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Unit 3 Test Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which nutrient class is not considered a macronutrient?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Vitamins

2.

How many Calories per gram do carbohydrates provide?

a)

9 Cal per gram

b)

4 Cal per gram

c)

2 Cal per gram

d)

7 Cal per gram

3.

How many Calories per gram do proteins provide?

a)

7 Cal per gram

b)

9 Cal per gram

c)

2 Cal per gram

d)

4 Cal per gram

4.

Why do lipids yield more energy per gram than carbohydrates?

a)

They possess more carbon–hydrogen bonds

b)

They are digested more quickly by enzymes

c)

They are stored mainly as glycogen in cells

d)

They contain more oxygen atoms overall

5.

Which factor does not influence an individual’s macronutrient needs?

a)

Age over the lifespan

b)

Daily activity level

c)

Blood type category

d)

Biological sex traits

6.

A nutrition label shows 10 g fat, 5 g protein, and 20 g carbohydrate. Which is the best estimate of total Calories?

a)

205 Calories total

b)

245 Calories total

c)

185 Calories total

d)

150 Calories total

7.

Two snacks both provide 200 Calories. Snack A is mostly fat; Snack B is mostly carbohydrate. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

Both must weigh exactly the same

b)

Snack B must weigh less overall

c)

Snack A must weigh less overall

d)

Weight cannot relate to macronutrient

8.

If a dietitian reduces lipid intake by 5 g per day, about how many fewer Calories are consumed?

a)

45 fewer Calories daily

b)

65 fewer Calories daily

c)

20 fewer Calories daily

d)

35 fewer Calories daily

9.

A student claims proteins supply 9 Cal per gram because they are complex. What corrects this misconception?

a)

Proteins supply 2 Cal per gram

b)

Proteins supply 4 Cal per gram

c)

Proteins supply 7 Cal per gram

d)

Proteins supply 9 Cal per gram

10.

Which reasoning best explains why carbohydrate and protein provide equal energy per gram?

a)

They share similar oxidation states overall

b)

They digest at exactly equal rates

c)

They contain identical molecular masses

d)

They are stored as glycogen identically

11.

Low energy availability (LEA) occurs when:

a)

The body has insufficient energy for normal physiological functions

b)

The athlete consumes excess electrolytes

c)

The athlete eats too many carbohydrates

d)

Protein intake is higher than fat intake

12.

What is the relationship between LEA and RED-S?

a)

They are unrelated

b)

RED-S causes LEA

c)

LEA is the long-term result of RED-S

d)

RED-S is a long-term consequence of LEA

13.

Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a)

Glucose

b)

Starch

c)

Sucrose

d)

Maltose

14.

A food with a high glycemic index (GI):

a)

Has no effect on glycogen levels

b)

Is digested slowly and releases energy over time

c)

Is typically high in fiber

d)

Causes a rapid rise in blood glucose

15.

Which of the following is an example of a low GI food?

a)

Instant rice

b)

Glucose drink

c)

White bread

d)

Rolled oats

16.

What is the purpose of carbohydrate loading?

a)

To increase fat oxidation

b)

To reduce blood sugar

c)

To build muscle tissue

d)

To maximize glycogen storage before endurance events

17.

What type of fat contains no double bonds between carbon atoms?

a)

Saturated

b)

Polyunsaturated

c)

Trans

d)

Monounsaturated

18.

Essential fatty acids are:

a)

Fats the body cannot synthesize and must get from diet

b)

Fats that the body can synthesize

c)

Stored in adipose tissue

d)

Unhealthy fats found in processed food

19.

Which element is found in proteins but not in carbohydrates or lipids?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

20.

Which food is the best source of dietary protein among the options shown?

a)

White rice

b)

White bread

c)

Coca-Cola

d)

Peanuts

21.

How many amino acids are considered essential in the human diet?

a)

3

b)

9

c)

12

d)

20

22.

Which statement best describes protein storage in the body?

a)

The body stores amino acids in skeletal muscles

b)

Proteins are not stored and must be continually replenished

c)

Proteins are stored in the liver for later use

d)

Proteins are stored in adipose tissue for later use

23.

Which athlete would use amino acids primarily for oxidation rather than growth?

a)

Powerlifter during maximal training

b)

Endurance athlete during prolonged exercise

c)

Gymnast during skill practice

d)

Strength athlete during hypertrophy phase

24.

What is the recommended daily protein intake for a healthy adult?

a)

0.4 g per kilogram body mass

b)

2.2 g per kilogram body mass

c)

0.8 g per kilogram body mass

d)

1.6 g per kilogram body mass

25.

Which element is uniquely identified in amino acids and not in carbohydrates or fats?

a)

Nitrogen in the amino group

b)

Oxygen in carboxyl groups

c)

Carbon in the backbone structure

d)

Hydrogen in hydrocarbon chains

26.

A 70 kg adult following the recommended intake should consume approximately how much protein daily?

a)

84 grams per day total

b)

154 grams per day total

c)

56 grams per day total

d)

28 grams per day total

27.

Why must dietary protein be consumed regularly?

a)

The body lacks a dedicated protein storage pool

b)

Amino acids cannot be synthesized at all

c)

Proteins are excreted unchanged in the urine

d)

The body stores excess proteins in fat tissue

28.

During a marathon, amino acids are most likely used for which purpose?

a)

Exclusive source of brain energy needs

b)

Minor fuel source during prolonged exercise

c)

Primary substrate for rapid muscle growth

d)

Immediate replacement of lost electrolytes

29.

How many total standard amino acids are typically found in proteins?

a)

9

b)

12

c)

18

d)

20

30.

Which statement best explains the term essential amino acids?

a)

They must be obtained from the diet regularly

b)

They are used only by strength athletes

c)

They are stored in muscle for emergencies

d)

They can be synthesized from nitrogen intake alone

31.

Which micronutrient is a component of haemoglobin and myoglobin?

a)

Iron

b)

Calcium

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

32.

Which micronutrient plays a role in muscle contraction and bone structure?

a)

Potassium

b)

Iron

c)

Calcium

d)

Vitamin D

33.

What is one function of the gut microbiome?

a)

To digest protein into amino acids

b)

To increase fat oxidation

c)

To influence nutrient availability and absorption

d)

To regulate temperature

34.

Which of the following can reduce gastrointestinal discomfort during exercise?

a)

[Option B not visible]

b)

[Option D not visible]

c)

[Option C not visible]

d)

[Option A not visible]

35.

Caffeine acts as a(n):

a)

Stimulant that reduces fatigue and pain perception

b)

Anaerobic fuel

c)

Protein synthesis enhancer

d)

Electrolyte replenisher

36.

Creatine supplementation primarily benefits which energy system?

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Aerobic system

c)

Glycolytic system

d)

ATP-PC (phosphagen) system

37.

Bicarbonate acts as a performance aid by:

a)

Increasing glycogen stores

b)

Buffering blood pH and reducing acidity

c)

Increasing muscle temperature

d)

Enhancing fat metabolism

38.

Which population group requires more protein for growth and repair?

a)

Elderly adults

b)

Infants and children

39.

Before competition, which strategy best supports performance?

a)

Eating high-fiber foods before competition

b)

Avoiding dehydration

c)

Taking aspirin before events

d)

Consuming only fructose-based drinks

40.

Which statement best explains why caffeine may improve endurance performance?

a)

It provides anaerobic fuel during sprints

b)

It replenishes electrolytes quickly during exercise

c)

It directly increases muscle temperature for power

d)

It lowers perceived exertion through central stimulation

41.

For a short maximal sprint lasting under 10 seconds, which supplement is most directly relevant?

a)

Electrolytes for heat acclimation

b)

Caffeine for long-duration alertness

c)

Creatine for ATP-PC resynthesis

d)

Bicarbonate for long aerobic events

42.

Why might sodium bicarbonate aid repeated high-intensity efforts?

a)

It expands plasma volume dramatically

b)

It boosts mitochondrial biogenesis overnight

c)

It buffers hydrogen ions to delay acidosis

d)

It increases fat oxidation at rest

43.

Which dietary choice immediately before a race is least advisable based on common guidance?

a)

A large high-fiber salad bowl

b)

Avoiding new or untested foods

c)

A moderate low-fiber carbohydrate meal

d)

Sipping water to stay hydrated

44.

Which group most likely benefits from relatively higher protein intake to support tissue building?

a)

Short-term carbohydrate loaders

b)

Well-fed endurance athletes tapering

c)

Sedentary middle-aged adults

d)

Infants and children during growth

45.

Males generally require more energy than females because:

a)

They store more fat

b)

They have lower basal metabolic rates

c)

They have higher basal metabolic rates and more muscle mass

d)

They burn fewer calories at rest

46.

Why are vitamins important even though they do not provide energy?

a)

They create energy directly in cells

b)

They strengthen connective tissues structurally

c)

They store carbohydrates for later use

d)

They act as regulators for metabolic reactions

47.

Which of the following is not a cause of gastrointestinal discomfort during exercise?

a)

High fiber intake before activity

b)

Mechanical jostling of the gut

c)

High exercise intensity and effort

d)

Proper hydration during training

48.

Which of the following is not one of the body's three main energy systems?

a)

Thermogenic

b)

Oxidative (Aerobic)

c)

Glycolytic (Anaerobic)

d)

Phosphagen (ATP-PC)

49.

Which energy system is dominant during rest and long-duration, low-intensity exercise?

a)

Oxidative

b)

Glycolytic

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Phosphagen

50.

Which statement best summarizes the role of nutrition in performance?

a)

Nutrition supports energy availability, repair, and physiological function

b)

Macronutrient intake has minimal effect on performance

c)

Micronutrients are the only performance factor

d)

Nutrition only matters for recovery

51.

Which supplement is identified as an effective buffer for high-intensity exercise?

a)

Caffeine

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Creatine

d)

Protein powder

52.

The phosphagen system relies on which high-energy compound stored in muscle?

a)

ATP and creatine phosphate

b)

Glucose circulating in blood

c)

Glycogen in muscle fibers

d)

Triglycerides in adipose tissue

53.

Which energy system becomes dominant during a 100 m sprint?

a)

Glycolytic lactic pathway

b)

Phosphagen immediate system

c)

Oxidative aerobic pathway

d)

Aerobic lipid oxidation

54.

Metabolism refers to:

a)

Breaking down nutrients in the liver only

b)

Energy released during digestion only

c)

All chemical reactions that maintain life

d)

Only the reactions that build molecules

55.

Anabolism is characterized by:

a)

Releasing energy from large molecules

b)

Building molecules and storing energy

c)

Requiring oxygen to produce ATP

d)

Producing lactic acid during exercise

56.

Which nutrient cannot be stored by the body for later use?

a)

Carbohydrates in glycogen form

b)

Lipids in adipose tissue

c)

Fats as triglyceride reserves

d)

Proteins as functional tissues

57.

Where does glycolysis occur within the cell?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum lumen

b)

Nucleus near chromatin

c)

Cytoplasm of the cell

d)

Mitochondrial matrix compartment

58.

During a short, maximal effort lasting under 10 seconds, which ATP source is primarily used?

a)

Electron transport chain only

b)

Aerobic glucose oxidation

c)

Breakdown of creatine phosphate

d)

Oxidation of fatty acids

59.

Which statement best contrasts anabolism and catabolism?

a)

Both require oxygen for ATP

b)

Catabolism builds; anabolism breaks down

c)

Anabolism builds; catabolism breaks down

d)

Both build molecules and use ATP

60.

Choose the pathway accurately paired with its cellular location.

a)

ETC — cytosol

b)

Glycolysis — cytoplasm

c)

Krebs cycle — cytoplasm

d)

Beta-oxidation — nucleus

61.

Which scenario most likely increases lactic acid formation in muscle?

a)

Digesting a mixed macronutrient meal

b)

Prolonged low-intensity walking

c)

Short high-intensity sprinting

d)

Sleeping and resting quietly

62.

The end products of glycolysis are:

a)

2 ATP and 2 pyruvate

b)

34 ATP and H2O

c)

CO2 and H2O

d)

Lactate and oxygen

63.

When oxygen is insufficient, pyruvate is converted into:

a)

Lactate

b)

CO2

c)

Acetyl-CoA

d)

Glucose

64.

Converting pyruvate to lactate allows glycolysis to continue because it:

a)

Generates extra ATP

b)

Produces more oxygen

c)

Regenerates NAD+

d)

Removes carbon dioxide

65.

The Krebs cycle and Electron Transport Chain occur in the:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Lysosomes

66.

How many ATP are approximately produced from one molecule of glucose aerobically?

a)

36–38

b)

24

c)

12

d)

2

67.

Oxygen is required in the ETC to:

a)

Transport fatty acids into cells

b)

Act as the final electron acceptor

c)

Convert lactate to pyruvate

d)

Regenerate creatine phosphate

68.

What is the role of Acetyl-CoA in aerobic respiration?

a)

Start the Krebs cycle

b)

Transport oxygen

c)

Break down glycogen

d)

Produce lactate

69.

Beta-oxidation refers to:

a)

Breakdown of amino acids

b)

Storage of glucose as glycogen

c)

Conversion of fatty acids to Acetyl-CoA

d)

Formation of ATP without oxygen

70.

Which molecule transports fatty acids into the mitochondria?

a)

Insulin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Carnitine

d)

Myoglobin

71.

Fat is the main fuel source when exercise intensity is:

a)

Low and long-duration

b)

Anaerobic

c)

High and short-duration

d)

Explosive and brief

72.

Which hormone is released when blood glucose levels rise after a meal?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Cortisol

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

73.

Insulin stimulates which process?

a)

Ketogenesis

b)

Glycogenolysis

c)

Lipolysis

d)

Glycogenesis

74.

During prolonged low-intensity activity, the predominant metabolic pathway for energy is:

a)

Fatty acid beta-oxidation pathway

b)

Phosphagen system pathway

c)

Lactate fermentation pathway

d)

Anaerobic glycolysis pathway

75.

Carnitine’s primary function in cellular metabolism is to:

a)

Convert pyruvate to lactate

b)

Carry oxygen in red blood cells

c)

Shuttle fatty acyl groups

d)

Store glucose as glycogen

76.

Which statement best describes the relationship between insulin and blood glucose?

a)

Insulin raises blood glucose

b)

Insulin lowers blood glucose

c)

Insulin has no effect

d)

Insulin only acts during fasting

77.

Acetyl-CoA enters which cycle to drive ATP production in aerobic cells?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Urea cycle

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Cori cycle

78.

Glucagon stimulates all of the following except:

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Epinephrine release

c)

Lipolysis

d)

Glycogenolysis

79.

During exercise, muscle cells can absorb glucose without insulin because:

a)

Muscle contraction activates GLUT4 transporters

b)

The pancreas secretes extra insulin

c)

Adrenaline blocks glucagon

d)

They use lactate instead

80.

VO2 max represents:

a)

The volume of carbon dioxide produced per minute

b)

The maximum oxygen uptake during intense exercise

c)

The total ATP stored in muscle

d)

The oxygen deficit at onset of exercise

81.

Which of the following units represents relative VO2 max?

a)

mL/min

b)

L/min

c)

mL/kg/min

d)

kJ/min

82.

Why do males typically have higher VO2 max values than females?

a)

Smaller lung capacity

b)

Higher hemoglobin and blood volume

c)

Lower heart rate

d)

Higher body fat percentage

83.

Which training adaptation most directly increases VO2 max?

a)

Decrease in capillary density

b)

Increase in fat stores

c)

Reduction in mitochondria

d)

Increase in stroke volume

84.

Which pathway is least likely activated directly by glucagon in liver cells?

a)

Fat breakdown to fatty acids

b)

Glycolysis to consume glucose

c)

Glycogen breakdown to glucose

d)

Gluconeogenesis from amino acids

85.

During a 1-minute sprint, which factor primarily limits VO2 max improvements?

a)

Hematocrit reduction after training

b)

Cardiac output and stroke volume

c)

Mitochondrial enzyme activity

d)

Capillary rarefaction in muscles

86.

Select the best explanation for why mL/kg/min is used for VO2 max comparisons across people:

a)

It removes differences in age only

b)

It normalizes oxygen use to body size

c)

It accounts for training experience

d)

It adjusts for lung volume alone

87.

During moderate exercise, glucose uptake into contracting muscle increases mainly because:

a)

Insulin spikes dramatically during workouts

b)

GLUT4 translocates in response to contraction

c)

Glucagon inhibits hepatic glucose output

d)

Epinephrine directly opens glucose channels

88.

A higher running economy (RE) means that an athlete:

a)

Has a lower lactate threshold

b)

Consumes more oxygen per minute

c)

Uses less oxygen at a given speed

d)

Relies more on anaerobic energy

89.

Which energy system is most active during a 400 m race (~1 min)?

a)

Phosphagen

b)

Lipid

c)

Glycolytic

d)

Oxidative

90.

During a marathon, why does the body shift away from fat metabolism at high intensity?

a)

Fat stores run out quickly

b)

Fat oxidation requires too much oxygen

c)

Glucose is unavailable

d)

Muscles lack mitochondria

91.

If oxygen delivery to muscles is suddenly reduced, ATP production will:

a)

Continue briefly through anaerobic glycolysis

b)

Cease immediately

c)

Increase via aerobic pathways

d)

Remain unchanged

92.

Which training principle states that training must match the demands of the sport?

a)

Periodization

b)

Variety

c)

Specificity

d)

Progressive overload

93.

Which component is not part of progressive overload?

a)

Duration

b)

Reversibility

c)

Intensity

d)

Frequency

94.

Increasing weight from 30 kg to 40 kg in squats is an example of increasing:

a)

Duration of each workout session

b)

Variety in exercise selection

c)

Frequency of sessions per week

d)

Intensity of the training load

95.

The fitness-fatigue model shows that performance improves:

a)

Only during the competitive season

b)

Only after a mesocycle

c)

Immediately after a workout

d)

Once fatigue decreases

96.

What does the principle of variety help prevent?

a)

Decreased body temperature

b)

Overuse injuries and boredom

c)

Faster hypertrophy gains

d)

Increased VO2 max

97.

When training stops and adaptations decline, this is called:

a)

Recovery

b)

Overtraining

c)

Reversibility

d)

Periodization

98.

Which phase focuses on basic physical conditioning and preparing for higher training loads later?

a)

General preparatory phase

b)

Transition phase

c)

Specific preparatory phase

d)

Competition phase

99.

In which phase is training volume intentionally reduced to avoid fatigue?

a)

Transition phase

b)

General preparatory phase

c)

Specific preparatory phase

d)

Competition phase

100.

During the specific preparatory phase, the primary emphasis is on:

a)

Maximal peaking and tapering

b)

Complete rest and passive recovery

c)

Sport-specific skills and intensities

d)

General fitness and foundational skills

101.

A sudden increase in training intensity without adequate recovery most likely leads to:

a)

Immediate peak performance in competition

b)

Accumulated fatigue and performance drop

c)

Reduced risk of reversibility

d)

Enhanced supercompensation immediately

102.

Reducing training load before a major event to enhance performance is known as:

a)

Cross-training

b)

Overreaching

c)

Mesocycle

d)

Tapering

103.

Which principle best explains why alternating hard and easy days improves performance?

a)

Specificity

b)

Progressive overload

c)

Individual differences

d)

Recovery-adaptation

104.

A 3-week block focused on improving endurance is an example of a:

a)

Macrocycle

b)

Transition cycle

c)

Mesocycle

d)

Microcycle

105.

A weekly plan of training sessions is known as a:

a)

Macrocycle

b)

Microcycle

c)

Periodization phase

d)

Mesocycle

106.

The HERITAGE study showed that improvements in VO₂ max:

a)

Are identical for all athletes

b)

Only occur with interval training

c)

Vary greatly between individuals

d)

Are mostly determined by nutrition

107.

Athletes who show major improvements from a program are known as:

a)

Responders

b)

Non-responders

c)

Overtrained

d)

Reversers

108.

Which factor must coaches consider to “meet an athlete where they are”?

a)

Preferred practice time

b)

Current fitness level

c)

Uniform colour

d)

Favorite athlete

109.

Which sex-based difference is associated with females?

a)

Faster hypertrophy

b)

Higher testosterone

c)

Larger VO₂max values

d)

Higher ACL injury risk

110.

Progesterone during the luteal phase tends to:

a)

Increase core temperature

b)

Reduce oxygen transport

c)

Lower muscle strength

d)

Elevate VO₂max

111.

Which training type should be avoided during pregnancy?

a)

Continuous aerobic training

b)

Light resistance training

c)

Isometric exercises

d)

Flexibility training

112.

A major effect of menopause that impacts training programs is:

a)

Higher testosterone

b)

Increased bone density

c)

Reduced thermoregulation

d)

Faster recovery

113.

Functional overreaching is helpful because:

a)

Performance improves after recovery

b)

It requires months to recover

c)

It prevents hypertrophy

d)

It leads to long-term fatigue

114.

A sign of overtraining syndrome (OTS) is:

a)

Chronic muscle soreness

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Decreased resting heart rate

d)

Faster recovery times

115.

Baseline testing is important because it:

a)

Determines uniform sizes

b)

Provides starting data to measure progress

c)

Is only used during the competition phase

d)

Ensures athletes don’t need progress testing

116.

Which statement best describes motor learning?

a)

An innate ability present at birth

b)

A short-term behavioral adjustment

c)

A relatively permanent change due to experience

d)

A temporary improvement in performance

117.

Which physiological change would most likely indicate OTS in an athlete?

a)

Lower body temperature after workouts

b)

Reduced appetite during training camp

c)

Persistent muscle soreness after light activity

d)

Higher VO2 max after rest

118.

Why do coaches emphasize baseline testing before a season?

a)

To establish measurable starting performance levels

b)

To confirm no training adjustments are needed

c)

To pick uniform sizes for new athletes

d)

To avoid conducting midseason assessments

119.

What is the intended outcome of functional overreaching in a training cycle?

a)

Immediate peak performance without rest

b)

Short-term fatigue followed by improved performance

c)

Elimination of recovery sessions entirely

d)

Long-term exhaustion without performance gains

120.

Which exercise characteristic presents the greatest concern for pregnant athletes?

a)

Static contractions that increase blood pressure

b)

Gentle dynamic movements with breathing focus

c)

Light resistance with many repetitions

d)

Low-impact aerobic sessions with monitoring

121.

Which memory store has unlimited capacity?

a)

Working memory has unlimited capacity

b)

LTM has unlimited capacity

c)

STM has unlimited capacity

d)

SIS has unlimited capacity

122.

The psychological refractory period explains why:

a)

reaction time improves with practice

b)

a second stimulus response is delayed

c)

feedback improves closed-loop control

d)

learning curves plateau over time

123.

Which skill is most likely controlled by an open-loop system?

a)

Adjusting posture while running

b)

Swinging a baseball bat rapidly

c)

Balancing on a beam dynamically

d)

Steering a bicycle continuously

124.

Which phase of learning is characterized by minimal conscious effort?

a)

Schema stage organizes responses

b)

Associative stage refines movement

c)

Cognitive stage requires attention

d)

Autonomous stage requires minimal effort

125.

In non-linear pedagogy, learning is best described as:

a)

memorization of patterns

b)

repetition of isolated drills

c)

coach-directed instruction

d)

exploration within constraints

126.

An example of an environmental constraint is:

a)

muscle strength limitation

b)

motivation of performer

c)

weather conditions

d)

rules of the game

127.

Transfer from practicing squats to improved vertical jump is an example of:

a)

bilateral transfer effect

b)

stage-to-stage transfer

c)

skill-to-skill transfer

d)

negative transfer

128.

Which statement best defines a stressor?

a)

an event that elicits stress

b)

a chronic outcome of stress

c)

a coping response to stress

d)

a resource that reduces stress

129.

Why is swinging a baseball bat suited to open-loop control?

a)

The action is continuous and slow

b)

The action is rapid and ballistic

c)

The action depends on balance feedback

d)

The action allows feedback correction

130.

Which constraint would most directly change tactical choices in a game?

a)

fatigue tolerance

b)

athlete aerobic capacity

c)

referee positioning

d)

rules modifications

131.

Stress in sport is best defined as:

a)

A negative emotional response to competition

b)

Any demand that causes psychological strain

c)

A coping strategy used to manage pressure

d)

A physiological response to anxiety

132.

Which of the following is an example of a positive stressor?

a)

Avoidance of competition

b)

Chronic anxiety before training

c)

Fear of losing a championship

d)

Anticipation before a major competition

133.

According to Lazarus and Folkman, coping is best described as:

a)

Constantly changing cognitive and behavioral efforts

b)

Efforts to eliminate all stressors

c)

A fixed personality trait

d)

A physiological reaction to stress

134.

In the transactional model of stress, appraisal refers to:

a)

Selecting a coping strategy

b)

Removing the stressor

c)

Regulating heart rate

d)

Evaluating the significance of a situation

135.

Why can two athletes experience different stress levels in the same situation?

a)

One experiences higher heart rate

b)

One uses emotion-focused coping

c)

Appraisal of the situation differs

d)

They have different physical abilities

136.

Which question is asked during primary appraisal?

a)

What can I do to cope with this?

b)

Is this situation beneficial or harmful?

c)

Which relaxation method should I use?

d)

How will my heart rate change?

137.

Secondary appraisal primarily involves assessing:

a)

Available resources and options

b)

Opponent’s physical condition

c)

Personal goals and values

d)

Past failures and regrets

138.

Problem-focused coping is best characterized by:

a)

Reframing the stressor as positive

b)

Changing the situation causing stress

c)

Avoiding thoughts about the stressor

d)

Managing emotional reactions to stress

139.

Emotion-focused coping is most appropriate when:

a)

The situation cannot be changed easily

b)

Problem-solving will remove the stressor

c)

Resources for change are abundant

d)

The stressor is controllable and changeable

140.

Which example best illustrates reappraisal in the stress process?

a)

Initial evaluation of threat versus challenge

b)

Choosing between problem or emotion-focused coping

c)

Breathing to slow the heart rate response

d)

Re-evaluating stress after using coping strategies

141.

Primary appraisal in stress evaluation mainly asks which question?

a)

What coping strategy should be used now?

b)

Can this situation be controlled effectively?

c)

Is this situation relevant or stressful right now?

d)

How much effort will be required overall?

142.

Secondary appraisal focuses primarily on what aspect of a stressor?

a)

Choosing emotion-focused coping first

b)

Ignoring or suppressing the stressor

c)

Evaluating controllability and available resources

d)

Identifying the stressor stimulus

143.

Problem-focused coping is MOST effective when the stressor is which type?

a)

Largely uncontrollable by actions

b)

Primarily emotional in nature

c)

Mostly controllable through action

d)

Completely unexpected by timing

144.

Which option best illustrates problem-focused coping in practice?

a)

Listening to calming music to relax

b)

Seeking technical feedback to fix an error

c)

Avoiding the problem temporarily

d)

Deep breathing during anxiety

145.

The primary aim of emotion-focused coping is to do what?

a)

Regulate emotional responses effectively

b)

Increase task motivation mainly

c)

Change the outcome conditions

d)

Remove the stressor source directly

146.

Which coping strategy is generally considered maladaptive over the long term?

a)

Seeking social support appropriately

b)

Active problem solving consistently

c)

Avoidance or denial of the problem

d)

Mindfulness-based relaxation practices

147.

During primary appraisal, which option would NOT typically be assessed?

a)

Personal relevance or threat level

b)

Potential harm or challenge posed

c)

Available coping resources currently

d)

Initial categorization of the event

148.

A student receives critical feedback on a lab report. Which response reflects problem-focused coping?

a)

Distracting by watching a favorite show

b)

Talking only about emotions with friends

c)

Scheduling time to revise with the rubric

d)

Ruminating about feeling embarrassed

149.

When is emotion-focused coping most appropriate for a stressor?

a)

When technical steps will fix errors

b)

When the situation cannot be changed

c)

When the stressor is acute and solvable

d)

When the outcome is highly controllable

150.

In secondary appraisal, which question best captures the evaluation being made?

a)

Is this event a threat or challenge?

b)

What resources and options do I have?

c)

What emotions am I feeling now?

d)

What long-term goals will this serve?