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Ovarian Carcinoma: Symptom and Ultrasound Characteristics

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following symptom combinations is most consistent with ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, heavy menses, weight gain

b)

Vague abdominal/pelvic pain, abdominal distention, increased abdominal girth, and pressure

c)

Fever, chills, nausea, and acute infection

d)

Sudden lower quadrant pain with vaginal bleeding

2.

Which symptom may indicate advanced ovarian carcinoma due to systemic effects?

a)

Localized cramping during menstruation

b)

Unexplained weight loss and manifestations of hormone activity

c)

Increased appetite and weight gain

d)

Constipation relieved with bowel movements

3.

On ultrasound, which ovarian mass characteristics are most suspicious for ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Simple cyst with thin walls and posterior enhancement

b)

Unilocular cyst with smooth margins

c)

Large complex mass with multiseptations and daughter cysts

d)

Small anechoic cyst with no internal echoes

4.

Which Doppler finding is commonly associated with malignant ovarian tumors such as ovarian carcinoma?

a)

High resistance blood flow

b)

Absent blood flow

c)

Low resistance blood flow

d)

Peripheral flow only

5.

What is the most common type of ovarian carcinoma?

a)

Mucinous carcinoma

b)

Endometrioid carcinoma

c)

Clear cell carcinoma

d)

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

6.

What best describes a dermoid cyst?

a)

A functional ovarian cyst that resolves spontaneously

b)

A malignant ovarian tumor composed of immature tissues

c)

A teratoma containing mature tissues such as skin, hair, and sweat glands

d)

A fluid-filled cyst formed from follicular rupture

7.

Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is best defined as which of the following?

a)

A placental infection caused by bacterial overgrowth

b)

A gestational event involving abnormal proliferation of the trophoblast due to an abnormal karyotype

c)

A benign ovarian condition unrelated to pregnancy

d)

A fetal chromosomal abnormality without placental involvement

8.

Which form of GTD is classified as a benign trophoblastic disease?

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Invasive mole (chorioadenoma destruens)

c)

Hydatidiform mole

d)

Placental site tumor

9.

An invasive mole (chorioadenoma destruens) is best described as which type of gestational trophoblastic disease?

a)

Benign, noninvasive trophoblastic disease

b)

Malignant, metastatic trophoblastic disease

c)

Malignant, non-metastatic trophoblastic disease

d)

Benign placental abnormality

10.

Which form of GTD is considered a malignant metastatic trophoblastic disease?

a)

Hydatidiform mole

b)

Invasive mole

c)

Placental polyp

d)

Choriocarcinoma

11.

What is considered a normal endometrial thickness in a postmenopausal woman not on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

a)

Less than 3 mm

b)

Less than 5 mm

c)

Less than 8 mm

d)

Less than 10 mm

12.

In a postmenopausal woman receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT), what is the maximum normal endometrial thickness?

a)

Up to 5 mm

b)

Up to 6 mm

c)

Up to 7 mm

d)

Up to 8 mm

13.

Tamoxifen is best described as which of the following?

a)

A progesterone-only medication used to suppress ovulation

b)

A partial estrogen receptor antagonist used in postmenopausal women with estrogen receptor–positive breast cancer that has estrogen effects on the uterus

c)

A chemotherapy agent that destroys trophoblastic tissue

d)

A gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist with no uterine effects

14.

Which endometrial ultrasound appearance is most commonly associated with tamoxifen use?

a)

Thin, smooth endometrium measuring less than 5 mm

b)

Uniform echogenic endometrium without cystic changes

c)

Thickened, irregular, cystic endometrium measuring up to 8 mm

d)

Absent endometrial stripe

15.

Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome occurs as a result of which condition?

a)

A. A primary liver infection

b)

B. Progression of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) to peritonitis

c)

C. Direct trauma to the liver capsule

d)

D. Congenital inflammation of the peritoneum

16.

The perihepatic inflammation seen in Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome is caused by which mechanism?

a)

Hematogenous spread of infection to the liver parenchyma

b)

Direct extension from the gallbladder

c)

Free fluid traveling up through the right or left flank

d)

Obstruction of the biliary ducts

17.

What is the normal size of a Graafian follicle at maturity?

a)

1.0 cm

b)

1.5 cm

c)

2.0 cm

d)

3.0 cm

18.

Which of the following clinical findings is commonly associated with gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

a)

Regular vaginal bleeding with normal uterine size

b)

Irregular vaginal bleeding during pregnancy, discrepant uterine height, hyperemesis, and pre-eclampsia

c)

Postmenopausal bleeding with pelvic pain

d)

Asymptomatic pregnancy with normal uterine growth

19.

In the first trimester, GTD may mimic or be confused with which of the following conditions?

a)

Ectopic pregnancy and ovarian torsion

b)

Placenta previa and uterine rupture

c)

Blighted ovum, missed abortion, degenerating leiomyoma, hydropic placenta, endometrial cancer, and adenomyosis

d)

Normal intrauterine pregnancy

20.

Which second-trimester ultrasound finding is most characteristic of gestational trophoblastic disease?

a)

Well-formed fetus with normal placenta

b)

Simple cystic ovarian mass only

c)

Soft tissue mass with sonolucent areas of different sizes producing a “snowflake or lacey pattern” with absence of fetal parts

d)

Thin endometrium with no internal echoes

21.

Which additional ultrasound findings may be seen in advanced GTD?

a)

Small uterus for gestational age with hyperechoic myometrium

b)

Uterus large for dates, hypoechoic myometrium, and bilateral theca lutein cysts

c)

Normal myometrium with unilateral ovarian cysts

d)

Free pelvic fluid without uterine changes

22.

Which of the following represents appropriate treatment and follow-up options for gestational trophoblastic disease?

a)

Expectant management only

b)

Antibiotic therapy and bed rest

c)

Dilation and curettage (D&C), beta-hCG testing, oral contraceptives for one year, and possible surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy

d)

Hormone replacement therapy alone

23.

If a patient has a large fibroid uterus, which imaging modality is most appropriate for evaluation?

a)

Transvaginal ultrasound

b)

Transabdominal ultrasound

c)

MRI only

d)

CT scan

24.

Which of the following is a common clinical finding associated with uterine fibroids?

a)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

b)

Pelvic pain, menorrhagia, asymptomatic, bladder/rectum pressure, infertility, spontaneous abortion

c)

Sudden abdominal trauma

d)

Postmenopausal bleeding only

25.

Which of the following best describes the ultrasound appearance of fibroids?

a)

Thin, uniform endometrium with posterior enhancement

b)

Well-defined masses with whorled appearance, hypoechoic to anechoic, possibly with cystic degeneration or calcifications

c)

Complex ovarian mass with septations and daughter cysts

d)

Free fluid with echogenic debris only

26.

Fibroids can cause reproductive complications including:

a)

Hyperemesis and pre-eclampsia

b)

Infertility and spontaneous abortion

c)

Ovarian torsion and cyst rupture

d)

Endometriosis and adenomyosis

27.

Which clinical symptom combination might prompt an ultrasound evaluation for fibroids?

a)

Sudden right lower quadrant pain with nausea

b)

Bladder/rectum pressure, pelvic pain, menorrhagia, or asymptomatic enlarged uterus

c)

Mild fatigue and anemia only

d)

Fever and pelvic infection

28.

Which of the following clinical findings may be associated with pyosalpinx?

a)

Severe acute abdominal pain with hypotension

b)

Asymptomatic presentation, pelvic fullness or discomfort, and low-grade fever

c)

Sudden onset of heavy vaginal bleeding

d)

High-grade fever with chills and jaundice

29.

On ultrasound, a pyosalpinx is most likely to appear as:

a)

Thin-walled anechoic cyst in the ovary

b)

Pus-filled irregular fallopian tube, possibly with internal echoes

c)

Well-circumscribed, uniformly hyperechoic uterine mass

d)

Free fluid only in the posterior cul-de-sac

30.

Which ultrasound characteristics are consistent with pyosalpinx?

a)

A. “String of beads” appearance, 3–8 cm ovoid shape, acoustic enhancement

b)

B. Simple, unilocular ovarian cyst with smooth walls

c)

C. Large complex fibroid with whorled pattern

d)

D. Hyperechoic endometrium with posterior shadowing

31.

The size range of a pyosalpinx on ultrasound is typically:

a)

1–2 cm

b)

3–8 cm

c)

10–15 cm

d)

Less than 1 cm

32.

Sonohysterography is best described as:

a)

MRI evaluation of the endometrium after contrast injection

b)

Saline-infused sonography used to evaluate the endometrium

c)

Transabdominal ultrasound performed during menstruation

d)

CT scan with oral contrast to evaluate uterine shape

33.

The primary purpose of sonohysterography is to:

a)

Measure ovarian volume and detect cysts

b)

Further evaluate an abnormally thickened endometrium

c)

Assess tubal patency for infertility only

d)

Detect fibroids and calcifications exclusively

34.

A complete failure of the Müllerian ducts to fuse during fetal development results in:

a)

Septate uterus

b)

Bicornuate uterus

c)

Uterus didelphys

d)

Unicornuate uterus

35.

Which of the following best describes the ultrasound appearance of postmenopausal ovaries?

a)

Easily visualized, enlarged, with multiple follicles

b)

Difficult to visualize, smaller in size, follicles absent

c)

Enlarged, hyperechoic, with cystic areas

d)

Normal size with dominant follicle

36.

Postmenopausal ovaries are typically described as:

a)

Hypoechoic with absent follicles

b)

Hyperechoic with multiple cysts

c)

Isoechoic with visible dominant follicles

d)

Anechoic and enlarged

37.

Which of the following ultrasound findings is most suggestive of ovarian malignancy?

a)

Small, simple cyst with thin walls

b)

Large complex mass, multiseptated, possibly with daughter cysts

c)

Hyperechoic, well-circumscribed ovarian nodule

d)

Uniform anechoic cyst with posterior enhancement

38.

A Doppler evaluation of a suspicious ovarian mass most likely shows:

a)

High-resistance blood flow

b)

No blood flow

c)

Low-resistance blood flow

d)

Peripheral flow only

39.

Which ovarian cells are responsible for producing androgens?

a)

Granulosa cells

b)

Theca cells

c)

Corpus luteum cells

d)

Follicular stem cells

40.

The most common primary cancer that results in a Krukenberg tumor originates from the:

a)

Breast

b)

Gastrointestinal (GI) tract

c)

Lung

d)

Ovary

41.

Which type of fibroid is most likely to cause significant symptoms such as abnormal bleeding or infertility?

a)

Subserosal

b)

Intramural

c)

Submucosal

d)

Pedunculated

42.

Which type of benign ovarian tumor is most commonly associated with ascites?

a)

Dermoid cyst

b)

Ovarian fibroma (Meigs syndrome)

c)

Serous cystadenoma

d)

Endometrioma

43.

Which of the following ovarian tumors is typically cystic and arises from sex-cord stromal or epithelial origin?

a)

Theca cell tumor

b)

Granulosa cell tumor

c)

Brenner tumor

d)

Sertoli-Leydig tumor

44.

Which ovarian tumor is typically solid, often small, and of epithelial origin?

a)

Fibroma

b)

Brenner tumor

c)

Serous cystadenoma

d)

Teratoma

45.

Which of the following ovarian tumors is typically cystic?

a)

Granulosa cell tumor

b)

Brenner tumor

c)

Serous cystadenoma

d)

Sertoli-Leydig tumor

46.

Which ovarian tumor is generally classified as solid on ultrasound?

a)

Mucinous cystadenoma

b)

Fibroma

c)

Granulosa cell tumor

d)

Theca cell tumor

47.

Which of the following tumors is more likely to be cystic rather than solid?

a)

Brenner tumor

b)

Teratoma

c)

Granulosa cell tumor

d)

Sertoli-Leydig tumor

48.

Which of the following ovarian tumors is typically solid and may produce hormonal effects?

a)

Theca cell tumor

b)

Mucinous cystadenoma

c)

Fibroma

d)

Sertoli-Leydig tumor

49.

Which type of fibroid is most common and develops within the myometrium?

a)

Subserosal

b)

Pedunculated

c)

Intramural (interstitial)

d)

Submucosal

50.

A fibroid that grows near the peritoneal surface of the uterus and may distort its contour is classified as:

a)

Submucosal

b)

Subserosal

c)

Intramural

d)

Pedunculated

51.

Which type of fibroid forms and grows near the endometrium, potentially distorting the endometrial stripe?

a)

Intramural

b)

Subserosal

c)

Submucosal

d)

Pedunculated

52.

A fibroid that arises from a subserosal fibroid and grows away from the myometrium on a pedicle is called:

a)

Submucosal fibroid

b)

Pedunculated fibroid

c)

Intramural fibroid

d)

Interstitial fibroid

53.

Adenomyosis is best described as:

a)

Ectopic occurrence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium, commonly mistaken for leiomyoma

b)

Endometrial tissue growing on the ovary

c)

Fibroids located subserosally on the uterus

d)

Hyperplasia of the endometrium due to estrogen therapy

54.

Which group of women is most at risk to develop uterine fibroids?

a)

Postmenopausal women

b)

Dark-skinned women

c)

Women with a history of ectopic pregnancy

d)

Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome

55.

Which term describes the tipping of the entire uterus toward the sacrum?

a)

A. Retroflexion

b)

B. Retroversion

c)

C. Anteflexion

d)

D. Anteversion

56.

Which term refers to the bending of the uterine fundus toward the rectum?

a)

Retroversion

b)

Retroflexion

c)

Anteflexion

d)

Anteversion

57.

Backward displacement of the entire uterus is called:

a)

Retrocession

b)

Retroflexion

c)

Anteversion

d)

Anteflexion

58.

Which term describes the bending of the uterine fundus toward the anterior abdominal wall?

a)

Retroversion

b)

Retroflexion

c)

Anteversion

d)

Anteflexion

59.

Which ultrasound finding is most consistent with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?

a)

Unilateral ovarian cyst with hyperechoic foci

b)

Bilateral enlarged ovaries filled with small cysts, with ascites

c)

Normal-sized ovaries with dominant follicle

d)

Solid ovarian mass with calcifications

60.

What is the most dependent potential space in the true pelvis?

a)

Anterior cul-de-sac (vesico-uterine pouch)

b)

Posterior cul-de-sac (pouch of Douglas / recto-uterine pouch)

c)

Retropubic space (space of Retzius)

d)

Broad ligament space

61.

The right ovarian vein drains into which structure?

a)

Right renal vein

b)

Inferior vena cava (IVC)

c)

Left renal vein

d)

Portal vein

62.

The left ovarian vein drains into which structure?

a)

Inferior vena cava (IVC)

b)

Left renal vein

c)

Right renal vein

d)

Common iliac vein

63.

The anterior cul-de-sac is also known as:

a)

Pouch of Douglas

b)

Vesico-uterine pouch

c)

Recto-uterine pouch

d)

Retroperitoneal space

64.

The posterior cul-de-sac is also called:

a)

Vesico-uterine pouch

b)

Space of Retzius

c)

Recto-uterine pouch or pouch of Douglas

d)

Broad ligament space

65.

The anterior cul-de-sac (vesico-uterine pouch) is located:

a)

Between the bladder and the uterus

b)

Between the uterus and the rectum

c)

Between the anterior bladder wall and the pubic symphysis

d)

Between the ovaries

66.

The posterior cul-de-sac (recto-uterine pouch) is located:

a)

Between the bladder and the uterus

b)

Between the uterus and the rectum

c)

Between the anterior bladder wall and the pubic symphysis

d)

Between the bladder and the pubic bone

67.

The space of Retzius is also called:

a)

Vesico-uterine pouch

b)

Pouch of Douglas

c)

Retropubic space

d)

Recto-uterine pouch

68.

The space of Retzius (retropubic space) is located:

a)

Between the bladder and the uterus

b)

Between the uterus and the rectum

c)

Between the anterior bladder wall and the pubic symphysis

d)

Between the ovaries and the broad ligament

69.

During menstruation, which layer of the uterus is sloughed off?

a)

Myometrium

b)

Endometrium (functional layer / stratum functionalis)

c)

Perimetrium

d)

Basal layer of the endometrium

70.

Functional or physiologic cysts of the ovary are typically:

a)

Related to neoplastic growth only

b)

Related to reproductive function

c)

Always malignant

d)

Only associated with postmenopausal women

71.

Which of the following are examples of functional ovarian cysts?

a)

Follicular cyst, corpus luteum, theca lutein cyst, germ cell tumor

b)

Serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma, Brenner tumor

c)

Fibroma, granulosa cell tumor, Sertoli-Leydig tumor

d)

Endometrioma, dermoid, Krukenberg tumor

72.

The term for excessive bleeding during menstruation is:

a)

Dysmenorrhea

b)

Menorrhagia

c)

Metrorrhagia

d)

Oligomenorrhea

73.

Stein-Leventhal syndrome is another name for:

a)

Endometriosis

b)

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

c)

Adenomyosis

d)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

74.

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with PCOS / Stein-Leventhal syndrome?

a)

Hypothyroidism, hair loss, amenorrhea

b)

Obesity, menstrual abnormality (oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea), virilization/hirsutism, infertility

c)

Severe pelvic pain during menses only

d)

Postmenopausal bleeding and hot flashes

75.

Which assisted reproductive technique involves retrieving mature ova from the ovaries and fertilizing them outside the body before transferring embryos to the uterus?

a)

GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer)

b)

IVF (In-Vitro Fertilization)

c)

IUI (Intrauterine Insemination)

d)

ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer)

76.

Which technique requires at least one normal, patent fallopian tube to be performed?

a)

IVF

b)

GIFT

c)

IUI

d)

Egg freezing

77.

The main difference between IVF and GIFT is:

a)

IVF places sperm directly in the uterus, GIFT fertilizes outside the body

b)

IVF fertilization occurs in vitro (outside the body), GIFT fertilization occurs in vivo (inside the body)

c)

IVF requires patent fallopian tubes, GIFT does not

d)

There is no difference; both techniques are identical

78.

A Sertoli-Leydig tumor (Arrhenoblastoma) is best described as:

a)

A common epithelial ovarian tumor in postmenopausal women

b)

A rare sex cord–stromal ovarian tumor (<0.5% of ovarian tumors) that occurs mostly in women under 30

c)

A benign cystic ovarian tumor with no hormonal effects

d)

A germ cell tumor producing estrogen

79.

Which hormone is typically secreted by a Sertoli-Leydig tumor, causing masculinization in affected women?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

FSH

80.

Meigs’ syndrome is characterized by which classic triad?

a)

Malignant ovarian tumor, ascites, pleural effusion

b)

Benign ovarian tumor, ascites, pleural effusion

c)

Endometrioma, pelvic pain, irregular bleeding

d)

Fibroma, hydrothorax, hematuria

81.

Pseudomyxoma peritonei is most commonly produced by:

a)

Ruptured serous cystadenoma

b)

Ruptured mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

c)

Ruptured dermoid cyst

d)

Ruptured endometrioma

82.

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of pseudomyxoma peritonei?

a)

Free fluid accumulates in the pelvis without mucin

b)

Thick mucin builds up in the abdominal cavity and can compress vital structures

c)

Simple ascites due to liver failure

d)

Fluid-filled cysts form only within the ovaries

83.

Which of the following is a common clinical finding in ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Negative pregnancy test with pelvic pain

b)

Positive pregnancy test, vaginal bleeding/spotting, amenorrhea, abdominal pain (may refer to shoulder), adnexal mass

c)

Postmenopausal bleeding only

d)

Chronic dysmenorrhea without positive pregnancy test

84.

Which ultrasound finding may indicate an ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Gestational sac clearly seen in the endometrium

b)

Uterus without gestational sac, possibly with a pseudogestational sac

c)

Simple ovarian cyst only

d)

Thickened endometrium without free fluid

85.

Which of the following adnexal findings may be seen in ectopic pregnancy on ultrasound?

a)

A. Anechoic simple cyst only

b)

B. Complex adnexal mass and fluid in posterior cul-de-sac or Morison’s pouch

c)

C. Hyperechoic ovarian nodule without free fluid

d)

D. Normal adnexa with no mass

86.

Which rare scenario may occur in ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Concurrent ectopic pregnancy and intrauterine pregnancy (IUP)

b)

Ectopic pregnancy with multiple ovarian cysts only

c)

Ectopic pregnancy with postmenopausal bleeding

d)

Ectopic pregnancy with thickened endometrium only

87.

A primordial follicle is best described as:

a)

A mature ovarian follicle ready for ovulation

b)

The most immature stage of ovarian follicle, consisting of an immature oocyte surrounded by a single layer of flat granulosa cells

c)

A cystic ovarian structure formed post-ovulation

d)

A corpus luteum in early development

88.

Which of the following components are present in a primordial follicle?

a)

Secondary oocyte and multiple layers of granulosa cells

b)

Primary oocyte and follicle cells

c)

Zygote and zona pellucida

d)

Corpus luteum and theca cells

89.

Which of the following is a typical clinical presentation of ovarian torsion?

a)

Gradual onset mild pelvic discomfort with postmenopausal bleeding

b)

Sudden onset severe pelvic pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, palpable adnexal mass, intermittent pain weeks before

c)

Chronic dysmenorrhea only

d)

Asymptomatic pelvic mass detected incidentally

90.

Which group of patients is most at risk for ovarian torsion?

a)

Postmenopausal women

b)

Children and women under 30

c)

Women with PCOS over age 40

d)

Women with uterine fibroids only

91.

Which of the following ultrasound findings is most indicative of ovarian torsion?

a)

Hyperechoic ovary with normal size and blood flow

b)

Hypoechoic, enlarged ovary, free fluid in the pelvis, absent flow on Doppler

c)

Small ovary with multiple follicles and increased blood flow

d)

Normal ovary with cystic degeneration only

92.

Prior intermittent episodes of pelvic pain in a patient may suggest which gynecologic emergency?

a)

Endometriosis

b)

Ovarian torsion

c)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

d)

Fibroid degeneration