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Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the primary role of the heart?

a)

Emotional control.

b)

Pumping organ.

c)

Thirst center.

d)

Respiratory center.

2.

Cardiac cells need a source of energy to maintain adequate contractility. Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the myocardium?

a)

Carotid artery.

b)

Coronary artery.

c)

Cardiac artery.

d)

Heart artery.

3.

The PMI is located in the:

a)

Left ICS, 5th MCL.

b)

Left MCL, 5th ICS.

c)

Right ICS, 5th MCL.

d)

Right MCL, 5th ICS.

4.

If Digitalis is to be administered, the nurse should check which pulse first?

a)

Carotid.

b)

Apical.

c)

Brachial.

d)

Radial.

5.

CAD is more prevalent among:

a)

Filipino-Hispanic.

b)

African-American.

c)

Pacific Islander.

d)

Asian.

6.

The pericardial space between the parietal and visceral layers holds ______ of pericardial fluid to lubricate the pericardial surface and cushion the heart.

a)

5-20ml

b)

5-20dl/ml

c)

50-100 ml

d)

1-3 ml

7.

This encases and protects the heart from trauma and infection.

a)

pericardial sac

b)

visceral layer

c)

parietal layer

d)

interstitial

8.

Right atrium receives ____________

a)

Deoxygenated blood from the body via the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava.

b)

Oxygenated blood from the body via the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava.

c)

Deoxygenated blood from the body via the pulmonary artery

d)

Oxygenated blood from the body via the pulmonary vein.

9.

Right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pump it to the __________ via ____________

a)

lung, pulmonary vein

b)

lung, pulmonary artery

c)

systemic circulation, aorta

d)

systemic circulation, ventricle

10.

Left ventricle receives

a)

oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary artery

b)

deoxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary artery

c)

oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary vein

d)

deoxygenated blood from the lungs via the aorta

11.

It is the largest and most muscular chamber.

a)

right ventricle

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

12.

Which of the following is true about atrioventricular valves?

a)

The tricuspid is located at the left side

b)

The mitral valve is located on the right side of the heart

c)

The atrioventricular valves close at the beginning of ventricular contraction and prevent blood from flowing back in the atria from the ventricle

d)

The valves open when ventricles relax.

13.

It is considered as the main pacemaker that initiates heart beat

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Purkinji fibers

14.

The SA node generates electrical impulses

a)

60-100 times per minute and is controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

b)

60-100 times per minute and is controlled by the sympathetic only

c)

60-100 joules and is controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

d)

60-100 times mmH2O and is controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

15.

When the primary pacemaker fails the ________ - initiates and sustains the heart rate of __________

a)

AV node, 40 – 60 beats per minute

b)

AV node, 20 – 40 beats per minute

c)

Bundle of his, 40- 60 beats per minute

d)

Purkinji fiber, 40-60 mmHg

16.

Purkinji fibers can act as pacemaker with a rate between__________

a)

20-40 beats per minute

b)

20-40 mmHg

c)

30-40 beats per minute

d)

40- 60 ml H2O

17.

One properties of the heart is its ability to be repetitive and spontaneous. This is:

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Contractility

e)

Refractoriness

18.

While the ability to transmit impulses is what property of the heart?

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Contractility

e)

Refractoriness

19.

Its ability to pump blood belongs to what property?

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Contractility

e)

Refractoriness

20.

Inability of the heart to respond to new stimuli while in contraction is:

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Contractility

e)

Refractoriness

21.

This test is performed because it signals tissue necrosis

a)

Chest Xray

b)

2D echo

c)

Cardiac biomarkers

d)

Holter monitoring

22.

A cardiac biomarker that rises 1-2 hours after an MI attack is

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Troponin I

c)

Troponin T

d)

CKMB

e)

AST

23.

________ - has a high affinity for myocardial injury and it rises within _______

a)

Troponin I, 3 hours and persists for up to 7-10 days

b)

Troponin T, 3 hours and persists for up to 7-10 days

c)

Troponin I, 3 hours and persists for up to 3- days

d)

Troponin I, 3 hours and persists for up to 10-15 days

24.

________ is a cardiac specific enzyme that arises 4 – 6 hours and peaks at __________.

a)

CK MB, 18 hours

b)

troponin, 7 hours

c)

AST, 8 hours

d)

LDH, 16 hours

25.

Cardiac biomarkers that arises within 24 hours is:

a)

myoglobin

b)

troponin

c)

CK- MB

d)

LDH

e)

AST

26.

What is the initial action for patients with ACS?

a)

ECG

b)

Oxygenation

c)

obtain cardiac biomarkers

d)

MRI

27.

The top priority mngt for a patient with ACS is

a)

ECG

b)

Oxygenation

c)

obtain cardiac biomarkers

d)

MRI

e)

Morphine SO4

28.

It indicates ventricular relaxation. This is:

a)

P wave

b)

PR interval

c)

QRS complex

d)

ST segment

e)

T wave

29.

The ECG indicates STEMI, this means that:

a)

A. A 100 % obstruction occurs

b)

B. An 80% obstruction

c)

C. No obstruction

d)

D. No damage

30.

The lipid profile measures

a)

serum cholesterol

b)

triglyceride

c)

lipoprotein levels

d)

all of the above

31.

A modified form of low density lipoprotein means

a)

An increase atherosclerotic plaques and increases clots

b)

A decrease atherosclerotic plaques and decreases clots

c)

No problem since it is low

d)

An increase plaques and decrease clots

32.

Which of the following places the client at high risk for heart disease?

a)

CRP > 3 mg/ L

b)

CRP < 1 mg/L

c)

CRP > 2 mg/dl

d)

CRP < 5 mg/L

33.

Which of the following appears abnormal on an ECG when ischemia and injury occurs in the myocardium?

a)

QRS interval.

b)

P wave.

c)

ST segment.

d)

PR interval.

34.

An increase in the creatine kinase-MB isoenzyme (CK-MB) can be caused by:

a)

Cerebral injury.

b)

Intramuscular injection.

c)

Myocardial necrosis.

d)

Skeletal muscle damage.

35.

Which of the following is elevated after an hour of myocardial tissue necrosis?

a)

Myoglobin.

b)

Troponin.

c)

CK-MB

d)

AST

36.

This is done to determine anatomical changes such as size, silhouette, and position of the heart.

a)

Chest XRAY

b)

Holter monitoring

c)

ECG

d)

Cardiac Catheterization

37.

Which of the following is a correct statement?

a)

Aldosterone promotes sodium excretion.

b)

Aldosterone promotes potassium excretion.

c)

Aldosterone prevents potassium excretion.

d)

Aldosterone prevents potassium elimination.

38.

Which of the following is not a principle in daily weight monitoring?

a)

Same type of clothing.

b)

Same nurse.

c)

Same time of each day.

d)

Same weighing scale.

39.

A non invasive test where the client wears a monitor and an electrocardiographic tracing is recorded continuously over a period of 24 hours.

a)

2D echo

b)

Holter monitoring

c)

Stress test monitoring

d)

Cardiac Catheterization

40.

A patient will undergo a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following pre procedure intervention is needed?

a)

Ensure that informed consent has been obtained by the MD.

b)

Foods are allowed because these does not interfere with the procedure

c)

Client’s height and weight need not to be documented

d)

Inform the patient that a general anesthesia will be administered

41.

The WHO reveals that the NUMBER ONE cause of death from chronic diseases worldwide, using the 2020 estimate, is _______.

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Ischemic Heart Disease

d)

Pneumonia

42.

In the Philippines, which is the TOP Killer according to the Department of Health (2009 data)?

a)

Asthma

b)

Cancer

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cardiovascular Diseases

43.

Which of the following dovetails the characteristics of hypoxemia?

a)

Low oxygen in the tissues.

b)

Low oxygen in the blood.

c)

Hardening of the arteries

d)

Buildup of fats, cholesterol in the artery walls

44.

The most important action of Digitalis derivatives on the heart of a client with CHF is to:

a)

Re-establish normal heart rhythm

b)

Increase ventricular contractility.

c)

Decrease AV node refractory period

45.

What ECG changes would the nurse anticipate a client who is in chronic renal failure to demonstrate on assessment, given a potassium level of 6.5mEq/L?

a)

Tall T waves.

b)

Flattened T waves

c)

U-wave.

d)

ST-segment elevation

46.

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is ordered by the physician for the patient who had myocardial infarction. The nurse is aware that she should frequently check for which of the following as a side effect of this drug?

a)

Headache

b)

Easy fatigue

c)

Gum bleeding

d)

Myalgia on exertion

47.

The nurse must observe for signs of hyperkalemia when administering:

a)

Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

b)

Naloxone (Narcan)

c)

Amiloride (Midamor)

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)

48.

48. The post anesthesia unit nurse reports the client receives intrathecal morphine intraoperatively for postoperative pain control. Because the client has received this medication, the client’s initial 24-hour postoperative care should include:

a)

Frequent respiratory rate and sedation monitoring

b)

Hourly blood glucose checks

c)

Continuous cardiac telemetry

d)

Strict fluid intake and output measurement

49.

A patient has been taking Telmisartan (Micardis). When the patient asks for the action of this drug, the nurse is correct if she says that:

a)

It inhibits calcium influx to cells

b)

It blocks angiotensin receptors

c)

It prevents conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

d)

It produces direct peripheral vasodilation

50.

The nurse should question an order of Metoprolol (Lopressor) when it prescribed for a client with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Angina pectoris

c)

Sinus bradycardia

d)

Myocardial infarction

51.

When cardiovascular disease is concern, reduction of saturated fats in the diet may be desired and substitutes of polyunsaturated fat may be recommended. When teaching about this diet, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid:

a)

Fish

b)

Corn oil

c)

Salmon

d)

Margarine

52.

Part of a nurse’s responsibility is to provide information to the patient before discharge. Which of the following should not be omitted in the discharge instructions of the nurse?

a)

Increase oral fluid intake with depletion of roughage in the diet.

b)

Strict compliance with the treatment regimen should be observed.

c)

Narcotic should be stored in a capped dark glass container and should be carried by the patient whenever possible. The drug can be used as a prophylaxis for angina attacks.

d)

Encourage strenuous exercises daily and finish all activities in the morning to have full rest in the afternoon.

53.

The nurse is teaching a client how to take nitroglycerin to treat angina pectoris. The client verbalizes an understanding of the need to take up three sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets at 5-minute intervals, if necessary, and to notify the physician immediately if chest pain doesn’t subside within 15 minutes. The nurse knows that nitroglycerin may cause:

a)

Nausea, vomiting, depression, fatigue, and impotence

b)

Sedation, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and respiratory depression.

c)

Headache, hypotension, dizziness and flushing

d)

Flushing, dizziness, headache, and pedal edema.

54.

The nurse in the coronary unit should observe for one of the more common complications of myocardial infarction, which is:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Anaphylactic shock

c)

Cardiac dysrhythmia

d)

Hepatic enlargement

55.

Monitoring vital signs during and after MI attack is very important task for the nurse to do in order to detect the most common cause of death in MI patients which is dysrhythmia. The nurse is knowledgeable about this information if she checks for the presence of:

a)

Paradoxical chest movement

b)

Cheyne- Stokes respiration

c)

Premature ventricular contractions

d)

Charcot’s triad-

56.

Three days after an eventful recovery from an acute myocardial infarction a client is to be moved out of the cardiac unit. The most important nursing function should be to:

a)

Provide a sense of security for the client

b)

Inform the family of the anticipated move

c)

Select a room adjacent to the cardiac unit

d)

Give the prescribed sedative before the move

57.

After being medicated for anxiety, a client who has heart failure says to the nurse, “I guess you are too busy to stay with me.” The nurse’s best response in this circumstance would be:

a)

I have to see other clients.

b)

The medication will help you rest soon.

c)

You will feel better; I will adjust your oxygen mask.

d)

I have to go now

58.

Despite initiation of therapy for endocarditis, a nursing client continues to be apprehensive and restless. Nursing action should include:

a)

Teaching all the importance of rest

b)

Administering antibiotics as ordered

c)

Encouraging the expression of concerns

d)

Explaining that everything will be all right

59.

After being scheduled for a stress test, a client is obviously anxious. The most effective way for the nurse to help the client at this point would be to:

a)

Administer a prescribed analgesic

b)

Encourage the client to express feelings

c)

Explain the procedure and postoperative course

d)

Reassure the client that many people cope with this problem

60.

A client with hemiplegia is staring blankly at the wall and complains of feeling like half a person. Initially, nursing care for this client should be directed at:

a)

Distracting the client from self pity

b)

Including the client in all decisions

c)

Helping the client explore personal feelings

d)

Preventing the client from developing contractures

61.

The physician orders 3 units of whole blood for a client in hypovolemic shock after gastrointestinal hemorrhage. When administering blood, the nurse first verifies the type and cross-match to prevent administering a mismatched blood that can lead to:

a)

Febrile, non-hemolytic complication

b)

Anaphylactic reaction

c)

Hemolytic reaction

d)

Afebrile reaction

62.

The nurse is planning care for a client after a tracheostomy. One of the client’s goals is to overcome verbal communication impairment. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Make an effort to read the client’s lips to foster communication.

b)

Encourage the client’s communication attempts by allowing him time to select or write words

c)

Answer questions for the client to reduce his frustration

d)

Avoid using a tracheostomy plug because it blocks the airway.

63.

Before attempting to obtain a peripheral blood culture, the nurse uses povidone-iodine (Betadine) on the skin to:

a)

Make the skin supple

b)

Avoid drying the skin with alcohol

c)

Eliminate surface bacteria that would contaminate the culture

d)

Provide a cooling agent to diminish the feeling from the puncture wound

64.

In order to produce ATP, which primary elements are needed?

a)

Glucose and oxygen.

b)

Glucose and carbon dioxide.

c)

Glucose and nitrogen.

d)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide.

65.

In the case of anaerobic metabolism, the end product is:

a)

Carbonic acid.

b)

Lactic acid.

c)

Nitric acid.

d)

Muriatic acid.

66.

66. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the: ________

a)

pericardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

d)

epicardium

67.

A. Innermost layer of the heart. – endocardium B. Protective covering of the lungs. – pleura C. Thin and fibrous sac that encases the heart D. Muscular layer of the heart - myocardium

a)

Innermost layer of the heart. – endocardium

b)

Protective covering of the lungs. – pleura

c)

Thin and fibrous sac that encases the heart

d)

Muscular layer of the heart - myocardium

68.

All of the following are the risk factors for the development of pericarditis except:

a)

Cancer metastasis

b)

Rheumatic endocarditis

c)

Advancing age

d)

Opening of the pericardium during cardiac surgery

69.

The most prominent symptom of pericarditis is:

a)

Generalized pruritus

b)

Chest pain that may be felt also in the neck

c)

Presence of murmur – for valvular disorders

d)

Inability to breathe when in sitting position – sitting eases breathing

70.

The nurse knows that the best position to decrease the chest pain associated with pericarditis is:

a)

Supine

b)

Flat on abdomen

c)

Standing with feet apart

d)

Sitting or leaning forward

71.

One of the most dreaded complications of pericarditis is:

a)

Pleural effusion –

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Esophageal varices –

d)

Hypovolemic shock

72.

A client who is obtunded has a blood pressure of 80/35 after a blood transfusion. In an effort to support renal perfusion, the nurse administers dopamine (Intropin) at 2 micrograms/kg/min as ordered. The most relevant outcome indicating effectiveness of the medication for this client is:

a)

A. A decrease in blood pressure

b)

B. An increase in urinary output

c)

C. A decrease in core temperature

d)

D. An increase in level of consciousness

73.

A client with a partial occlusion of the left common carotid artery is to be discharged while still receiving Coumadin. When discussing the adverse effect of Coumadin, the nurse should tell the client to consult the physician if:

a)

A. Blood appears in the urine

b)

B. Swelling of the ankles increases

c)

C. The ability of the concentrate diminishes

74.

The nurse should be aware that the medication most frequently used to relieve anxiety and apprehension in the client with pulmonary edema is:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Digitalis

c)

Diuretic

d)

Morphine sulfate

75.

Lidocaine is considered to be an emergency drug because it can terminate arrhythmias. But careful monitoring of its most common side effect is still essential because it can cause:

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Neurotoxicity

d)

Ototoxicity

76.

While the pacemaker catheter is being inserted, the client heart rate drops to 38. The drug that nurse should expect the physician to orders is:

a)

Dopamine

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Atropine

d)

Lidocaine