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ACN Quiz Final Term

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Acute renal failure is best defined as:

a)

Gradual loss of kidney function

b)

Sudden decline in renal function

c)

Congenital kidney disorder

d)

Chronic uremia

e)

Renal infection

2.

Oliguria in acute renal failure refers to urine output less than:

a)

100 mL/day

b)

200 mL/day

c)

300 mL/day

d)

500 mL/day

e)

1000 mL/day

3.

Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include:

a)

Glomerulonephritis

b)

Urinary obstruction

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Renal stones

e)

Polycystic kidney disease

4.

Postrenal acute renal failure is caused by:

a)

Reduced renal blood flow

b)

Damage to renal tissue

c)

Obstruction of urine flow

d)

Autoimmune disease

e)

Drug toxicity

5.

The oliguric phase of ARF is characterized by:

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Stable creatinine

c)

Electrolyte retention

d)

Recovery of renal function

e)

Normal BUN

6.

Hyperkalemia is dangerous in ARF because it can cause:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Seizures

c)

Arrhythmias

d)

Anemia

e)

Infection

7.

Which diagnostic test estimates renal size and obstruction?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

CT scan

c)

Renal ultrasound

d)

IVU

e)

Cystoscopy

8.

Kayexalate is used to treat:

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

e)

Fluid overload

9.

Chronic renal failure eventually leads to:

a)

Recovery

b)

Uremia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Hypotension

e)

Polyuria

10.

The most common cause of CRF is:

a)

Infection

b)

Trauma

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Cancer

e)

Kidney stones

11.

Decreased erythropoietin causes:

(a)  

12.

Hyperphosphatemia in CRF results in:

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Acidosis

e)

Edema

13.

Dialysis is indicated when:

a)

Mild symptoms exist

b)

Conservative therapy fails

c)

BP is normal

d)

Urine output improves

e)

Creatinine decreases

14.

Nephrolithiasis refers to:

a)

Kidney infection

b)

Renal failure

c)

Renal stones

d)

Bladder cancer

e)

Glomerular disease

15.

Most renal stones are composed of:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Struvite

c)

Cystine

d)

Calcium oxalate

e)

Phosphate

16.

Severe colicky pain in stones is due to:

a)

Infection

b)

Inflammation

c)

Ureteral obstruction

17.

CT scan is preferred in stone diagnosis because it:

a)

Is inexpensive

b)

Shows radiolucent stones

c)

Requires contrast

d)

Is invasive

e)

Is slow

18.

First-line management for stones <5 mm is:

a)

Surgery

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Hydration and analgesia

d)

Dialysis

e)

Chemotherapy

19.

Fluid restriction in ARF is mainly during:

a)

Recovery phase

b)

Diuretic phase

c)

Oliguric phase

d)

Chronic phase

e)

Early onset

20.

A priority nursing diagnosis in CRF is:

a)

Anxiety

b)

Risk for infection

c)

Imbalanced nutrition

d)

Fluid volume excess

e)

All of the above

21.

Stroke is defined as:

4 lines
22.

Persistent neurologic deficit due to interrupted blood flow is called:

a)

Brain infection

b)

Brain infection

c)

Persistent neurologic deficit due to interrupted blood flow

d)

Head injury

e)

Brain tumor

23.

The most common type of stroke is:

a)

Hemorrhagic

b)

Ischemic

c)

Embolic

d)

Lacunar

e)

Traumatic

24.

A thrombotic stroke usually develops:

a)

Suddenly

b)

After trauma

c)

Gradually

d)

During sleep only

e)

After infection

25.

Embolic strokes are commonly associated with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Diabetes

d)

Smoking

e)

Hyperlipidemia

26.

Hemorrhagic stroke is often caused by:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Infection

c)

Hypertension

d)

Dehydration

e)

Hypoglycemia

27.

CT scan is essential in stroke to:

a)

Measure BP

b)

Differentiate stroke type

c)

Assess pain

28.

Thrombolytic therapy must be given within:

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

6 hours

e)

12 hours

29.

A classic sign of stroke is:

a)

Chest pain

b)

Hemiplegia

c)

Fever

d)

Polyuria

e)

Bradycardia

30.

Increased ICP may cause:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Headache and vomiting

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Polyphagia

e)

Fever

31.

Cluster headache is more common in:

a)

Women

b)

Children

c)

Elderly

d)

Men

e)

Diabetics

32.

Migraine headache is related to:

a)

Dopamine

b)

Histamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

33.

Tension headache is usually described as:

a)

Throbbing

b)

Burning

c)

Band-like

d)

Sharp

e)

Pulsating

34.

Seizures occur due to:

a)

Infection

b)

Abnormal electrical discharge

c)

Hypotension

d)

Fever only

e)

Trauma only

35.

Generalized seizures involve:

a)

One hemisphere

b)

No loss of consciousness

c)

Both hemispheres

d)

Sensory only

e)

Autonomic only

36.

15. Complex partial seizures:

a)

Have no awareness loss

b)

Always generalized

c)

Impair consciousness

d)

Occur only in children

e)

Are psychogenic

37.

A priority nursing action during seizure is:

a)

Restraining patient

b)

Placing object in mouth

c)

Maintaining airway

d)

Giving fluids

e)

Measuring BP

38.

Postictal phase refers to:

a)

Before seizure

b)

During seizure

c)

After seizure

d)

Chronic phase

e)

Prodrome

39.

NIH Stroke Scale is used to:

a)

Diagnose cancer

b)

Assess stroke severity

c)

Measure pain

d)

Detect infection

e)

Assess nutrition

40.

Oxygen therapy in stroke aims to:

a)

Reduce BP

b)

Improve cerebral oxygenation

c)

Reduce fever

d)

Prevent infection

e)

Increase glucose

41.

Early rehabilitation in stroke improves:

a)

Mortality only

b)

Independence

c)

Vision

d)

Hearing

e)

Renal function

42.

Osteoporosis is characterized by:

a)

Increased bone mass

b)

Reduced bone density

c)

Bone infection

d)

Joint inflammation

43.

Osteoporosis is characterized by:

a)

Increased bone formation

b)

Reduced bone mass

c)

Increased bone density

d)

Hypercalcemia

e)

Muscle wasting

44.

The most common fracture in osteoporosis is:

a)

Skull

b)

Pelvis

c)

Vertebral compression

d)

Clavicle

e)

Tibia

45.

Peak bone mass is achieved in:

a)

Childhood

b)

Adolescence

c)

Early adulthood

d)

Middle age

e)

Old age

46.

Estrogen deficiency contributes to:

a)

Increased bone formation

b)

Reduced resorption

c)

Bone loss

d)

Hypercalcemia

e)

Weight gain

47.

Best diagnostic test for osteoporosis:

a)

X-ray

b)

MRI

c)

CT scan

d)

DEXA scan

e)

Bone biopsy

48.

Weight-bearing exercise helps by:

a)

Reducing calcium

b)

Increasing bone density

c)

Causing fractures

d)

Reducing vitamin D

e)

Increasing pain

49.

Osteoarthritis primarily affects:

a)

Synovium

b)

Cartilage

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Ligaments

e)

Muscles

50.

Morning stiffness in osteoarthritis lasts:

a)

>1 hour

b)

<30 minutes

c)

All day

d)

Only at night

e)

After exercise

51.

Rheumatoid arthritis is:

a)

Degenerative

b)

Infectious

c)

Inflammatory autoimmune

d)

Metabolic

e)

Traumatic

52.

RA commonly affects:

a)

DIP joints

b)

Weight-bearing joints only

c)

Small joints symmetrically

d)

Spine only

e)

One joint

53.

Rheumatoid nodules are seen in:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Gout

c)

RA

d)

Osteoporosis

e)

Osteomalacia

54.

DMARDs are used in RA to:

4 lines
55.

Osteomalacia is due to deficiency of:

a)

Calcium only

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Iron

d)

Phosphate only

e)

Magnesium

56.

A waddling gait suggests:

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

RA

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

OA

e)

Fracture

57.

NSAIDs in OA are used mainly for:

a)

Cure

b)

Bone healing

c)

Pain relief

d)

Muscle growth

e)

Calcium absorption

58.

Heat therapy in OA helps by:

a)

Increasing swelling

b)

Relieving stiffness

c)

Reducing bone mass

d)

Causing inflammation

e)

Weakening joints

59.

A risk factor for osteoporosis is:

a)

Male gender

b)

Smoking

c)

High BMI

60.

Calcitonin 作用 is to:

a)

Increase resorption

b)

Inhibit bone breakdown

c)

Increase PTH

d)

Reduce calcium

e)

Increase phosphate

61.

A priority nursing diagnosis in osteoporosis is:

a)

Fatigue

b)

Risk for injury

c)

Anxiety

d)

Infection

e)

Imbalanced nutrition

62.

RA affects women more because of:

a)

Trauma

b)

Infection

c)

Hormonal and immune factors

d)

Nutrition

e)

Lifestyle

63.

Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of:

a)

Fat metabolism

b)

Protein metabolism

c)

Carbohydrate metabolism

d)

Mineral balance

e)

Hormone secretion only

64.

Type 1 diabetes is caused by:

4 lines
65.

Type 2 diabetes is most commonly associated with:

a)

Autoimmune disease

b)

Obesity

c)

Infection

d)

Trauma

e)

Surgery

66.

Classic symptoms of diabetes include:

a)

Fever and rash

b)

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

c)

Edema and pain

d)

Cough and dyspnea

e)

Weight gain only

67.

Normal fasting blood glucose is:

a)

<70 mg/dL

b)

70–99 mg/dL

c)

100–125 mg/dL

d)

>126 mg/dL

e)

>200 mg/dL

68.

Prediabetes fasting glucose range is:

a)

80–90 mg/dL

b)

90–100 mg/dL

c)

100–125 mg/dL

d)

126–150 mg/dL

e)

>150 mg/dL

69.

HbA1c reflects glucose control over:

a)

1 week

b)

1 month

c)

2–3 months

70.

Gestational diabetes occurs during:

a)

Childhood

b)

Adolescence

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Menopause

e)

Old age

71.

Women with GDM are at risk of developing:

a)

Type 1 DM

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Cancer

d)

Hypertension only

e)

Thyroid disease

72.

PTH regulates:

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Glucose

e)

Iron

73.

Hyperparathyroidism leads to:

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Hyponatremia

74.

Calcitonin acts to:

a)

Increase calcium

b)

Decrease bone resorption

c)

Increase PTH

d)

Raise phosphate

75.

Hypothyroidism shows:

a)

Low TSH, high T4

b)

High TSH, low T4

c)

High TSH, high T4

d)

Normal TSH

e)

Low T3 only

76.

Common symptom of hypothyroidism:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Heat intolerance

c)

Fatigue

d)

Tremors

e)

Diarrhea

77.

Hyperthyroidism causes:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Weight gain

c)

Heat intolerance

d)

Constipation

e)

Dry skin

78.

OGTT is used to assess:

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Kidney function

c)

Thyroid function

d)

Calcium level

e)

Infection

79.

ADA diagnostic HbA1c for diabetes is:

a)

≥5.0%

b)

≥5.5%

c)

≥6.0%

d)

≥6.5%

e)

≥7.0%

80.

Lifestyle modification in prediabetes includes:

a)

Insulin only

b)

Diet and exercise

c)

Surgery

d)

Dialysis

e)

Radiation

81.

Thyroid hormones affect:

a)

Metabolism

b)

Vision

c)

Hearing

d)

Renal filtration

e)

Hemoglobin

82.

A priority nursing role in diabetes is:

a)

Medication only

b)

Patient education

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Surgery

e)

Research

83.

Pain is defined as:

a)

Physical sensation only

b)

Emotional distress

c)

Subjective unpleasant experience

d)

Objective symptom

e)

Neurologic reflex

84.

The best judge of pain is:

a)

Nurse

b)

Doctor

c)

Family

d)

Patient

85.

Pain threshold refers to:

a)

Pain tolerance

b)

Pain duration

c)

Minimum stimulus to feel pain

d)

Emotional response

e)

Chronic pain

86.

Pain tolerance describes:

a)

Pain onset

b)

Pain quality

c)

Endurance of pain

d)

Pain intensity

e)

Pain relief

87.

Acute pain usually lasts:

a)

>6 months

b)

Lifelong

c)

<6 months

d)

Intermittent

e)

Chronic

88.

Chronic pain lasts:

a)

Days

b)

Weeks

c)

Months

d)

≥6 months

e)

Hours

89.

Nociceptive pain originates from:

a)

CNS damage

b)

Psychological causes

c)

Tissue injury

d)

Phantom limb

e)

Depression

90.

Neuropathic pain is caused by:

a)

Inflammation

b)

Nerve damage

c)

Muscle spasm

d)

Ischemia

e)

Infection

91.

The gate control theory explains:

a)

Pain transmission

b)

Pain tolerance

c)

Pain psychology

d)

Pain assessment

e)

Pain myths

92.

Pain rating scale commonly uses:

a)

1–5

b)

1–7

c)

0–10

d)

0–5

e)

1–100

93.

Opioids are used for:

a)

Mild pain

b)

Moderate to severe pain

c)

Fever

d)

Infection

e)

Anxiety

94.

Morphine is an example of:

a)

NSAID

b)

Adjuvant

c)

Opioid

d)

Antidepressant

e)

Steroid

95.

Non-opioids include:

(a)  

96.

Adjuvant analgesics are:

a)

Primary pain drugs

b)

Surgical agents

c)

Drugs with other primary uses

d)

Placebos

e)

Antibiotics

97.

TENS works by:

a)

Blocking nerve impulses

b)

Increasing inflammation

c)

Sedation

d)

Muscle relaxation only

e)

Increasing circulation

98.

PCA allows:

a)

Nurse-controlled dosing

b)

Family dosing

c)

Patient-controlled analgesia

d)

Fixed dosing

e)

No monitoring

99.

Chronic pain management focuses on:

a)

Cure only

b)

Comfort and function

c)

Surgery only

d)

Sedation

e)

Isolation

100.

A pain myth is:

a)

Pain is subjective

b)

Pain can be treated

c)

Nurses know pain best

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