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WorksheetsMTR Chapter 12: Preoperative Management
Total questions: 78
Worksheet time: 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following items should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?
a)
dentures
b)
hearing aids
c)
nail polish
d)
makeup
2.
Which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?
a)
double gloving
b)
full coverage system
c)
lead aprons/shields
d)
splash guard mask
3.
Which of the following choices describes the configuration of a Mayo stand cover?
a)
flat
b)
rigid
c)
cylindrical
d)
wraparound
4.
The purpose of a radiofrequency tracking system in the operating room is to:
a)
aid in chargeable items being input into the system.
b)
assist CSPD personnel in locating instrument trays.
c)
prevent the potential for patient misidentification.
d)
reduce the possibility of retained foreign objects.
5.
During the process of setting up the sterile field, efficiency and economy of motion recommend that the surgical technologist (ST):
a)
move items only once if possible.
b)
position the back table close to the door.
c)
place as many instruments on the Mayo stand as possible.
d)
request that circulating RN open all supplies for the case after the ST is gowned and gloved.
6.
During the surgical skin prep, areas that are considered contaminated should:
a)
not be scrubbed at all.
b)
need no special attention.
c)
be scrubbed separately or last.
d)
be scrubbed vigorously and first.
7.
The main purpose of the surgical skin prep is to:
a)
provide a visible area of paint where the incision will be made.
b)
reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum.
c)
remove all resident and transient flora from the planned incision site.
d)
sterilize the patient's skin to prevent post-op surgical site infections.
8.
The patient undergoing laparotomy should be prepped:
a)
in a side-to-side motion from bedside level to bedside level.
b)
in vertical strokes from superior prep margins to inferior prep margins.
c)
from the periphery inward toward the incision site in a circular motion.
d)
from the incision site outward toward the periphery in a circular motion.
9.
Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT?
a)
Hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site.
b)
Hair removal should be performed as close to the time of the procedure as possible.
c)
Hair removal is dependent upon surgeon's preference, patient factors, and surgical site.
d)
Hair removal using a razor can result in microabrasions and increased microbial count.
10.
Which of the following positions is routinely used for flexible colonoscopy procedures and may be performed on the patient's stretcher?
a)
Fowler's
b)
Kraske
c)
lithotomy
d)
Sims'
11.
An assistant may be needed to properly perform which of the following types of surgical skin prep?
a)
circumferential extremity
b)
midline vertical abdominal
c)
two-step prep with scrub and paint
d)
vaginal/perineal prep in lithotomy position
12.
Which of the following term describes the condition of a surgical technologist's skin following skin prep?
a)
debrided
b)
medically clean
c)
surgically clean
d)
sterile
13.
The appropriate method for delivering a sterile item to the back table from a peel package is to:
a)
open peel pack away from self, using top flap to cover hand and arm, then open item over center of back table.
b)
open package laterally and carefully slide item over glued edge onto top of back table.
c)
open package toward self, then project item into air, aiming for back table.
d)
open package laterally and completely and gently toss item without touching glued edge or going over back table.
14.
A surgical technologist scrubs the area of the arms up to:
a)
one inch below the elbows.
b)
two inches below the elbows.
c)
one inch above the elbows.
d)
two inches above the elbows.
15.
Which of the following methods would NOT be appropriate when performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?
a)
anatomical timed
b)
brushless/waterless
c)
counted strokes
d)
medical hand wash
16.
Which of the following gloving methods should be performed by the surgical technologist after donning a sterile gown and before setting up the back table?
a)
assisted gloving
b)
closed gloving
c)
open gloving
d)
triple gloving
17.
Which of the following techniques of counting sponges on the sterile field is an example of best practice?
a)
Count packages with any member of the surgical team if the circulating nurse in unavailable.
b)
Count quietly and to yourself, and record totals with a skin marker on the back table cover.
c)
Remove paper bands around sponges and separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with the circulator
d)
Remove paper bands around sponges, hold pack in hand and fan out to separate, and then count aloud while touching each sponge.
18.
Which of the following items are NOT considered countable and should not be opened until the end of the procedure?
a)
dressings
b)
instruments
c)
sharps
d)
sponges
19.
Which of the following methods of gloving is appropriate for placement of a urinary catheter as part of the skin prep?
a)
closed gloving
b)
open gloving
c)
double gloving
d)
unsterile gloving
20.
The safety belt or strap is placed on a patient in supine position on the OR table:
a)
two inches proximal to the ankles.
b)
two inches distal to the knees.
c)
two inches proximal to the knees.
d)
two inches distal to the perineal region.
21.
The likely result of positioning the patient's arms on armboards at a greater than 90 degree angle from the torso would be:
a)
hyperextension nerve damage.
b)
foot drop.
c)
hamstring strain.
d)
restriction of respiratory freedom.
22.
The sitting position is a modification of which of the following positions?
a)
Trendelenburg
b)
lithotomy
c)
Fowler's
d)
Kraske
23.
For which of the following positions would the head of the OR table be moved to the foot before the patient is placed on the table?
a)
Trendelenburg
b)
lithotomy
c)
lateral kidney
d)
jackknife
24.
Which of the following positions requires anesthesia administration and intubation to be performed on the patient's stretcher prior to final positioning?
a)
lateral
b)
lithotomy
c)
prone
d)
supine
25.
Which of the following statements about lateral kidney positioning is INCORRECT?
a)
The lower leg is flexed, the upper leg is straight, and a pillow is between both legs.
b)
The lower leg is straight, and the upper leg is flexed with a pillow under the lower leg.
c)
A small roll is placed under the nonoperative side axillary area to facilitate respiration.
d)
The patient's flank is positioned over the kidney lift to provide greater exposure of the operative area.
26.
Before opening any supplies for delivery to the sterile field, the following must be verified:
a)
the removal of charge sticker.
b)
the initials of person who prepared item.
c)
the length of time item has been in storage.
d)
that the package integrity is intact and not violated.
27.
Which of the following terms is used for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?
a)
bioburden
b)
flora
c)
fomites
d)
biologicals
28.
In preparation for donning after scrubbing, the surgical technologist should:
a)
open and toss gown and gloves into the basin set.
b)
open and toss gown and gloves onto the back table.
c)
open and toss gown and gloves onto unsterile Mayo stand.
d)
open gown wrapper on unsterile Mayo stand, and open and toss gloves onto gown.
29.
Which of the following set of steps is the proper way to open a small, sterilely wrapped item for delivery to the sterile field?
a)
First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.
b)
First flap is pulled and opened toward self, the side flaps are pulled open, the last flap is pulled and opened away from self, then item is tossed onto field.
c)
Right flap is pulled and tucked into palm, left flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened toward self, and the bottom flap is opened away from self and secured before tossing onto field.
d)
Left flap is pulled and tucked into palm, right flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked, and bottom flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.
30.
Which of the following terms is used for the area beneath the fingernails that is cleaned with a pick during the surgical scrub?
a)
subacromial
b)
subdermal
c)
sublingual
d)
subungual
31.
Which of the following terms is the name of the common disposable surgical gown style?
a)
cylindrical
b)
turnaround
c)
wraparound
d)
circumferential
32.
If a pack of sponges is found to have an incorrect number during the count process and the patient is on the OR table:
a)
discard the sponge pack into a trash hamper.
b)
hand off the pack to the circulator who will remove it from the room.
c)
ask the circulator to record the actual number on the count board for closing count verification.
d)
hand off the pack to the circulator who will bag it, label it as incorrect, and isolate off field until case completion.
33.
Which of the following statements regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?
a)
They should be counted while all still on back table.
b)
They are unnecessary if only one tray is opened for use.
c)
They are required by state law for every surgical procedure.
d)
They have been replaced by routine practice of post-op X-ray to verify no retained instruments.
34.
When transporting a patient on a stretcher through the OR suite corridors, the correct method is to:
a)
pull the stretcher with the patient facing feet first and the patient flat and restrained.
b)
pull the stretcher with the patient facing head first and the patient flat and restrained.
c)
push the stretcher with the patient facing feet first in the position most comfortable for the patient.
d)
push the stretcher with the patient facing head first in the position most comfortable for the patient.
35.
Radiation, convection, conduction, and evaporation are examples of:
a)
instrument sterilization methods.
b)
mechanisms of intraoperative heat loss.
c)
methods of thermal hemostasis.
d)
surgical suite ventilation controls.
36.
How many individuals are required to safely transfer a recently anesthetized patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
a)
None. Wait until patient can move themselves.
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
37.
Which of the following members of the surgical team gives permission for the patient to be positioned or transferred?
a)
anesthesia provider
b)
circulator
c)
CSFA
d)
CST
38.
When turning the sterile gown, ____ is handed to the circulator, completing the gowning process.
a)
gloved hand
b)
glove wrapper
c)
gown tab or card
d)
gown wrapper
39.
To secure the Mayo stand from moving during draping:
a)
push the Mayo stand against the wall.
b)
step on one leg of the Mayo stand.
c)
have the circulator hold the Mayo stand post.
d)
grasp the back side of the tray with one hand.
40.
Which of the following members of the surgical team are responsible for performing the counts to prevent retained items?
a)
circulator and surgeon
b)
circulator and surgical technologist
c)
surgeon and first assistant
d)
surgeon and surgical technologist
41.
Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?
a)
Hold the bottle six inches above and over the basin.
b)
Hold the bottle six inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
c)
Hold the bottle twelve inches above and over the basin.
d)
Hold the bottle twelve inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
42.
Before the surgical technologist places the basket of instruments on the back table, the circulator verifies that:
a)
the internal indicator has changed color.
b)
the filter on the container lid has changed color.
c)
the filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.
d)
the numbers of instruments in the tray are correct on the count sheet from CSPD.
43.
Which of the following statements regarding transfer of an awake, mobile patient from stretcher to OR table is INCORRECT?
a)
Both table and stretcher must be locked to prevent movement during transfer.
b)
One staff member is positioned on table side to receive patient and one on stretcher side to stabilize.
c)
Instruct patient to keep the blanket on during transfer, for preventing hypothermia and for privacy.
d)
The safety strap is secured tightly across patient's waist to prevent possible fall due to the narrow OR table.
44.
Which of the following measurements is/are NOT included in operative vital sign measurements?
a)
pulse
b)
blood pressure
c)
height and weight
d)
All of the above are considered operative vital sign measurements.
45.
The name of the device used to manually assess blood pressure is:
a)
electrocardiograph
b)
glucometer
c)
pulse oximeter
d)
sphygmomanometer
46.
Trendelenburg, reverse Trendelenburg, Fowler's, and lithotomy are variations of which of the following basic positions?
a)
decubitus
b)
lateral
c)
prone
d)
supine
47.
Which of the following table attachments is required to safely maintain a patient in the reverse Trendelenburg position?
a)
anesthesia screen
b)
kidney braces
c)
padded footboard
d)
shoulder braces
48.
Which of the following positions would facilitate exposure of the operative area during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
a)
Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
b)
Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
c)
reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
d)
reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
49.
The purpose of the preoperative skin prep is to sterilize the patient's skin to prevent surgical site infections.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
50.
The legs of a patient being placed in the lithotomy position should be raised and lowered slowly and simultaneously by two unsterile personnel.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
51.
Suction tubing and ESU cords are attached to the sterile drape with perforating towel clips to prevent contamination.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
52.
If drapes are misplaced during draping procedure:
a)
leave them as they are.
b)
cover them with another drape.
c)
remove and discard them.
d)
ask the circulator to reposition them.
53.
By which of the following methods should the one-piece C-arm drape be placed over the upper image intensifier?
a)
Unfold it entirely on the back table.
b)
Let it unfold as it is placed over the intensifier.
c)
Keep it folded throughout the process.
d)
Use adhesive to attach it securely.
54.
The purpose of the magnets of the metal discs in draping the surgical robot is:
a)
to add weight to the drapes.
b)
to make the drapes more aesthetically pleasing.
c)
to assist in securing the drapes in place.
d)
to help the CST maintain balance.
55.
What purpose does the Mayo stand serve during surgery?
a)
to hold the patient's legs in position
b)
to provide a platform for the surgeon to stand on
c)
to hold sterile instruments and supplies for the surgeon
d)
to collect waste materials
56.
The purpose of completing time out procedure in the operating room is:
a)
to record the time when surgery begins.
b)
to verify the patient's insurance information.
c)
to count the number of surgical sponges on the sterile field.
d)
to ensure that all team members are present and ready for surgery.
57.
The primary purpose of OR attire is:
a)
to keep staff comfortable during surgery.
b)
to differentiate between hospital units.
c)
to protect both patient and staff by minimizing microbial counts and limiting microbial spread.
d)
to comply with hospital policy scrub/fashion guidelines.
58.
Which of the following is choices NOT mentioned as a potential restriction for OR attire according to HCF policy?
a)
excessive makeup
b)
nail polish
c)
artificial nails
d)
wearing eyeglasses
59.
Surgical mask can be either on or off and can be left hanging around the neck.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
60.
Radiation is rarely encountered in the operating room. Therefore, radiation protection is not necessary for the surgical team.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
61.
The supine position gives the surgical team access to all of the following areas except:
a)
the lumbar spine.
b)
the chest.
c)
the pelvis.
d)
the abdomen.
62.
For skin preparation for a closure of a colostomy, the CST is aware that the stoma is considered dirty. In prepping the patient for the procedure, the CST in the circulating role should:
a)
prep incision and stoma together.
b)
prep stoma first and incision second.
c)
use two separate prep kits, incision first and stoma second.
d)
prep incision only.
63.
While draping a patient during a surgical procedure, the CST in the scrub role knows that once a drape has been placed, it:
a)
can be adjusted by circulator.
b)
can be shifted one inch.
c)
can be moved by surgeon.
d)
can never be moved to avoid contamination.
64.
Which of the following procedures could be performed prior to a gastrointestinal case?
a)
shaving of the skull
b)
enema
c)
spinal tap
d)
leg prep
65.
The first towel is placed on the side of the patient nearest the person applying the drapes.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
c)
N/A
d)
N/A
66.
The preoperative case management phase ends just prior to the initial incision.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
c)
N/A
d)
N/A
67.
Double gloving is not a standard precaution.
a)
"True"
b)
"False"
c)
N/A
d)
N/A
68.
The Trendelenburg position is used to displace the abdominal contents cephalad to provide better exposure. The CST knows the patient in this position will have their head in which of the following positions?
a)
upward
b)
tilted to the right
c)
tilted to the left
d)
downward
69.
An ulnar nerve injury can be prevented by which of the following methods?
a)
positioning the arm board at an angle greater than 90 degrees
b)
placing arms on non-padded arm boards
c)
padding elbows
d)
placing arms at sides with palms facing outward
70.
To drape an upper or lower extremity, the CST in the scrub role might require ______ to complete the draping process.
a)
an Esmarch
b)
a Mayo stand cover
c)
leggings
d)
a stockinette
71.
Which of the following terms means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment?
a)
radiation
b)
convection
c)
conduction
d)
evaporation
72.
In which of the following positions would you expect to use chest rolls, padding under the knees, and pillows under the feet?
a)
prone
b)
lithotomy
c)
Fowler's
d)
supine
73.
When securing the patient's arms at their sides, the draw sheet should be secured in which of the following ways?
a)
one end under the patient and the other end under the OR bed platform
b)
one end under the patient and the other end under the OR mattress
c)
one end under the mattress and the other end under the OR platform
d)
both ends under the patient
74.
If the CST and circulator encounter an incorrect sponge count prior to the patient entering the room, the sponges should be:
a)
removed from the room by the circulator.
b)
placed in a bag with a patient label, and the bag should remain in the room.
c)
discarded in the trash can in the room.
d)
left on the field for use, and the circulator should document the discrepancy.
75.
During which of the following procedures would the CST likely use a Mayfield table?
a)
ORIF of an ankle
b)
shoulder arthroscopy
c)
craniotomy
d)
knee replacement
76.
The time out is performed:
a)
shortly after the initial incision.
b)
when the patient enters the room.
c)
after the patient is positioned but before the initial incision.
d)
before the patient is positioned.
77.
Methylene blue and gentian violet are types of:
a)
positioning aids.
b)
sutures.
c)
surgical gloves.
d)
skin markers.
78.
Preoperative antibiotics are typically administered:
a)
one to two hours prior to surgery.
b)
three to four hours prior to surgery.
c)
within one hour prior to surgery.
d)
at the time of incision.
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