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Sports Med 3-4 Final review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cranial Nerve I is also known as which nerve, and what is its primary function?

a)

Olfactory nerve; responsible for sense of smell

b)

Optic nerve; responsible for vision

c)

Trigeminal nerve; responsible for facial sensation

d)

Facial nerve; responsible for facial expressions

2.

How many cranial nerves are found in the human body?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

14

d)

8

3.

Which spinal cord injury level is considered the most severe and why?

a)

Cervical level, because it can result in quadriplegia and affect breathing.

b)

Thoracic level, because it only affects the lower limbs.

c)

Lumbar level, because it causes mild sensory loss.

d)

Sacral level, because it rarely affects motor function.

4.

The term that best describes paralysis from the neck down is:

a)

Hemiplegia

b)

Quadriplegia

c)

Paraplegia

d)

Monoplegia

5.

The medical term that refers to pink eye is:

a)

Conjunctivitis

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Cataract

d)

Astigmatism

6.

An injury that involves bleeding from the nose is called:

a)

Nosebleed

b)

Sprain

c)

Fracture

d)

Bruise

7.

What injury occurs when water becomes trapped in the ear canal, allowing bacteria to grow?

a)

Swimmer's ear

b)

Earwax impaction

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Eardrum rupture

8.

Battle’s sign and raccoon eyes are classic signs of what type of skull injury?

a)

Basilar skull fracture

b)

Depressed skull fracture

c)

Linear skull fracture

d)

Comminuted skull fracture

9.

Second impact syndrome is dangerous because:

a)

It can cause rapid and severe brain swelling after a second concussion.

b)

It only affects the muscles and not the brain.

c)

It is a mild condition with no serious consequences.

d)

It is a type of bone fracture.

10.

A soccer player is seeing double after being struck in the head. What is this condition called?

a)

Diplopia

b)

Concussion

c)

Amnesia

d)

Vertigo

11.

The correct immediate care for an avulsed (knocked-out) tooth is:

a)

Place the tooth in milk and seek dental care immediately.

b)

Rinse the tooth with hot water and scrub it clean.

c)

Leave the tooth dry and wait for a dentist.

d)

Wrap the tooth in tissue and keep it in your pocket.

12.

What injury is commonly seen in wrestlers due to repeated trauma to the ear?

a)

Cauliflower ear

b)

Boxer's fracture

c)

Shin splints

d)

Tennis elbow

13.

An injury that involves blood in the anterior chamber of the eye is known as:

a)

Hyphema

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Glaucoma

14.

A facial injury that involves a scratch to the cornea is called:

a)

Corneal abrasion

b)

Orbital fracture

c)

Retinal detachment

d)

Nasal fracture

15.

The term that describes swelling in injured tissue is:

a)

Inflammation

b)

Bruising

c)

Laceration

d)

Abrasion

16.

List the regions of the vertebral column from superior to inferior.

a)

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

b)

Thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

c)

Lumbar, cervical, thoracic, sacral, coccygeal

d)

Sacral, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, coccygeal

17.

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

9

d)

12

18.

The spinal condition that involves an excessive outward curve of the thoracic spine is known as:

a)

Scoliosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Spina bifida

19.

The spinal condition that involves a lateral curvature of the spine is known as:

a)

Scoliosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Spina bifida

20.

The spinal condition that involves an excessive inward curve of the lumbar spine is known as:

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Scoliosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Spina bifida

21.

The shoulder (glenohumeral) joint is which type of joint?

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Ball and socket joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Saddle joint

22.

Select the two joints in the body that contain a labrum.

a)

Shoulder and hip joints

b)

Knee and elbow joints

c)

Ankle and wrist joints

d)

Spine and jaw joints

23.

What injury commonly presents with a visible deformity and the athlete holding their arm like a sling?

a)

Shoulder dislocation

b)

Wrist sprain

c)

Finger fracture

d)

Elbow contusion

24.

The most common mechanism of injury for a clavicle fracture is:

a)

Direct blow to the clavicle

b)

Fall onto an outstretched hand

c)

Twisting injury of the arm

d)

Overuse from repetitive motion

25.

The motion that occurs when the arm moves forward and upward at the shoulder is called:

a)

Abduction

b)

Flexion

c)

Extension

d)

Rotation

26.

The motion that occurs when the arm moves backward behind the body is called:

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Abduction

d)

Adduction

27.

The special test used to assess the supraspinatus muscle is:

a)

Neer test

b)

Drop arm test

c)

Empty can test

d)

Hawkins-Kennedy test

28.

A positive Empty Can test indicates injury to what structure?

a)

Supraspinatus muscle/tendon

b)

Infraspinatus muscle/tendon

c)

Subscapularis muscle/tendon

d)

Deltoid muscle/tendon

29.

The special test used to assess a labral tear in the shoulder is:

a)

O'Brien's test

b)

Neer's test

c)

Hawkins-Kennedy test

d)

Apprehension test

30.

The injury that produces a “Popeye sign” in the upper arm is:

a)

Biceps tendon rupture

b)

Rotator cuff tear

c)

Triceps strain

d)

Deltoid contusion

31.

The muscle group that flexes the elbow is:

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Triceps brachii

c)

Deltoid

d)

Quadriceps

32.

The muscle group that extends the elbow is:

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Triceps brachii

c)

Deltoid

d)

Flexor carpi radialis

33.

The ligament located on the medial side of the elbow is:

a)

Radial collateral ligament

b)

Ulnar collateral ligament

c)

Annular ligament

d)

Lateral collateral ligament

34.

The special test used to assess the UCL of the elbow is:

a)

Valgus Stress Test

b)

Tinel's Sign

c)

Phalen's Test

d)

McMurray Test

35.

What special test is used to assess the RCL of the elbow?

a)

Varus stress test

b)

Valgus stress test

c)

Cozen's test

d)

Tinel's sign

36.

What injury results from irritation of the ulnar nerve at the elbow (funny bone)?

a)

Cubital tunnel syndrome

b)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

c)

Tennis elbow

d)

De Quervain's tenosynovitis

37.

The bone commonly fractured in a boxer’s fracture is:

a)

Radius

b)

Metacarpal

c)

Ulna

d)

Scaphoid

38.

An injury that involves a fracture of the distal radius is known as:

a)

Colles' fracture

b)

Smith's fracture

c)

Scaphoid fracture

d)

Monteggia fracture

39.

The special test used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome is:

a)

Phalen's test

b)

Lachman test

c)

McMurray test

d)

Apley test

40.

Symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome include:

a)

Numbness and tingling in the hand

b)

Swelling of the elbow

c)

Pain in the knee

d)

Blurred vision

41.

The bones that make up the wrist are:

a)

Carpal bones

b)

Tarsal bones

c)

Metacarpal bones

d)

Phalanges

42.

The bones that make up the palm of the hand are called:

a)

Phalanges

b)

Metacarpals

c)

Carpals

d)

Tarsals

43.

The bones that make up the fingers are called:

a)

Phalanges

b)

Metacarpals

c)

Carpals

d)

Tarsals

44.

The term that describes a chronic overuse injury of the lateral elbow is:

a)

Tennis elbow

b)

Golfer's elbow

c)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

d)

Rotator cuff tendinitis

45.

The hip is what type of joint?

a)

Ball and socket joint

b)

Hinge joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Saddle joint

46.

The muscle group responsible for knee extension is:

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Gluteus maximus

47.

The muscle group responsible for knee flexion is:

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Gluteus maximus

48.

How many muscles make up the hamstrings?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

49.

Which muscle is NOT part of the quadriceps group?

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Vastus lateralis

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Vastus medialis

50.

The motion that brings the thigh toward the chest is called:

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Abduction

d)

Rotation

51.

The motion that moves the leg away from the midline is called:

a)

Abduction

b)

Adduction

c)

Flexion

d)

Extension

52.

An injury that results from a non-contact twisting mechanism of the knee is:

a)

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear

b)

Patellar fracture

c)

Meniscal cyst

d)

Quadriceps strain

53.

Special tests used to diagnose an ACL injury include:

a)

Lachman test

b)

McMurray test

c)

Thompson test

d)

Apley compression test

54.

The ACL prevents which type of motion?

a)

Anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur

b)

Medial rotation of the femur

c)

Lateral translation of the tibia

d)

Posterior translation of the femur

55.

What special test is used to diagnose an MCL injury?

a)

Valgus stress test

b)

Lachman test

c)

McMurray test

d)

Anterior drawer test

56.

An injury that presents with pain and clicking along the knee joint line is most likely:

a)

Meniscal tear

b)

Patellar tendinitis

c)

Anterior cruciate ligament sprain

d)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

57.

The difference between a sprain and a strain is:

a)

A sprain affects ligaments, while a strain affects muscles or tendons.

b)

A sprain affects muscles, while a strain affects bones.

c)

A sprain and a strain are the same injury.

d)

A sprain affects tendons, while a strain affects ligaments.

58.

The tissue that connects bone to bone is called:

a)

Ligament

b)

Tendon

c)

Cartilage

d)

Muscle

59.

What injury is considered chronic rather than acute?

a)

Sprain

b)

Fracture

c)

Tendinitis

d)

Dislocation

60.

The scenario most likely to result in a coccyx fracture is:

a)

Falling directly onto the buttocks

b)

Twisting the ankle while running

c)

Bumping the elbow against a wall

d)

Spraining the wrist during a fall