wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit A One: History of Pharmacology & Its Role in Nursing

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Hippocratic Corpus is significant because it:

a)

Described the first use of anesthesia.

b)

Is one of the oldest preserved documents of early medical ethics.

c)

Introduced the concept of the "four humors."

d)

Detailed the structure of aspirin.

2.

The individual known for discovering penicillin is:

a)

Marie Curie

b)

Louis Pasteur

c)

Alexander Fleming

d)

Robert Koch

3.

In contemporary pharmacology, intricate medications such as monoclonal antibodies sourced from living organisms are referred to as:

a)

Artificial drugs

b)

Herbal treatments

c)

Biologics/Biomolecules

d)

Brand-name drugs

4.

Who is mainly accountable for administering a medication and ensuring its suitability for a patient?

a)

Pharmacist

b)

Nurse

c)

Healthcare Provider

d)

Social Worker

5.

The nurse's responsibilities in the medication administration process are best described as:

a)

Diagnosing and prescribing.

b)

Verifying and dispensing.

c)

Monitoring, administering, and assessing.

d)

Managing cost and access issues.

6.

In the context of Nursing Practice, which of the following is NOT included in the "Seven Rights" of medication administration?

a)

Right Patient

b)

Right Drug

c)

Right Expense

d)

Right Record

7.

The "Teach-Back Technique" is utilized by healthcare providers to:

a)

Record medication distribution.

b)

Assess complicated drug calculations.

c)

Verify patient comprehension of information.

d)

Prescribe new treatments.

8.

For a patient newly prescribed amiodarone, a critical nursing assessment prior to the first dose includes checking:

a)

Blood glucose and urine output.

b)

Apical pulse and thyroid function tests.

c)

Temperature and respiratory rate.

d)

Blood pressure and oxygen saturation.

9.

The examination of "how the body interacts with a medication," encompassing processes like absorption and elimination, is referred to as:

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Pharmacotherapeutics

c)

Pharmacokinetics

d)

Toxicology

10.

The intended, positive outcome of a medication is referred to as its:

a)

Side effect

b)

Therapeutic effect

c)

Adverse effect

d)

Toxic effect

11.

A condition or factor that serves as a reason to deny a specific medical procedure due to potential harm it may cause is a:

a)

Indication

b)

Contraindication

c)

Synergism

d)

Potency

12.

The abbreviation "TID" on a prescription means:

a)

Once daily

b)

Twice daily

c)

Three times daily

d)

Four times daily

13.

Which abbreviation is considered ambiguous and should be written out as "twice daily"?

a)

BID

b)

QD

c)

PRN

d)

AC

14.

The abbreviation "mg" stands for:

a)

Milligram

b)

Millimole

c)

Milliliter

d)

Microdrip

15.

To avoid misinterpretation, a dose of 10 milligrams should be written as:

a)

10.0 mg

b)

10 mg

c)

mg 10

d)

10.00 mg

16.

The primary reason for medication errors associated with terminology is frequently:

a)

Utilizing brand names exclusively.

b)

Misunderstanding of abbreviations.

c)

Grasping pharmacokinetics.

d)

Determining drug clearance.

17.

When instructing a patient, a nurse should:

a)

Utilize numerous medical abbreviations for brevity.

b)

Employ everyday language and explain all medical terms.

c)

Only give written materials.

d)

Presume the patient is familiar with common phrases like "PO."

18.

The branch of pharmacology that studies the adverse effects of medications is:

a)

Pharmacotherapeutics

b)

Pharmacokinetics

c)

Pharmacodynamics

d)

Toxicology

19.

The process of a medication entering the circulatory system after being administered is:

a)

Distribution

b)

Metabolism

c)

Absorption

d)

Excretion

20.

A medication given through an intravenous route avoids which pharmacokinetic process?

a)

Distribution

b)

Metabolism

c)

Absorption

d)

Excretion

21.

Which factor does NOT significantly influence medication distribution?

a)

Circulation rate

b)

Binding to proteins

c)

Age of the patient

d)

Urinary acidity

22.

First-pass metabolism primarily occurs when a drug is administered:

a)

Intravenously

b)

Subcutaneously

c)

Orally

d)

Rectally

23.

The main organ responsible for the metabolism of drugs is the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Lung

c)

Liver

d)

Intestine

24.

The main pathway for eliminating most medications is through the:

a)

Lungs

b)

Skin

c)

Kidneys

d)

Bile

25.

A substance that attaches to a receptor and stimulates it, resulting in a reaction, is referred to as an:

a)

Agonist

b)

Antagonist

c)

Inhibitor

d)

Inducer

26.

Naloxone (Narcan) functions as an opioid antagonist by:

a)

Binding to opioid receptors without activating them, preventing the effects of other opioids.

b)

Activating opioid receptors more effectively than fentanyl.

c)

Accelerating the breakdown of opioids in the body.

d)

Promoting the elimination of opioids from the system.

27.

Oxycodone is described as a partial agonist because it:

a)

Fully activates receptors and has no ceiling effect.

b)

Blocks receptors completely with no activation.

c)

Activates receptors but produces a submaximal response with a ceiling effect.

d)

Works only on enzymes, not receptors.

28.

Ibuprofen works by which non-receptor mechanism?

a)

Opening ion channels

b)

Chemical neutralization

c)

Enzyme inhibition

d)

Protein binding competition

29.

The highest therapeutic effect a medication can achieve, irrespective of the dosage, is referred to as its:

a)

Potency

b)

Efficacy

c)

Affinity

d)

Bioavailability

30.

A medication with a narrow Therapeutic Index (TI) necessitates:

a)

Infrequent administration.

b)

No specific monitoring.

c)

Frequent therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM).

d)

Only administration through the oral route.

31.

A common, unintended consequence of a medication at normal doses is a:

a)

Adverse effect

b)

Side effect

c)

Hypersensitivity reaction

d)

Unusual reaction

32.

The nursing responsibility of verifying a questionable or potentially harmful medication order is an example of:

a)

Administration

b)

Documentation

c)

Advocacy

d)

Evaluation

33.

The primary objective of medication administration is to provide the appropriate medication to achieve the desired therapeutic outcome while:

a)

Enhancing cost-efficiency.

b)

Reducing nursing workload.

c)

Reducing side effects.

d)

Employing the most effective delivery method.

34.

When verifying the "Correct Patient," a healthcare provider should utilize:

a)

The patient's bed number.

b)

One identifier, such as their full name.

c)

Two identifiers, such as name and birthdate.

d)

The patient's medical condition.

35.

The "Five Rights" of medication administration are checked at which stages?

a)

Prescribing, dispensing, administering

b)

Retrieving, preparing, at bedside

c)

Ordering, storing, documenting

d)

Assessing, planning, evaluating

36.

In accordance with Nursing Regulations, narcotics and controlled substances in Zambia must be kept in a:

a)

Secured cabinet.

b)

Freezer.

c)

Dedicated, double-locked storage (e.g., DDA box).

d)

Accessible shelf for quick retrieval during emergencies.

37.

The principle "Last Expiry, First Out" (LEFO) is used to:

a)

Calculate medication quantities.

b)

Avoid the use of outdated medications.

c)

Decide which patient receives treatment first.

d)

Request additional supplies.

38.

If a drug label states "250 mg/10 mL," it means:

a)

The patient should take 250 mg five times a day.

b)

The bottle contains a total of 250 mg of drug.

c)

Every 10 milliliters of liquid contains 250 mg of the drug.

d)

The concentration is 10 mg per 250 mL.

39.

A doctor prescribes 450 mg of a liquid medication. The available suspension is 300 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

a)

5 mL

b)

7.5 mL

c)

10 mL

d)

15 mL

40.

Which of the following is a PARENTERAL route of administration?

a)

Intramuscular (IM)

b)

Oral (PO)

c)

Intravenous (IV)

d)

Rectal (PR)

41.

For a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should typically use a needle at what angle?

a)

10-degree angle

b)

30-degree angle

c)

60-degree angle

d)

90-degree angle

42.

The purpose of IV fluid therapy includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Achieving a quick therapeutic response.

b)

Maintaining fluid and electrolyte homeostasis.

c)

Delivering medications that may irritate other tissues.

d)

Delaying the absorption of a medication.

43.

An isotonic IV solution, like 0.9% Normal Saline, has an osmolality:

a)

Lower than plasma, shifting fluid into cells.

b)

Similar to plasma, expanding intravascular volume.

c)

Higher than plasma, pulling fluid from cells.

d)

Variable, depending on the patient's condition.

44.

A crucial nursing duty during IV bolus administration is to:

a)

Infuse it as slowly as possible.

b)

Administer it gradually, monitoring for adverse reactions.

c)

Combine it with the primary IV fluid bag.

d)

Only administer it through a peripheral line.

45.

When utilizing a digital infusion device for a steady IV infusion, the nurse must still:

a)

Manually monitor the drops per minute.

b)

Independently determine the flow rate.

c)

Consistently check the infusion site and rate.

d)

Prepare the medication in a 50 mL minibag.

46.

The drop factor for standard macrodrip tubing is typically:

a)

15, 20, or 25 gtt/mL

b)

80 gtt/mL

c)

2 gtt/mL

d)

120 gtt/mL

47.

Order: Infuse 600 mL of D5W over 5 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in gtt/min? (Calculate)

a)

30 gtt/min

b)

40 gtt/min

c)

45 gtt/min

d)

75 gtt/min

48.

The first critical step a nurse should take if a medication mistake happens is to:

a)

Fill out an incident report.

b)

Inform the nursing supervisor.

c)

Evaluate and treat the patient right away.

d)

Record the mistake in the patient's medical record.

49.

Establishing a "culture of accountability" regarding medication management highlights:

a)

Punishing individuals for errors.

b)

Concealing mistakes to safeguard the department's image.

c)

Enhancing systems and encouraging open reporting.

d)

Only documenting incidents that result in injury.

50.

Classifying a medication as a "diuretic" is an example of ______ classification.

a)

Pharmacologic

b)

Chemical

c)

Therapeutic

51.

Classifying a medication as a "calcium channel blocker" is an example of ______ classification.

a)

Pharmacologic

b)

Therapeutic

c)

Prototype

d)

Body System

52.

The pharmacologic class of Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is:

a)

Beta-Blocker

b)

Thiazide Diuretic

c)

ACE Inhibitor

d)

Opioid Agonist

53.

A crucial nursing consideration when administering Spironolactone is to monitor for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Electrolyte imbalances (like hyperkalemia)

c)

Hypotension

d)

Diarrhea

54.

Fentanyl's primary mechanism of action is:

a)

Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

b)

Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors.

c)

Binding to opioid receptors in the CNS.

d)

Inhibiting the proton pump in the stomach.

55.

The most critical assessment prior to and after administering an opioid like fentanyl is the patient's:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Respiratory rate and sedation level

c)

Urine output

d)

Skin integrity

56.

Cefalosporins, such as cephalexin, are bactericidal because they:

a)

Inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria.

b)

Disrupt bacterial DNA replication.

c)

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.

d)

Increase bacterial membrane permeability.

57.

Before administering any amoxicillin, the nurse's priority action is to:

a)

Check the patient's liver function tests.

b)

Assess for an amoxicillin allergy.

c)

Administer on an empty stomach.

d)

Obtain a blood culture.

58.

Rapid insulin's main function is to:

a)

Encourage the pancreas to generate additional insulin.

b)

Reduce glucose synthesis in the liver.

c)

Enhance glucose absorption into cells.

d)

Delay gastric emptying.

59.

The "20-20 Rule" is used to treat:

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Insulin resistance

60.

Esomeprazole (a PPI) works by:

a)

Neutralizing existing stomach acid.

b)

Blocking histamine receptors on parietal cells.

c)

Irreversibly blocking the gastric proton pump.

d)

Coating the stomach lining.

61.

A patient undergoing chronic PPI treatment should be assessed for a heightened risk of:

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

C. difficile infection and bone fractures

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Urinary incontinence

62.

In various regions, Schedule II controlled substances (e.g., oxycodone) generally:

a)

Have no recognized therapeutic use.

b)

Require a written prescription with no refills allowed.

c)

Can be obtained without a prescription.

d)

Have the highest potential for abuse.

63.

A medication used to regulate heart rhythm, such as sotalol, is classified therapeutically as an:

a)

Antihypertensive

b)

Antidysrhythmic

c)

Antianginal

d)

Anticoagulant

64.

Formoterol, a bronchodilator, works by acting as an agonist at:

a)

Alpha receptors

b)

Beta-1 receptors

c)

Beta-2 receptors

d)

Muscarinic receptors

65.

The therapeutic use of Metformin is to:

a)

Lower blood pressure.

b)

Manage blood glucose levels.

c)

Reduce cholesterol.

d)

Enhance insulin sensitivity.

66.

Metoclopramide is classified as a:

a)

Antacid

b)

Antiemetic

c)

Antidiarrheal

d)

Laxative

67.

Acetaminophen is a member of which pharmacologic class?

a)

Opioid

b)

NSAID (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug)

c)

Corticosteroid

d)

Analgesic

68.

The nursing priority for a patient starting on Heparin (an anticoagulant with a low TI) is:

a)

Monitoring blood pressure.

b)

Checking the radial pulse.

c)

Assessing for signs of bleeding and ensuring regular aPTT checks.

d)

Listening for bowel sounds.

69.

The practice of using several medications, often seen in individuals with long-term health issues, is referred to as:

a)

Polymedicine

b)

Polypharmacy

c)

Pharmacogenomics

d)

Synergism

70.

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed Digoxin. The nurse understands that this medication has a narrow therapeutic index. Which action is most critical?

a)

Administering it with food to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort.

b)

Monitoring the patient's apical pulse and serum magnesium levels.

c)

Ensuring the patient takes it at the same time each day.

d)

Instructing the patient to avoid operating machinery after taking the dose.

71.

A middle-aged patient with compromised liver function is prescribed a medication that is primarily metabolized by the liver. The nurse should anticipate:

a)

A need for a lower dose to avoid adverse effects.

b)

That the drug will be excreted more quickly by the kidneys.

c)

A potential risk of drug accumulation and toxicity.

d)

No change in the standard dosing regimen.

72.

A post-operative patient is receiving IV fentanyl via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse finds the patient drowsy with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. The nurse's first action should be to:

a)

Encourage the patient to take deep breaths.

b)

Administer the reversal agent, naloxone, as per protocol.

c)

Increase the rate of the normal saline IV fluid.

d)

Discontinue the PCA pump and notify the doctor in 1 hour.

73.

While preparing to give an IV medication, the nurse observes that the solution appears discolored with sediment. The appropriate action is to:

a)

Administer it slowly as the sediment will dissolve.

b)

Shake the bag vigorously to mix the sediment.

c)

Discard it and prepare a new dose, as it indicates incompatibility or contamination.

d)

Consult the pharmacist to see if discoloration is typical for this medication.

74.

A patient with diabetes is instructed to vary the locations of insulin injections to avoid:

a)

Hypoglycemia.

b)

Allergic reactions to insulin.

c)

Lipohypertrophy (thickened tissue under the skin).

d)

Accelerated absorption of the medication.

75.

The physician prescribes "Furosemide 40 mg IV NOW." Prior to administration, the nurse remembers that Furosemide is a loop diuretic. What assessment data is most critical to gather before giving the medication?

a)

The patient's most recent bowel movement.

b)

The patient's baseline blood pressure, weight, and potassium level.

c)

The patient's food preferences.

d)

The patient's history of sulfa drug allergies.

76.

A patient on Warfarin mentions they started taking a herbal supplement for muscle pain. The nurse should be most concerned about which supplement due to its interaction risk?

a)

Echinacea

b)

Ginkgo Biloba

c)

St. John's Wort

d)

Garlic or Ginkgo (which can increase bleeding risk)

77.

A pediatric dose is calculated based on the child's body surface area (BSA). The Mosteller formula is BSA (m2)=Height in cm×Weight in kg3600BSA\ (m^2)=\sqrt{\frac{\text{Height in cm}\times \text{Weight in kg}}{3600}} . For a child who is 120 cm tall and weighs 25 kg, what is the BSA?

a)

0.60 m^2

b)

0.85 m^2

c)

1.15 m^2

d)

1.50 m^2

78.

The five principles of medication administration are essential for safety, but they are not infallible. What is an important additional duty of the nurse to guarantee safety?

a)

Trusting the pharmacy to provide the correct medication.

b)

Applying clinical judgment and critical thinking throughout the procedure.

c)

Assigning medication preparation to a nursing student.

d)

Believing that the prescriber's instructions are always accurate.

79.

A post-operative patient has an order for "Intermittent IV infusion: Cefazolin 2 g in 100 mL NS, infuse over 60 minutes, Q6H." The nurse will use a secondary (piggyback) line. A key action is to:

a)

Check the compatibility of cefazolin with the primary IV fluid.

b)

Infuse the antibiotic as a rapid IV push.

c)

Mix the antibiotic in a 1000 mL bag of fluid.

d)

Disconnect the primary IV while the antibiotic infuses.

80.

When administering Warfarin, it is essential for the nurse to monitor:

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Heart rate

d)

International Normalized Ratio (INR)

81.

The primary action of Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is to:

a)

Reduce heart rate and decrease blood pressure

b)

Increase heart rate

c)

Enhance cardiac output

d)

Promote vasodilation

82.

Which of the following medications is classified as a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Ranitidine

c)

Simvastatin

d)

Metformin

83.

Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid medications?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Constipation

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Insomnia

84.

What is the primary purpose of a medication reconciliation process?

a)

To ensure accurate medication administration.

b)

To increase the number of prescriptions.

c)

To reduce the cost of medications.

d)

To promote over-the-counter drug use.

85.

Which of the following medications is classified as a beta-blocker?

a)

Simvastatin

b)

Metformin

c)

Furosemide

d)

Atenolol