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Worksheets

Thi tay nghề bác sĩ giỏi

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What testing should be included when screening for ethambutol optic neuropathy?

a)

central visual field testing

b)

fluorescein angiography

c)

macular optical coherence tomography

d)

Goldmann kinetic perimetry

2.

Name the blue-gray corneoscleral limbus structure in the picture above

a)

Palisades of Vogts

b)

Limbal corneal degeneration

c)

Sign of limbal stem cell deficiency

d)

Limbal corneal scar

3.

The most common sites of scleral rupture following blunt trauma are


a)

in the superonasal quadrant, near the limbus


b)

in a circumferential arc parallel to the corneal limbus, opposite the site of impact


c)

behind the insertion of the rectus muscles


d)

All of the above

4.

Which of the following sequelae of a carotid cavernous sinus fistula is the most common cause of visual disability?

a)

Strabismus

b)

Proptosis with corneal exposure

c)

Spontaneous choroidal detachment

d)

Elevated intraocular pressure with progressive optic nerve damage

5.

A 30-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency room for trauma to the right orbit. The patient has marked proptosis and an intraocular pressure of 40 mm Hg on the affected side. A CT scan shows intraorbital hemorrhage. Which of the following actions would be the least effective in acutely reducing intraocular pressure?

a)

Lateral canthotomy and cantholysis

b)

Administration of high-dose oral corticosteroids

c)

Administration of topical aqueous suppressants

d)

Administration of intravenous mannitol

6.

What is the least likely ocular complication from endoscopic sinus surgery?

a)

Diplopia

b)

Blindness

c)

Tearing

d)

Ptosis

7.

What is the approximate volume of the orbit in an adult?

a)

5 mL

b)

15 mL

c)

30 mL

d)

50 mL

8.

What vessels perfuse the choroid?

a)

central retinal artery

b)

choriocapillaris

c)

long and short posterior ciliary arteries

d)

major arterial circle

9.

What is the normal density of corneal endothelial cells centrally in young adults?

a)

8000 cells/mm2

b)

3000 cells/mm2

c)

1000 cells/mm2

d)

500 cells/mm2

10.

What is the cellular function of the gene product that is defective in cases of retinoblastoma?

a)

contribution to cellular structure

b)

production of energy

c)

regulation of the cell cycle

d)

transportation of cell wall proteins

11.

What is the maximum amount of fluid an eye can hold prior to tearing?

a)

5–10 μL

b)

15–20 μL

c)

25–30 μL

d)

35–40 μL

12.

What cycloplegic agent has the longest duration of action?

a)

atropine sulfate, 1%

b)

cyclopentolate HCl, 1%

c)

homatropine hydrobromide, 5%

d)

scopolamine hydrobromide, 0.25%

13.

Which diagnosis is most consistent with the findings in this image?

a)

Herpex simplex virus keraritis

b)

Fungal keratitis

c)

Bacterial keratitis

d)

Loose corneal epithelium

14.

Which diagnosis is most consistent with the findings in this image?

a)

Keratoconus

b)

Dilated pupil

c)

Pellucid marginal degeneration

d)

Cornea dystrophy

15.

Which diagnosis is most consistent with the findings in this image?

a)

Retinitis pigmentosa

b)

Stargardt disease

c)

Fundus flavimaculatus

d)

Polypoidal Choroidal Vasculopathy

16.

Which layer of the cornea is not replaced when it is destroyed?

a)

Bowman layer

b)

Descemet membrane

c)

epithelium

d)

stroma

17.

On gonioscopy, which anatomical landmark marks the termination of Descemet membrane?

a)

iris root

b)

Schwalbe line

c)

scleral spur

d)

trabecular meshwork

18.

Which histologic feature best explains the opaque appearance of the sclera?

a)

loose fibrovascular tissue

b)

presence of melanocytes

c)

sparse vascularization

d)

variable collagen orientation

19.

What is the most likely location for metastasis from uveal melanoma?

a)

bone

b)

brain

c)

liver

d)

lung

20.

What abnormality of embryologic development is responsible for the this finding?

a)

incomplete closure of the embryonic fissure

b)

incomplete regression of the primary vitreous

c)

trauma

d)

long axial length

21.

What is the study of choice for the evaluation of fractures in acute orbital trauma?

a)

Orbital ultrasound

b)

Computerized tomography

c)

Magnetic resonance imaging

d)

Nerve conduction

22.

A patient with acute dacryocystitis, reflux of pus from the canaliculi, and preseptal cellulitis should be treated with which of
the following?

a)

Immediate dacryocystorhinostomy

b)

Massage

c)

Systemic antibiotics

d)

Probing and irrigation for diagnosis confirmation

23.

If a patient has a ruptured globe in addition to a symptomatic blowout fracture, what should the surgeon do?

a)

Repair both injuries at the same time

b)

Repair the ruptured globe immediately and delay the floor exploration for 2 to 4 weeks

c)

Wait 48 hours and then repair both injuries at the same time

d)

Repair the ruptured globe immediately and delay the floor exploration for 4 months

24.

When passing a probe down the cannalicular portion of the lacrimal excretory system, at what length does the tip of the
cannula enter the lacrimal sac?

a)

12-16 mm

b)

16-20 mm

c)

8-12 mm

d)

4-8 mm

25.

When diplopia develops in the setting of traumatic carotid cavernous fistula, what is the most likely pathophysiology?

a)

Compression of the fourth cranial nerve as it exits the brainstem

b)

Compression of the superior rectus muscle within the muscle cone

c)

Damage to the third cranial nerve from elevated intracranial pressure

d)

Compression of the sixth cranial nerve within the cavernous sinus

26.

Which surgical wound closures following pterygium excision have the lowest recurrence rate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

27.

In which clinical scenario would anterior segment optical coherence tomography (ASOCT) be preferable to ultrasound biomicroscopy (UBM)?

a)

to detect increased thickening of the corneal and conjunctival epithelium

b)

to visualize structures located posterior to the iris pigment epithelium

c)

to visualize rupture or detachment of Descemet membrane in the presence of corneal edema

d)

to assess for ciliary body pathology

28.

In addition to topical antibiotics, what is an appropriate initial treatment for a corneal perforation that is less than 2 mm in diameter?

a)

observation

b)

cyanoacrylate glue

c)

amniotic membrane graft

d)

conjunctival flap

29.

Which type of glaucoma is NOT a secondary glaucoma?

a)

Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma

b)

Pigmentary glaucoma

c)

Corticosteroid-induced glaucoma

d)

Juvenile open-angle glaucoma

30.

What can be stated about this finding on gonioscopy?

a)

Blood in the Schlemm canal

b)

Neovascular at the angle

c)

Accumulation of pigment at the angle

d)

Iris nevus

31.

What finding is at the black arrow?

a)

Flame- shaped optic disc hemorrhage

b)

Rim notching

c)

Optic pit

d)

Artifacts

32.

A patient presents with narrow angles and findings suggestive of iris and/or ciliary body cysts. What is the best imaging modality for further investigation?

a)

anterior segment optical coherence tomography

b)

anterior segment ultrasound biomicroscopy

c)

B- scan ultrasonography

d)

computed tomography scan of the orbits

33.

When is a false- positive error recorded in perimetry?

a)

when, on retesting, the patient does not respond to a stimulus that was previously seen

b)

when the patient falsely responds to a stimulus presented in the blind spot

c)

when the patient moves their eyes from the central fixation point

d)

when the patient responds even though no stimulus was presented

34.

Choose the correct concentration of travoprost eyedrop

a)

0,005%

b)

0,004%

c)

0,0015%

d)

0,04%

35.

Which agent reduces IOP by decrease aqueous humor production?

a)

brimonidine

b)

brinzolamide

c)

dorzolamide

d)

All of the above

36.

Which FDC is safe to use on a glaucoma patient who has COPD?

a)

Simbrinza

b)

DuoTrav

c)

Azarga

d)

Cosopt

37.

On day 1 postoperative trabeculectomy, a patient presents with high IOP, shallow anterior chamber and a present bleb. What can cause this condition?

a)

Tight flap sutures

b)

Malignant glaucoma

c)

Overfiltration

d)

Choroidal effusion

38.

What type of lens is this?

a)

Monofocal IOL

b)

Toric IOL

c)

Multifocal IOL

d)

ICL

39.

If the potential visual acuity obtained prior to cataract surgery is better than the acuity obtained postoperatively, which of the following is not a possible cause?

a)

Postsurgical cystoid macular edema

b)

A pupil that was dilated during testing

c)

An irregular corneal surface

d)

Amblyopia

40.

What finding after alkali chemical injury to the eye is the strongest risk factor for a poor prognosis?

a)

Blanching of most of the perilimbal vessels

b)

Total loss of corneal epithelium

c)

360 degrees of limbal injection

d)

corneal edema

41.

Which zone is the fovea?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

42.

Name these lesions

a)

Soft drusen

b)

Hard exudate

c)

Chroidal neovascular

d)

Polypoidal Choroidal Vasculopathy

43.

What is the most consistent diagnosis of this fundus?

a)

CRVO

b)

Diabetic retinopathy

c)

CRAO

d)

Hypertension retinopathy

44.

What symptom following intravitreal injection would be unexpected and warrant immediate evaluation?

a)

progressive floaters with progressive blurring of vision

b)

sharp pain following the injection

c)

foreign body sensation

d)

small floaters that are noticed immediately after injection

45.

A 35-year-old otherwise healthy man presents with recent onset of unilateral slightly blurred vision. On evaluation, the right eye has a visual acuity of 20/25. The patient is minimally symptomatic. What is the most appropriate initial management?

a)

observation

b)

topical steroids

c)

laser photocoagulation therapy

d)

Intravitreal anti-VEGF

46.

All of the following side effects may be seen with the use of a prostaglandin analogue except:

a)

conjunctival hyperemia

b)

cystoid macular edema

c)

decrease in iris pigmentation

d)

hypertrichosis

47.

Which one of the following contributes to the aqueous layer of the tear film?

a)

Glands of Wolfring

b)

Glands of Zeis

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Meibomian gland

48.

Tại Bệnh viện Mắt, Bảo hiểm y tế chấp nhận thanh toán toa chứa thuốc nhỏ nhóm CAIs trong trường hợp nào sau đây?

a)

Bệnh hắc võng mạc trung tâm thanh dịch

b)

Phù hoàng điểm do đái tháo đường

c)

Phù hoàng điểm dạng nang

d)

Phù hoàng điểm do tắc mạch võng mạc

49.

A 30 year-old male presents with headaches and visual disturbances. His visual field test returns as above? Which is the most likely cause of his hemianopsia?

a)

Pituitary Tumor

b)

Normal tension glaucoma

c)

Optic neuritis

d)

Migraine

50.

Khi thực hiện bệnh án điện tử trong phiên trực cấp cứu, đối với trường hợp có chỉ định phẫu thuật cấp cứu, các thao tác nào sau đây là chính xác?

a)

Bác sĩ cột 2 lập phiếu điều trị trình bác sĩ trưởng phiên trực xin ý kiến phẫu thuật cấp cứu

b)

Bác sĩ cột 2 lập phiếu điều trị trình bác sĩ cột 1 xin ý kiến phẫu thuật cấp cứu

c)

Bác sĩ cột 1 lập phiếu điều trị trình bác sĩ trưởng phiên trực xin ý kiến phẫu thuật cấp cứu

d)

Bác sĩ trưởng phiên trực khám và quyết định phương pháp phẫu thuật thông qua phiếu điều trị, bác sĩ cột 1 và cột 2 không có vai trò

51.

Theo theo tư 01/2025/TT-BYT, người bệnh được cơ sở khám bệnh, chữa bệnh bảo hiểm y tế hẹn khám lại trong trường hợp nào sau đây?

a)

Cần tiếp tục theo dõi tình trạng bệnh hoặc kiểm tra lại kết quả của đợt khám, điều trị đó theo yêu cầu chuyên môn

b)

Người bệnh chỉ được hẹn tái khám 01 lần duy nhất

c)

Người bệnh yêu cầu

d)

Người bệnh mắc bệnh mãn tính

52.

Thông tư số 26/2025/TT-BYT ngày 30 tháng 6 năm 2025 của Bộ Y tế về Quy định về đơn thuốc và việc kê đơn thuốc hóa dược, sinh phẩm trong điều trị ngoại trú tại cơ sở khám bệnh, chữa bệnh, các bênh nào sau đây được áp dụng kê đơn thuốc ngoại trú trên 30 ngày?

a)

Glôcôm

b)

Viêm giác mạc

c)

Viêm hắc võng mạc

d)

Tất cả các bệnh trên

53.

Bác sĩ A đăng ký tham dự Hội nghị nhãn khoa Châu Á Thái Bình Dương năm 2026 tại Hongkong, kinh phí tự chi trả. Như vậy bác sĩ A thuộc trường hợp nào sau đây?

a)

Cần xin phép phê duyệt đi nước ngoài về việc riêng, sử dụng ngày phép cá nhân

b)

Cần xin phép phê duyệt đi nước ngoài về việc công, sử dụng ngày phép cá nhân

c)

Cần xin phép phê duyệt đi nước ngoài về việc riêng, không mất ngày phép cá nhân

d)

Cần xin phép phê duyệt đi nước ngoài về việc công, không mất ngày phép cá nhân

54.

Hình thức đăng ký khám bệnh nào sau đây chưa được áp dụng tại Bệnh viện Mắt

a)

Qua tổng đài đặt hẹn

b)

Qua website Medpro

c)

Qua Zalo OA

d)

Trực tiếp

55.

A patient with no prior history of glaucoma had recent complicated cataract surgery with an anterior chamber intraocular lens
(IOL) inserted. There are many cortical and nuclear fragments in the vitreous, and the intraocular pressure (IOP) is 40 mm
Hg on timolol, dorzolamide, and brimonidine. What is the most appropriate surgery?

a)

Pars plana vitrectomy

b)

Trabeculectomy with mitomycin C

c)

Anterior chamber washout

d)

Glaucoma implant (tube-shunt)

56.

Which one of the following statements is false concerning the condition depicted in this picture?

a)

 It has a worse prognosis than primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)

b)

 It may be monocular or binocular.

c)

 Lens extraction will cure the condition

d)

The intraocular pressure (IOP) is often higher than in POAG.

57.

Topical anesthetic agents produce analgesia in which of the following ocular structures?

a)

Cornea and iris

b)

Conjunctiva and ciliary muscle

c)

Conjunctiva and cornea

d)

Conjunctiva and dilator muscle

58.

A patient with visually significant cataract is found to dilate poorly on preoperative examination. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of this poor dilation?

a)

Pigment dispersion syndrome

b)

Pseudoexfoliation syndrome

c)

Atopic dermatitis

d)

Hypertension

59.

What is the most characteristic type of cataract in steroid-induced cataract?

a)

Posterior subcapsular cataract

b)

Anterior polar cataract

c)

Nuclear sclerotic cataract

d)

Cortical spoke cataract

60.

When evaluating a patient with a traumatic hyphema, which of the following is the most likely cause of low intraocular
pressure (IOP)?

a)

Inflammatory cells in the trabecular meshwork

b)

Cyclodialysis cleft

c)

Red blood cells in the trabecular meshwork

d)

Pupillary block