isomers

b)

isotopes

c)

polymers

d)

alkanes

28.

In a stereoisomer, ________ means "on the same side" and ______ means "across from."

a)

cis; trans

b)

cis; L

c)

D; L

d)

trans; cis

29.

How many grams of Pb(NO3)2 must be added to 100g of water to form a saturated solution at 100C?

a)

40g

b)

46g

c)

50g

d)

60g

30.
Which has more molecules?
a)
1 mole H2O
b)
1 mole Al(OH)3
c)
1 mole NaCl
d)
There are all the same
31.

How many molecules would be in 8.4 moles of Octane (C8H18)?

a)

5.7 x 1023

b)

5.1 x 1024

c)

5.8 x 1026

d)

5.0 x 1023

32.
How many moles are in 98.3 g of Aluminum Hydroxide (Al(OH)3)?
a)
2.14 mol
b)
1.26 mol
c)
6.63 mol
d)
5.9 mol
33.

Isabella measures out 720. g of epsom salt (MgSO4) to put in her bath. How many molecules of MgSO4 went in the bath?

a)

3.6 x 1024 g

b)

720 g

c)

0.050 g

d)

340 g

34.

What is the molarity of a solution which contains 2.6 moles of NaCl in 500.0 mL of solution?

a)

2.6 M

b)

2.6 mol

c)

5.2 M

d)

1.3 M

35.

Use the Ideal Gas Formula to calculate the volume that a 0.323 mol sample of a gas will occupy at 265 K and a pressure of 0.900 atm.

a)
7.18 L 
b)
7.81 L
c)
4.63 L
d)
4.36 L
e)

8 L

36.

What is the percent by mass of sulfur in (NH4)2S ?

a)

12.05% of sulfur

b)

19.30% of sulfur

c)

47.11% of sulfur

d)

56.18% of sulfur

37.
How many grams of carbon would be in would be in a bag of 500 grams of sugar if its formula is the one shown?
a)
211 g
b)
365 g
c)
421 g
d)
500 g
38.
Which of the following correctly matches an empirical formula to its molecular formula?
a)

b)

c)

d)

39.
Which pair has the same empirical formula?
a)
NaCrO4 and Na2Cr2O7
b)
C2H4O2 and C6H12O6
c)
C3H6O3 and C2H6O2
d)
CH4 and C2H6
40.
What is the empirical formula for the following molecular formula: C6H14
a)
C6H14
b)
C3H7
c)
CH2
d)
CH3
41.

Given the following: 42.07% Na, 18.89% P, and 39.04% O, determine the empirical formula.

a)

NaPO2

b)

Na2PO3

c)

Na3PO4

d)

NaPO4

42.

What is the molecular formula for a compound with the empirical formula: K2SO4 and a molecular mass of 696 g.

a)

K2SO4

b)

K8SO16

c)

K8S4O8

d)

K8S4O16

43.
Glycerol has a molar mass of 92.09g/mol. Its percent composition is: 39.12% C, 8.75% H, and 51.12% O. What is the molecular formula for glycerol?
a)

C2H3O2

b)

CH2O

c)

C2H4O2

d)

C3H8O3

44.

True or False: A metallic bond may form between a metal and any other element

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What is the sea of electrons model related to?

a)

Covalent bonding

b)

Hydrogen bonding

c)

Ionic bonding

d)

Metallic bonding

46.

What is the main characteristic of a metallic bond?

a)

It involves the sharing of electrons

b)

It involves the transfer of electrons

c)

It involves a sea of delocalized electrons

d)

It involves the sharing of protons

47.
What kind of reaction is this:
2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Double Replacement
48.
What kind of reaction is this:
2C3H7OH +9O2 -> 6CO2 + 8H2O
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Combustion
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Decomposition
49.
What kind of reaction is this:
Fe + CuSO4 -> Cu + FeSO4
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Decompostion
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Combustion
50.
The reaction below is an example of?
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
a)

Single Replacement

b)

Double Replacement

c)

Decomposition

d)

Combustion

51.

What is the missing product?


CxHy + O2 ➔ CO2 + __________

a)

H2O

b)

HO

c)

CHO

52.

What would the missing product be?


Au2S3 + 3 H2 ➔ 2 Au + ____________

a)

2 H3S

b)

2 AuH3

c)

3 H2S

53.

What would the missing product be?


Fe + O2 ➔ ___________

a)

Fe2O2

b)

2 FeO

c)

2 FeOH

54.
Balancing this reaction: ____ CH4 + ____ O2 ---> ____ CO2 + ____ H2O
a)
2,1,3,1
b)
1,2,1,2
c)
1,2,2,1
d)
2,1,1,2
55.
Which correctly shows the skeleton equation for the reaction of potassium iodide reacting with bromine to form potassium bromide plus iodine?
a)

b)

c)

d)

56.
Balance and identify the type of reaction:
a)
2:1:4:1 single replacement reaction
b)
2:1:2:1 combustion
c)
2:1:4:1 combustion
d)
2:1:2:1 single replacement reaction
57.
What is the first step in any stoichiometry problem?
a)
determine the mole ratio
b)
write a balanced equation
c)
determine the molar mass of the known
d)
determine the molar mass of the unknown
58.
Stoichiometry is important in chemistry because....
a)
it is a way to solve for pressure
b)
it is a way to measure volumes
c)
it is a way to measure chemicals
d)
it is a way to solve for thermal energy
59.
In order to make 14 grilled cheese sandwiches, how many slices of bread would you need?
a)
28
b)
7
c)
14
d)
2
60.
In the reaction shown, what is the mole ratio of hydrogen to oxygen?
a)
1:1
b)
2:1
c)
2:2
d)
1:2
61.

Look at the problem shown. Why was the conversion factor written like this?

a)
We are solving for the grams of nitrogen
b)
We are solving for the moles of nitrogen
c)
We are solving for the grams of ammonia
d)
We are solving for the moles of ammonia
62.

Balance the following equation and then determine how many moles of Oxygen (O2) are produced from 4 moles of potassium chlorate (KCl03).

a)
4 mol
b)
2 mol
c)
1 mol
d)
6 mol
63.

Convert the following to scientific notation. 457,000,000: __________________________

a)

4.57 x 107

b)

4.57 x 106

c)

4.57 x 108

d)

0.457 x 108

64.

Convert the following to scientific notation. 0.000241: __________________________

a)

2.41 x 10-4

b)

2.41 x 104

c)

2.41 x 10-3

d)

0.241 x 10-4

65.

Convert the following to standard notation. 5.13 X 10-7

a)

0.0000000513

b)

0.000000513

c)

0.00000513

d)

0.0000513

66.

Round 72.187 to 4 significant figures.

a)

72.18

b)

73.00

c)

72.19

d)

72.10

67.

Convert the following: 715.0 cm= ________________ ft (Conversion Factors: 1 in = 2.54 cm & 1 ft = 12 in)

a)

23.45 ft

b)

3.82 ft

c)

12.15 ft

d)

27.07 ft

68.

Convert the following: 530 L = ________________ mL (Conversion Factor: 1 L = 1000 mL)

a)

530,000 mL

b)

530 mL

c)

5,300 mL

d)

53 mL

69.

Which of the following are examples of a physical property?

a)

Color and melting point

b)

Rusting and burning

c)

Digestion and photosynthesis

d)

Fermentation and combustion

70.

What are the units for density?

a)

g/mL or g/cm3

b)

kg

c)

L

d)

m2m^2

71.

What is the volume of gold if its density is 19.32 g/mL and has a mass of 55 g?

a)

2.8 mL

b)

5.2 mL

c)

0.56 mL

d)

9.2 mL

72.

How many joules of energy are absorbed by a pot of water (specific heat of 4.2 J/g°C) that has a mass of 25.8 grams in order to raise the temperature from 21°C to 54°C?

a)

3600 J

b)

1,570 J

c)

2,350 J

d)

780 J

73.

What phase would water be at 100°C and 0.6 kPa?

a)

Water vapor (gas)

b)

Liquid water

c)

Ice (solid)

d)

Supercritical fluid

74.

The relationship between the variables of Gay-Lussac’s Law is:

a)

Directly proportional between pressure and temperature at constant volume.

b)

Inversely proportional between pressure and temperature at constant volume.

c)

Directly proportional between pressure and volume at constant temperature.

d)

Inversely proportional between pressure and volume at constant temperature.

75.

A gas has a volume of 250 mL at 25°C. If the volume changes to 150. mL, what is the new temperature in Celsius?

a)

-259 °C

b)

-94.2°C

c)

178.8 °C

d)

23°C

76.

A container has a mixture of four gases. Gas 1 has a pressure of 5.78 atm. Gas 2 has a pressure of 3.21 atm. Gases 3 and 4 have pressures of 9.56 atm each. What is the total pressure in the container?

a)

28.11 atm

b)

32.59 atm

c)

18.55 atm

d)

15.73 atm

77.
This famous scientist used the gold-foil experiment to support his idea that the atom has a positive nucleus.
a)
Democritus
b)
Dalton
c)
Rutherford
d)
Thomson
78.
Why does this Lithium atom have 3 electrons?
a)
It has an equal number of protons and neutrons
b)
It has an equal number of neutrons and electrons
c)
It has an equal number of electrons and protons
79.
What does the group number "5A" tell us about the elements in that group?
a)
The number of valence electrons
b)
The number of energy levels
c)
The number of protons
d)
The atomic number
80.
What does a Bohr model show about atomic structure?
a)
The atom is indivisible
b)
The atom has negative electrons in a positive mass
c)
The atom has electrons that have determined energy levels
d)
The atom has a dense nucleus and a lot of empty space
81.
Which of the following elements has less ionization energy and electronegativity than the other elements in the boxed in section? ?
a)
Boron
b)
Carbon
c)
Oxygen
d)
Fluorine
82.
Which of the following statements are correct? (SELECT ALL THREE)
a)
Calcium is larger than Strontium
b)
Aluminum is smaller than Sodium
c)
Sodium is smaller than Magnesium
d)
Calcium is smaller than Barium
e)
Sulfur has more electronegativity than Sodium
83.
The Periodic Table of the Elements is useful for revealing patterns and trends in the elements. Which statement accurately describes a pattern in the size of atomic radii in the Periodic Table of the Elements?
a)
Atomic radii decrease from left to right across a period and decrease from top to bottom in a group.
b)
Atomic radii increase from left to right across a period and increase from top to bottom in a group.
c)
Atomic radii decrease from left to right across a period and increase from top to bottom in a group.
d)
Atomic radii increase from left to right across a period and decrease from top to bottom in a group.
84.
Which orbital shows a violation of Hund's Rule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
85.
A student completed the electron orbital diagram for Carbon. What is wrong with their diagram?
a)
It does not have a complete lower level
b)
It does not have one electron in each orbital before they pair
c)
It does not have both electrons spinning down in each orbital
d)
It does not have the correct number of electrons
86.
Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for the element Phosphorus?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
87.
How would the electron configuration change for the Beryllium ion above?
a)
It would not change because it is the same element.
b)
It would have two extra electrons and look like Carbon.
c)
It would have two fewer electrons and look like Helium.
d)
It would have two extra protons and look like Carbon.
88.
Electron configurations can be abbreviated using the Noble gas configuration. Which is the correct Noble gas configuration for the element scandium?
a)

b)

c)

d)

89.
How are energy and frequency related in the energy level and wave diagram?
a)
Frequency and energy are directly proportional. Both increase together.
b)
Frequency and energy are inversely proportional. One increases the other decreases.
c)
Frequency and energy are always equal.
d)
Frequency and energy are not related.
90.
The electron is releasing energy, because...
a)
It is going to a higher energy level
b)
It is going to a lower energy level
c)
It remained in the same energy level
91.
In the flame lab, electrons emitted light when...
a)
they got excited and moved up levels
b)
they relaxed and released energy
c)
they remained in the same energy level
d)
they flew out of the atom
92.
Using the chart below: In the flame lab, which of the following correctly describes the wavelength and frequency of the green light emitted by the CuCl2?
a)
Wavelength: 625-740 nm Frequency: 400-484 THz
b)
Wavelength: 564- 590 nm Frequency: 508-526 THz
c)
Wavelength: 520-565 nm Frequency: 526-606 THz
d)
Wavelength: 380-435 nm Frequency: 700-789THz
e)
93.
When scientists observe light waves through a spectrometer, they create an emission spectra. Using the key for emission spectra, which of the following is matches the unique spectra for the element hydrogen.
a)

b)

c)

94.

What particle view below is a mixture?

a)

b)

c)

d)

95.

What is the best classification of this substance?

a)

An element

b)

A compound

c)

A mixture of 2 elements

d)

A mixture of 2 compounds

96.
If an atom has 12 positively charged subatomic particles, which of the following must it also have to be considered a neutral atom?
a)
12 neutrons
b)
12 electrons
c)
12 protons
d)
24 protons and neutrons
97.
If a substance has a higher number of electrons than protons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A positive charge.
b)
A negative charge.
c)
A neutral charge
d)
No charge at all
98.
An atom of the element with atomic number 6 always has _____.
a)
six protons in its nucleus
b)
an atomic mass of six
c)
more than six neutrons
d)
six electron clouds
99.
Label the subatomic particles in the nucleus.
a)Proton
b)Neutron
c)Electron
1
2
1)
2)
100.
Which element is a metalloid?
a)
Titanium
b)
Selenium
c)
Potassium
d)
Polonium
101.

Match the image to C-D on the heating curve.

a)
b)
c)
102.

Which particles are more strongly attracted to one another and why?

a)

Water particles, because it takes a lot of energy to separate the particles resulting in a high boiling point.

b)

Carbon Dioxide particles, because it takes a lot of energy to separate the particles resulting in a high boiling point.

c)

Water particles, because it takes a less energy to separate the particles resulting in a high boiling point.

103.

A heated substance changes from a solid to a liquid to a gas. During this time, how does the strength of the forces of attraction change among particles?

a)

the strength of attraction decreases

b)

the strength of attraction increases

c)

the strength of attraction remains the same

d)

none of the above

104.

In which of the following conditions would the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas increase?

(i) Increasing pressure on the hydrogen contained in a closed container

(ii) Some hydrogen gas is leaking out of the container

(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas

(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container

a)

(i) and (iii)

b)

(i) and (iv)

c)

(ii) and (iii)

d)

(ii) and (iv)

105.

A teacher gives a group of students a mixture of sugar and sand. The sugar grains are the same size as the grains of sand. What is the easiest way for the students to separate the sand from the sugar?

a)

Use tweezers to remove every grain of sand

b)

Put the mixture in water and filter the sand out of the water

c)

Pour the mixture through a wire screen to remove the sand

d)

Run a strong magnet through the mixture to attract the salt

106.

In 1808, John Dalton established his atomic theory. Which of the

following is not part of Dalton’s atomic theory?

a)

All matter is composed of atoms.

b)

An atom consists of a nucleus and a cloud of electrons.

c)

Atoms cannot be subdivided, created, or destroyed.

d)

In chemical reactions, atoms are combined, separated, or rearranged.

107.

What atom does this Bohr Model represent?

(a)  

108.

Select the TWO that explain the ionization energy trend within periods

a)

electrons are closer to the nucleus

b)

their is a weak pull between electrons from the nucleus, making them easily moveable

c)

feel more of a pull from nucleus, making them harder to move

d)

electrons are further from the nucleus

109.

Which has the highest ionization energy?

a)

Arsenic

b)

Iron

c)

ZInc

d)

Cobalt

110.

Which element does this Bohr model represent?

a)

Aluminum

b)

Silicon

c)

Magnesium

d)

Cobalt

111.

What element does this Bohr model represent?

a)

Chromium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Carbon

d)

Krypton

112.

What is the Noble gas electron configuration for the Sulfur atom?

a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p3

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