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PCT Review 3

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute is described as:

a)

Apnea

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Hyperventilation

d)

Tachypnea

2.

Which item is considered a prosthetic device?

a)

Walker

b)

Back brace

c)

Dentures

d)

Shoe insert

3.

Passive range-of-motion means:

a)

Patient moves independently

b)

PCT moves the joint for the patient

c)

Patient lifts weights

d)

Patient stretches alone

4.

Which action breaks sterile technique?

a)

Wearing sterile gloves

b)

Using sterile supplies

c)

Cleaning the site properly

d)

Placing sterile forceps outside the sterile field

5.

Which is a common sign of shock?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Clear alertness

c)

Rapid, shallow breathing

d)

Increased appetite

6.

A non–weight-bearing patient needs to urinate. What should the PCT provide?

a)

Urinal only

b)

Bedpan with assistance

c)

Bathroom assistance

d)

Catheter

7.

Which patient requires protective isolation?

a)

Routine check-up patient

b)

Minor injury patient

c)

Patient receiving chemotherapy

d)

Chronic pain patient

8.

Which procedure requires sterile technique?

a)

Bed making

b)

Physical therapy

c)

Urinary catheter insertion

d)

Taking vital signs

9.

Which blood pressure should be reported to the nurse?

a)

121/83 mmHg

b)

136/87 mmHg

c)

140/90 mmHg

d)

150/96 mmHg

10.

When using a mechanical lift, which action is correct?

a)

Lift patient alone

b)

Skip safety checks

c)

Lock and widen the lift base

d)

Rush the transfer

11.

Tuberculosis requires which type of precautions?

a)

Standard

b)

Contact

c)

Droplet

d)

Airborne

12.

If there is a chemical spill with fumes, what should be done first?

a)

Clean it up

b)

Ignore it

c)

Move the patient to safety

d)

Wait for it to clear

13.

Which response protects patient confidentiality?

a)

Sharing limited information

b)

Referring questions to family

c)

Explaining test results

d)

Refusing to discuss patient information

14.

In fire safety, what does the “P” in PASS stand for?

a)

Point

b)

Prepare

c)

Pull

d)

Push

15.

In PASS, the two “S” steps stand for:

a)

Squirt and Sweep

b)

Sweep and Stare

c)

Squeeze and Sweep

d)

Side and Sweep

16.

What does RACE stand for?

a)

Rescue, Alarm, Confront, Evacuate

b)

Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish

c)

Run, Alert, Control, Evacuate

d)

React, Alarm, Contain, Exit

17.

Which is an internal disaster?

a)

Tornado

b)

Hurricane

c)

Fire

d)

Car accident

18.

When should hand hygiene be performed?

a)

Once per shift

b)

Before patient contact

c)

Only after restroom use

d)

At the end of the day

19.

PPE should be:

a)

Reused

b)

Taken home

c)

Disinfected

d)

Removed before leaving the room

20.

During CPR, chest compressions should be how deep for an adult?

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

3 inches

d)

4 inches

21.

A choking victim needs help if they:

a)

Can cough

b)

Can breathe

c)

Cannot speak

d)

Are talking

22.

Before assisting a choking person, ask:

a)

What happened?

b)

Do you want water?

c)

How did this happen?

d)

Are you choking?

23.

Standard Precautions are used:

a)

Only during outbreaks

b)

Only for infected patients

c)

For all patients

d)

Only in hospitals

24.

Which condition requires PPE?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Arthritis

d)

Tuberculosis

25.

Medically aseptic means:

a)

Completely sterile

b)

Free of all organisms

c)

Disinfected but not sterile

d)

Surgical level sterile

26.

Which agency sets safety standards for healthcare workers?

a)

CDC

b)

OSHA

c)

NIOSH

d)

AMA

27.

A common complaint with a new NG tube is:

a)

Headache

b)

Muscle pain

c)

Nasal and throat discomfort

d)

Chest tightness

28.

Gloves should be worn when:

a)

Making beds

b)

Feeding patients

c)

Risk of contact with body fluids

d)

Passing meal trays

29.

Fan-folding linens is used when:

a)

Making an empty bed

b)

Preparing an open bed

c)

Changing occupied bed linens

d)

Discharging a patient