wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Full Final Review Fall 2025 - Physical Science

Total questions: 188

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

______ have both metallic and nonmetallic properties.

a)

Halogens

b)

Metals

c)

Metalloids

d)

Nonmetals

2.

What does this illustration represent? Mark only one oval.

a)

bonding of metal atoms

b)

allotropes of carbon

c)

isotopes of carbon

d)

two different elements

3.

What is the charge of a proton? Mark only one oval.

a)

positive / +1

b)

negative / -1

c)

neutral / 0

d)

There is no spoon

e)

Where is the spoon

4.

What is the charge of an electron?

a)

positive / +1

b)

negative / -1

c)

neutral / 0

d)

There is no spoon

e)

Where is the spoon

5.

What is the charge of a neutron?

a)

positive / +1

b)

negative / -1

c)

neutral / 0

d)

There is no spoon

e)

Where is the spoon

6.

What makes up nucleus of atom?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

lepton

7.

An atom has atomic number 6 and mass number 12. How many protons?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

18

d)

24

e)

16

8.

Oxygen has atomic number 8 and mass number 16. Find number of protons, electrons, and neutrons.

a)

8,16,8

b)

8,8,8

c)

16,8,8

d)

8,8,16

9.

If an atom has 15 protons and 16 neutrons, what is its mass number?

a)

15

b)

16

c)

31

d)

14

10.

If an unknown element has X-200 (70%) and X-202 (30%), what is its average atomic mass?

a)

200.1

b)

200.6

c)

201.4

d)

201.9

11.

How many valence electrons does Sulfur (S) have?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

4

d)

6

e)

2

12.

How many electron energy levels does Iodine (I) use?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

1

d)

2

e)

4

13.

Is Oxygen (O) a metal or nonmetal?

a)

Metal

b)

Non metal

14.

Is Chlorine (Cl) a metal or nonmetal?

a)

Metal

b)

Non metal

15.

H and O → type of bond?

a)

hydrogen

b)

covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

16.

Na and Cl → type of bond?

a)

hydrogen

b)

covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

17.

Mg and O → type of bond?

a)

hydrogen

b)

covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

18.

What elements are in H₂O?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sodium

d)

Chlorine

e)

Hydrogen

19.

What elements are in H₂SO₄?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

Calcium

d)

Sulfur

e)

Hydrogen

20.

When metal atoms share their outermost electrons with a nonmetal, the metal and nonmetal become ___________.

a)

electrically charged

b)

less chemically stable

c)

more chemically stable

d)

radioactive

21.

When a nonmetal bonds with a metal it will form what type of bond?

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

hydrogen bond

22.

When a metal bonds with a metal it will form what type of bond?

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

hydrogen bond

23.

What is the correct electron dot diagram for Sodium?

a)

Na with two dots above and two dots to the right

b)

Na with two dots above

c)

Na with one dot to the right

d)

Na with one dot to the right

24.

What is the correct electron dot diagram for Lead?

a)

b)

c)

d)

25.

What is the correct electron dot diagram for Neon? Mark only one oval.

a)

[Image: Ne with 2 dots on each side, total 8 dots]

b)

[Image: Ne with 4 dots on top, 4 dots on bottom]

c)

[Image: Ne with 2 dots on top, 2 on bottom]

d)

[Image: Ne with 2 dots on right, 2 on left]

26.

What is the correct electron dot diagram for Selenium?

a)

Diagram with 6 dots around 'Se'

b)

Diagram with 8 dots around 'Se'

c)

Diagram with 4 dots around 'Se'

d)

Diagram with 2 dots around 'Se'

27.

Where are electrons located in an atom?

a)

In the electron cloud

b)

In the quarks

c)

In the protons and neutrons

d)

In the nucleus

28.

What is the electric charge of a neutron?

a)

1+

b)

1-

c)

Unknown

d)

0

29.

What is the electric charge of a proton?

a)

0

b)

unknown

c)

1+

d)

1-

30.

quarks make up every part of the atom

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Different Isotopes of same element have different numbers of protons

a)

True

b)

False

32.

An atom has 82 protons and 116 neutrons. Identify the element and isotope notation.

a)

Pb-198

b)

Lv-198

c)

Pb-82

d)

Lv-116

e)

Sr-198

33.

Which subatomic particle determines the identity of an element?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

quark

e)

lepton

34.

The element boron occurs naturally as B-10 at 19.9% and B-11 at 80.1%. Calculate its average atomic mass.

a)

10.801

b)

10.199

c)

10.562

d)

10

e)

11

35.

Silicon has three isotopes: Si-28 (92.23%), Si-29 (4.67%), and Si-30 (3.10%). Find the average atomic mass.

a)

28.1087

b)

48.6674

c)

29.8913

d)

28.9843

e)

28

36.

Strontium has isotopes Sr-84 (0.56%), Sr-86 (9.86%), Sr-87 (7.00%), and Sr-88 (82.58%). Calculate average atomic mass.

a)

87.7104

b)

265.4064

c)

88

d)

84

e)

91.5624

37.

How many valence electrons does oxygen have?

a)

6

b)

1

c)

4

d)

2

e)

3

38.

How many valence electrons does potassium have?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

2

d)

5

e)

3

39.

How many valence electrons does aluminum have?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

5

e)

2

40.

How many valence electrons does carbon have?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

5

41.

An atom with 6 protons and 6 neutrons has what mass number?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

18

d)

24

e)

30

42.

An atom with 8 protons and 9 neutrons has what atomic number?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

17

d)

18

e)

9

43.

An atom with 12 protons and 12 neutrons has what mass number?

a)

12

b)

22

c)

24

d)

26

e)

28

44.

An atom with 26 protons and 30 neutrons has what atomic number?

a)

26

b)

30

c)

52

d)

56

e)

54

45.

The atom that contains the fewest electrons is _____

a)

helium

b)

water

c)

hydrogen

d)

oxygen

46.

In NaCl, which atom loses an electron?

a)

chloride

b)

sodium

c)

salt

d)

neither

47.

How many electrons are shared in a double bond?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

48.

If an Ionic bond were to form between 2 calcium atoms and an atom of Carbon. How many electrons would Carbon receive in total from the calcium atoms?

a)

4

b)

0

c)

1

d)

3

e)

2

49.

If covalent bonds were to form between 1 selenium atom and 1 sulfur atom. How many electrons total are shared between the atoms?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

50.

If covalent bonds were to form between 1 selenium atom and 2 iodine atoms. How many electrons total are shared between the selenium and iodine atoms?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

51.

Match Name with Formula Which formula matches Gallium Arsenide?

a)

Ga2As3

b)

GaAs

c)

PbS2

d)

Pb(SO4)2

e)

BeHC

52.

Match Name with Formula Which formula matches Lead (IV) Sulfate?

a)

Pb(SO4)2

b)

PbS2

c)

GaAs

d)

Ga2As3

e)

BeHC

53.

Match Name with Formula Which formula matches Beryllium Hydrogen Carbonate?

a)

PbS2

b)

Ga2As3

c)

GaAs

d)

Pb(SO4)2

e)

Be(HCO3)2

54.

Which formula matches Manganese (III) Sulfite?

a)

PbS2

b)

Ga2As3

c)

GaAs

d)

Mn2(SO3)3

e)

Pb(SO4)2

55.

Match Name with Formula Which formula matches Aluminum Cyanide?

a)

Al(CN)3

b)

GaAs

c)

Pb(SO4)2

d)

PbS2

e)

Ga2As3

56.

Balance the Equation: H3PO4 + KOH → K3PO4 + H2O What is the coefficient for the first blank (H3PO4)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

H3PO4 + KOH → K3PO4 + H2O What is the coefficient for the second blank (KOH)?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

58.

H3PO4 + KOH → K3PO4 + H2O What is the coefficient for the third blank (K3PO4)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

59.

H3PO4 + KOH → K3PO4 + H2O What is the coefficient for the fourth blank (H2O)?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

60.

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O What is the coefficient for the first blank (write a single number, i.e. 1 or 2 or 3 etc.)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
What is the coefficient for the second blank?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

-1

d)

0

62.

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O What is the coefficient for the third blank?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

63.

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O What is the coefficient for the fourth blank?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

64.

What is the coefficient for the First blank? Na + NaNO₃ → Na₂O + N₂

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

10

65.

What is the coefficient for the Second blank? Na + NaNO₃ → Na₂O + N₂

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

66.

What is the coefficient for the third blank? Na + NaNO₃ → Na₂O + N₂

a)

6

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

67.

What is the coefficient for the fourth blank? Na + NaNO₃ → Na₂O + N₂

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

68.

How many electrons are shared in CH₄?

a)

8

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

69.

How many electrons are transferred when 1 Calcium (Ca) atom bonds with 2 Chlorine (Cl) atoms?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

70.

How many electrons are transferred when 1 Aluminum (Al) atom bonds with 3 Chlorine (Cl) atoms?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

6

d)

2

71.

How many valence electrons does Phosphorus (P) have?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

7

d)

2

72.

If covalent bonds were to form between 1 carbon atom and 4 bromine atoms. How many electrons total are shared between the carbon and bromine atoms?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

73.

If covalent bonds were to form between 1 nitrogen atom, 1 oxygen atom, and 1 hydrogen atom. How many electrons total are shared between the nitrogen and the other atoms?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

74.

If covalent bonds were to form between 1 carbon atom and 4 chlorine atoms. How many electrons total are shared between the carbon and chlorine atoms?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

75.

If an Ionic bond were to form between 1 phosphorus atom and an atom of potassium and magnesium. How many electrons would phosphorus receive in total?

a)

0

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

e)

2

76.

Classify Sodium (Na) as a metal or nonmetal. Mark only one oval.

a)

Metal

b)

Non metal

77.

Classify Chlorine (Cl) as a metal or nonmetal. Mark only one oval.

a)

Metal

b)

Non metal

78.

How many valence electrons does Calcium (Ca) have? Mark only one oval.

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

5

79.

How many hydrogen atoms in C6H12O2?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

14

d)

12

80.

The bond between C and O has an electronegativity difference of 1.0. Is this bond polar or nonpolar? Mark only one oval.

a)

Polar

b)

Non polar

81.

The bond between C and S has an electronegativity difference of 0.0. Is this bond polar or nonpolar? Mark only one oval.

a)

Polar

b)

Non polar

82.

What type of bond would form between carbon (C) and hydrogen (H)?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

d)

Hydrogen

83.

In Al₂(SO₄)₃, how many oxygen atoms are present?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

9

d)

18

84.

The bond between C (2.5) and H (2.1) → ?

a)

Polar

b)

Non Polar

85.

The bond between O (3.5) and H (2.1) → ?

a)

Polar

b)

Non Polar

86.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Potassium Acetate

1.

A

b)

Calcium Chlorite

2.

B

c)

Dihydrogen Monoxide

3.

E

d)

Dicarbon Trioxide

4.

F

e)

Iron (III) Nitrate

5.

G

87.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Magnesium Dichromate


1.

A

b)

Sodium Hydroxide

2.

B

c)

Potassium Sulfide

3.

C

d)

Dinitrogen Pentoxide

4.

D

e)

Dioxygen Difluoride

5.

E

88.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Tetraiodine nonoxide

1.

A

b)

Dinitrogen trioxide

2.

H

c)

Iodine Heptafluoride

3.

F

d)

Silicon Tribromide

4.

C

e)

Phosphorus trihydride

5.

G

89.

What causes some objects to fall slower than others?

a)

acceleration

b)

air resistance

c)

forces

d)

gravity

90.

If a person was standing on a scale which measures weight, which is measured in Newtons. And they are on an elevator and that elevator accelerates up to the floor above in that instance the scale would read

a)

More weight for the person

b)

less weight for the person

c)

the same weight for the person

91.

If a person was standing on a scale which measures weight, which is measured in Newtons. And they are on an elevator and that elevator accelerates down to the floor below in that instance the scale would read

a)

More weight for the person

b)

less weight for the person

c)

the same weight for the person

92.

If a person has a weight of 980 newtons980 \, \text{newtons} but when on a scale on an elevator that is accelerating upwards their weight reads as 1080 newtons1080 \, \text{newtons} . What is the acceleration of the elevator given that gravity is 9.8 m/s29.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 ?

a)

1 m/s^2 upward

b)

10 m/s^2 upward

c)

5 m/s^2 upward

d)

2 m/s^2 upward

e)

0 m/s^2

93.

If a person has a weight of 980 newtons980 \, \text{newtons} but when on a scale on an elevator that is accelerating downwards their weight reads as 880 newtons880 \, \text{newtons} . What is the acceleration of the elevator given that gravity is 9.8 m/s29.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 ?

a)

1 m/s^2 downward

b)

10 m/s^2 downward

c)

5 m/s^2 downward

d)

2 m/s^2 downward

e)

0 m/s^2

94.

Describe a projectile's vertical velocity and horizontal velocity. (we will ignore air resistance in this)

a)

constant vertical velocity; changing horizontal velocity

b)

changing vertical velocity; changing horizontal velocity

c)

constant vertical velocity; constant horizontal velocity

d)

changing vertical velocity; constant horizontal velocity

95.

In order for earth to stay in orbit it must have a _______ act on it. Which is the centripetal force acting on it to keep it in orbit.

a)

friction force

b)

gravitational force

c)

electromagnetic force

d)

Nuclear force

96.

In order for a car to take a curve without sliding off the road the centripetal force acting on it would be.

a)

friction force

b)

gravitational force

c)

electromagnetic force

d)

Nuclear force

97.

In this situation with the car the centripetal force is 1000 N and the force of the car's acceleration out of the curve is 1000 N we would say what would happen?

a)

The car would stay on the road

b)

The car would slide off the road toward the center

c)

The car would slide off the road toward the outside of the road

98.

In this situation with the car the centripetal force is 900 N and the force of the car's acceleration out of the curve is 1000 N we would say what would happen?

a)

The car would stay on the road

b)

The car would slide off the road toward the center

c)

The car would slide off the road toward the outside of the road

99.

When 2 objects collide the total momentum of the system is said to

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

100.

If you are standing on ice with ice skates. We will assume negligible friction between skates and ice. You take a softball and throw it to the left. What will happen to you?

a)

The ball will move to the left and you will stay stationary

b)

The ball will move to the left and you will move to the left

c)

The ball will move to the left and you will move to the right

d)

Not enough information to answer

101.

A rocket is at the launch pad and has a momentum of 0 kg*m/s. The rocket launches upward and has a momentum of 5,000 kg*m/s upwards. What can be said about the momentum of the gas leaving the back of the rocket?

a)

It is 5,000 kg*m/s upwards

b)

It is 5,000 kg*m/s downwards

c)

It is zero since momentum was 0 at the start

102.

Which graph shows a plot of the ball's mass and the force on the ball down the ramp for all 5 balls?

a)

Graph 1

Graph 1

b)

Graph 2

Graph 2

c)

Graph 3

Graph 3

d)

Graph 4

Graph 4

103.

A(n) _________ is a push or a pull that one body exerts on another.

a)

acceleration

b)

force

c)

motion

d)

velocity

104.

The __________ is the combination of all the forces acting on an object.

a)

direction of motion

b)

force pair

c)

inertia

d)

net force

105.

Newton's first law of motion states that __________.

a)

an object will remain at rest or keep moving unless a force acts on it

b)

when a force acts on an object, its acceleration is in the same direction as the force

c)

acceleration is calculated by dividing the force exerted on an object by the mass of the object

d)

when a force is applied on an object, there is an equal force applied by the object in the opposite direction

106.

Newton's second law of motion is __________.

a)

F = m/a

b)

p = m × v

c)

a = F/m

d)

p = m/v

107.

What is the initial momentum of Roller Skater 2?

a)

138 kg·m/s

b)

175 kg·m/s

c)

220 kg·m/s

d)

257 kg·m/s

108.

The total momentum of the system is represented by _______.

a)

momentum of both skaters together

b)

momentum of one skater only

c)

mass of both skaters together

d)

velocity of both skaters together

109.

__________ is the change in velocity divided by the time needed for the change to occur.

a)

Acceleration

b)

Average velocity

c)

Displacement

d)

Speed

110.

An object traveling in a circular path is accelerating because its __________.

a)

mass changes

b)

direction changes

c)

speed changes

d)

momentum changes

111.

Will a thrown ball or a dropped ball hit the ground first when dropped or thrown from the same height?

a)

The dropped ball will hit the ground first.

b)

The thrown ball will hit the ground first.

c)

Both the balls hit the ground at the same time.

d)

The less massive ball will hit the ground first.

112.

If an object has an acceleration of 0 m/s^2 what can be said about the object's movement?

a)

The object has a constant velocity and is either moving in a straight line with constant speed or is at rest

b)

The object is at rest

c)

No assumptions about its movement can be made with this information

d)

The object is moving with constant speed in a straight line

113.

If a car is accelerating so that its speed is increasing. Describe the line that you would play on a distance time graph for the motion of the car.

a)

The line on the speed-time graph would have a positive slope

b)

The line on the speed-time graph would have a negative slope

c)

The line on the speed-time graph would be flat

d)

The line on the speed-time graph would be curve pointing upwards

114.

If a car is slowing down so that its speed is decreasing. Describe the line that you would play on a distance time graph for the motion of the car.

a)

The line on the distance time graph would have a positive slope

b)

The line on the distance time graph would have a negative slope

c)

The line on the distance time graph would be a curve pointing upwards

d)

The line on the distance time graph would be a curve pointing downwards

115.

At 8:00 AM you leave home and walk 0.5 km to a friend's house. At 11:30 AM you return home, then travel by car to the mall, which is 10 km away, and arrive at 11:45 AM. What is the total distance traveled?

a)

2.8 km/h

b)

10 km

c)

10.5 km

d)

11 km

116.

What can change when momentum changes?

a)

mass

b)

mass and velocity

c)

velocity

d)

neither mass nor velocity

117.

Determine for the following story whether the object's speed or velocity is given: The world record for the 100 m dash is about 10 m/s

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

118.

Determine for the following story whether the object's speed or velocity is given: The wind today is 30 km/h from the north west

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

119.

How many grams are in 4.2 moles of silicon carbide (SiC)? Round to the nearest tenth.

a)

168.4 grams

b)

120.6 grams

c)

210.4 grams

d)

350.8 grams

120.

How many grams are in 0.9 moles of chlorine gas (Cl₂)? Round to the nearest tenth.

a)

63.8 grams

b)

45.0 grams

c)

70.2 grams

d)

32.0 grams

121.

What type of Rxn? Al(OH)₃ + H₂CO₃ → Al₂(CO₃)₃ + H₂O

a)

Combustion

b)

Synthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Single Replacement

e)

Double Replacement

122.

What type of Rxn? Al + S₈ → Al₂S₃

a)

Combustion

b)

Synthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Single Replacement

e)

Double Replacement

123.

What type of Rxn? Rb + RbNO₃ → Rb₂O + N

a)

Combustion

b)

Synthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Single Replacement

e)

Double Replacement

124.

What type of Rxn? C₆H₁₂ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O

a)

Combustion

b)

Synthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Single Replacement

e)

Double Replacement

125.

An exergonic reaction is best described as one that:

a)

Requires input of energy to proceed

b)

Is always endothermic

c)

Releases free energy

d)

Has a positive ΔG

e)

Never occurs spontaneously

126.

Which of the following has a negative ΔG?

a)

Endergonic

b)

Non-spontaneous

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Exergonic

e)

Requires constant energy input

127.

Cellular respiration is an example of which type of reaction?

a)

Endergonic

b)

Exergonic

c)

Neutral

d)

Endothermic

e)

Non-spontaneous

128.

An exothermic reaction:

a)

Absorbs heat from surroundings

b)

Requires heat input

c)

Releases heat

d)

Lowers temperature of surroundings

e)

Has positive ΔH

129.

Which has a positive ΔH?

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothermic

c)

Both exothermic and endothermic

d)

Neither

e)

Depends on temperature

130.

Is the rate at which reactants turn into products

a)

reaction rate

b)

catalyst

c)

inhibitor

d)

Le Chatelier's Principle

e)

Equilibrium

131.

Is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being permanently changed itself

a)

reaction rate

b)

catalyst

c)

inhibitor

d)

Le Chatelier's Principle

e)

Equilibrium

132.

States that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium shift in the direction that opposes the stress. A stress is any kind of change that disturbs the equilibrium. (ie changing concentration of reactants/products, changing temperature, or changing the pressure etc.)

a)

reaction rate

b)

catalyst

c)

inhibitor

d)

Le Chatelier's Principle

e)

Equilibrium

133.

Atomic number (Z) equals the number of:

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Nucleons

134.

Mass number (A) equals the number of:

a)

Protons only

b)

Neutrons only

c)

Protons + Neutrons

d)

Electrons + Protons

135.

In beta-minus decay, the atomic number:

a)

Decreases by 1

b)

Increases by 1

c)

Stays the same

d)

Increases by 2

136.

In beta-minus decay, the mass number:

a)

Decreases by 4

b)

Decreases by 1

c)

Stays the same

d)

Increases by 2

137.

Gamma decay changes which of the following?

a)

Atomic number

b)

Mass number

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

138.

A 100 g sample with T½ = 5 years will have how much left after 20 years?

a)

100 g

b)

50 g

c)

25 g

d)

6.25 g

139.

The ______ is the SI unit of energy. Mark only one oval.

a)

watt

b)

joule

c)

ampere

d)

volt

140.

When work is done, there is always a(n) ______. Mark only one oval.

a)

constant rate

b)

single movement involved

c)

transfer of energy

d)

increase in the mechanical advantage

141.

Approximately how much kinetic energy does an object have from its motion if its mass is 150-kg and it is moving at a speed of 5.0 meters per second? Mark only one oval.

a)

400 J

b)

1,875 J

c)

3,800 J

d)

57,000 J

142.

A 1500 kg car doubles its speed from 14 m/s to 28 m/s. By how many times does the kinetic energy from the car’s forward motion increase?

a)

Kinetic energy is the same

b)

Kinetic energy doubles

c)

Kinetic energy is 4x

d)

Kinetic energy is 8x

143.

We have 2 objects one has a mass of 500 kg the other has a mass of 1000 kg both are moving at the same velocity of 28 m/s westward. How much more kinetic energy does the object that is 1000 kg have?

a)

Kinetic energy is the same

b)

Kinetic energy doubles

c)

Kinetic energy is 4x

d)

Kinetic energy is 8x

144.

If an object has 25,000 J of kinetic energy and has a mass of 200 kg how fast is the object moving?

a)

5 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

16 m/s

d)

25 m/s

145.

If an object has a velocity of 50 m/s and has 200,000 J of kinetic energy what is its mass?

a)

40 kg

b)

80 kg

c)

160 kg

d)

320 kg

146.

What is the approximate gravitational potential energy of a object-Earth system, if the object has a mass of 125-kg and is 25.0 m above the reference level?

a)

10,250 J

b)

15,726 J

c)

25,659 J

d)

30,625 J

147.

What is the approximate mass of a object in a object-Earth system, if the object has a GPE of 25,000 J and is 15.0 m above the reference level?

a)

17 kg

b)

76 kg

c)

170 kg

d)

326 kg

148.

_______ is force applied through a distance.

a)

Effort

b)

Resistance

c)

Power

d)

Work

149.

A couch is pushed with a horizontal force of 80 N and moves a distance of 5 m across the floor. How much work is done in moving the couch?

a)

40 J

b)

400 J

c)

800 J

d)

250 J

150.

What two factors determine how much kinetic energy an object has from its motion?

a)

the object's position and mass

b)

the object's speed and surface area

c)

the object's speed and mass

d)

the object's speed and position

151.

The brakes on a car do 240,000 J of work in stopping the car. If the car travels a distance of 40 m while brakes are being applied, how large is the average force that the brakes exert on the car?

a)

9,600,000 J

b)

9,600,000 N

c)

6000 J

d)

6000 N

152.

If an object is moved 2 m and has a total work performed on it of 25 J how many newtons of force were applied?

a)

100 N

b)

50 N

c)

480 N

d)

12.5 N

153.

A machine has a efficiency of 40% if the machine does 800 J of work what is the input work?

a)

2000 J

b)

320 J

c)

32,000 J

d)

6000 J

154.

If the input work on a pulley system is 75J and the system is 84% efficient what is the output work of the pulley system?

a)

0.89 J

b)

63 J

c)

6300 J

d)

450 J

155.

Calculate the mechanical advantage of a hammer if the input force is 125 N and the output force is 2,000 N

a)

16

b)

8

c)

0.0625

d)

4

156.

As energy transformations occur within a system, the total energy of the system _______.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

is transferred out of the system

d)

remains constant

157.

During energy transformations, energy is never _______.

a)

released as heat

b)

used to increase an object's potential energy

c)

completely transformed

d)

created or destroyed

158.

The sum of the kinetic energy and the potential energy of the objects in a system is called _______.

a)

thermal energy

b)

complete energy

c)

energy maximum

d)

mechanical energy

159.

A light bulb expends 2000 J of energy in 20 seconds how much power did the lightbulb use?

a)

0.01 W

b)

1 W

c)

10 W

d)

100 W

160.

An electric space heater uses 10,000 J over 10 seconds how much power did the heater use?

a)

0.001 W

b)

1 W

c)

100 W

d)

1000 W

161.

If a lightbulb is rated at 250 W and is on for 15 seconds how much energy was consumed?

a)

0.06 J

b)

3750 J

c)

2750 J

d)

150 J

162.

If a light bulb is rated for 100 watts and consumes 3000 J of electricity how long was the lightbulb on?

a)

0.3 seconds

b)

3 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

300 seconds

163.

Which is NOT a form of energy?

a)

friction

b)

thermal

c)

electrical

d)

chemical

164.

Approximately how much work do you do when you lift your 10.0 kg sister to a height of 1.5 m?

a)

150 J

b)

15 J

c)

15 N

d)

15 W

165.

If the input force on a lever is 200 N, then the output force from that lever is 50 N. What is the mechanical advantage of the lever?

a)

1.0

b)

0.25

c)

4.0

d)

6.0

166.

A particular lever is 90% efficient. If 50 J of work are done on the lever, then how much work does the lever do on its load?

a)

40 J

b)

45 J

c)

60 J

d)

90 J

167.

Which of the following efficiencies is possible for a pulley system?

a)

exactly 100%

b)

exactly 400%

c)

greater than 100%

d)

less than 100%

168.

A 10-kg box sits on the floor. Approximately how high would you have to lift the box to increase gravitational potential energy by 350 J?

a)

3.5 m

b)

7.0 m

c)

15 m

d)

40 m

169.

At what position will the kinetic energy be the highest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

170.

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a material by 1 degree Celsius.

a)

temperature

b)

thermal energy

c)

heat

d)

specific heat

171.

The specific heat of 4 substance is given, determine which would be the best coolant in an engine? Consider all substances as liquid during operating temperatures.
Substance A = 4,200 J/kg*C

Substance B = 1,500 J/kg*C

Substance C = 250 J/kg*C

Substance D = 6,500 J/kg*C

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

172.

What is the change in thermal energy if we have 3 kg of water that starts at 0 degree Celsius and is warmed to 25 degrees Celsius.

a)

100,000 J

b)

176,000 J

c)

289,000 J

d)

315,000 J

173.

Refer to table 1 on p 141 for specific heat of substances. What is the change in temperature if you have 5 kg of sand and have 100,000 J for change in thermal energy

a)

24.1 C

b)

17.4 C

c)

2.1 C

d)

8.6 C

174.

Refer to table 1 on p 141 for specific heat of substances. If we have 150,000 J of change in thermal energy in some graphite. Graphite starts at -5 degrees C and heats up to 15 degrees Celsius. What is the mass of graphite that is heated?

a)

2.4 kg

b)

8.6 kg

c)

10.6 kg

d)

13.6 kg

175.

If you had to cool an object SLOWLY, what would you want the specific heat to be for the coolant? Assume that the same amount of coolant will be used.

a)

We would want a high specific heat for our coolant to cool this as efficiently as possible

b)

We would want a low specific heat for our coolant to cool this as quickly as possible

c)

We would want a low specific heat for our coolant to cool this as slow as possible

d)

We would want a high specific heat for our coolant to cool this as slow as possible

176.

Which of the following is an example of convection?

a)

A spoon placed in the cup filled with cold coffee.

b)

Boiling spaghetti noodles in water.

c)

When a car engine turns hot after being turned on.

177.

Ironing a shirt is an example of:

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

None

d)

Radiation

178.

Heat transfers from an area of _______ temperature to an area of _______ temperature.

a)

low to low

b)

low to high

c)

high to high

d)

high to low

179.

According to the 2nd law of thermodynamics, states that energy spreads from ___________ areas of concentration to ___________ areas of concentration.

a)

low, low

b)

low, high

c)

high, high

d)

high, low

180.

Heat engines convert _____ energy into _____ energy.

a)

mechanical, thermal

b)

thermal, mechanical

c)

potential, kinetic

d)

kinetic, potential

181.

Refrigerators use the process of _____ to remove thermal energy from the interiors.

a)

evaporation

b)

compression

c)

sublimation

d)

combustion

182.

When you measure the temperature of an object, you are measuring _________?

a)

the average chemical energy of its particles

b)

the sum of its kinetic and potential energies

c)

the average kinetic energy of its particles

d)

the specific heat of the object

183.

Which of the metals in the table would experience the largest temperature increase for a given amount of heat input?

a)

copper

b)

gold

c)

tin

d)

zinc

184.

A 10.0 kg block of gold is heated in the Sun from 25.0°C to 30.0°C. Use the table to help calculate the change in the block's thermal energy.

a)

900 J

b)

1300 J

c)

6450 J

d)

3900 J

185.

Which is likely to conduct thermal energy most efficiently?

a)

air

b)

wood

c)

metal

d)

fiberglass

186.

Which type of energy transfer does not require matter?

a)

work

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

convection

187.

_____ is a measure of the average kinetic energy of all particles in an object.

a)

Radiation

b)

Temperature

c)

Density

d)

Conduction

188.

A(n) _____ is a material that does not allow thermal energy to be transferred through it easily.

a)

thermal insulator

b)

fluid

c)

current

d)

thermal conductor

Similar Resources on Wayground

Newton's second law

184 questions

Newton's second law

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University

Physical Science Final Practice 1

191 questions

Physical Science Final Practice 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 9th Grade

ULANGKAJI 1

192 questions

ULANGKAJI 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade