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Pharm Tech Final Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most common side effect of warfarin?

a)

dizziness

b)

headache

c)

weight gain

d)

bleeding

2.

What is the indication for trazodone?

a)

dementia

b)

pain

c)

anxiety

d)

depression

3.

What is the indication for fenofibrate?

a)

hyperglycemia

b)

hyperthyroidism

c)

hypertension

d)

hypertriglyceridemia

4.

5 tbsp = _____ mL

a)

45

b)

90

c)

40

d)

75

5.

What is a brand name for progesterone?

a)

Nuvaring

b)

Trinessa

c)

Premarin

d)

Prometrium

6.

Match the following word parts with the correct definitions: Which definition matches lapar/o?

a)

vomiting

b)

heart

c)

abdominal

d)

blood condition

e)

surgical removal

7.

What is albuterol given for?

a)

hypertension

b)

gout

c)

hypothyroidism

d)

asthma

8.

What is the brand name of losartan/hydrochlorothiazide?

a)

Gabapentin

b)

Demerol

c)

Coreg

d)

Hyzaar

9.

A patient presents the following order, how many prednisone 10 mg tablets are needed? Take 60 mg × 2 days; Take 50 mg × 1 day; Take 40 mg × 2 days; Take 30 mg × 1 day; Take 20 mg × 2 days; Take 10 mg × 1 day; Take 5 mg × 2 days.

a)

34 tablets

b)

36 tablets

c)

32 tablets

d)

28 tablets

10.

What is the drug category of conjugated estrogen?

a)

anticholinergic

b)

anti-inflammatory

c)

contraceptive

d)

hormone replacement

11.

Which law provides tax breaks and incentives for manufacturers creating medications to treat rare conditions?

a)

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

b)

Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 2004

c)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

d)

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

12.

If a patient is receiving ondansetron 4 mg IVP tid PRN, what is the maximum daily dosage the patient will receive in milligrams?

a)

8 mg

b)

16 mg

c)

12 mg

d)

24 mg

13.

Which of the following is the most common ADR with diphenhydramine?

a)

GERD

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

increased appetite

d)

drowsiness

14.

What is the brand name for memantine?

a)

Cymbalta

b)

Effexor

c)

Aricept

d)

Namenda

15.

What is a potential side effect of spironolactone?

a)

dizziness

b)

hallucinations

c)

hypertension

d)

edema

16.

Which type of diabetes always requires the use of insulin?

a)

Type 1

b)

Adult-onset

c)

Gestational

d)

Type 2

17.

Morphine is an example of a schedule ____ medication.

a)

III

b)

IV

c)

II

d)

I

18.

What is not a common ADR with testosterone use?

a)

gynecomastia

b)

dizziness

c)

hirsutism

d)

birth defects

19.

Which of the following is not a common side effect of furosemide?

a)

hypotension

b)

edema

c)

dizziness

d)

electrolyte disturbance

20.

Which law required pharmacies to establish standards regarding patient records, prospective drug utilization review (DUR) and patient counseling?

a)

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

b)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

c)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

d)

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA)

21.

A patient comes to your pharmacy needing help. She received a prescription from a pharmacy across town. Her prescription label says, "Metoclopramide 5 mg/mL solution- take 10 mL every 8 hours." She does not know how to measure out 10 mL. How many teaspoons should you tell her to take per dose?

a)

4

b)

This amount cannot be measured in teaspoons.

c)

2

d)

1.5

22.

What is the indication for topiramate?

a)

memory loss

b)

analgesic

c)

depression

d)

seizures

23.

What is the brand name of clonazepam?

a)

Elavil

b)

Remeron

c)

Sinemet

d)

Klonopin

24.

Which of the following disease states may be exacerbated by Inderal (propranolol)?

a)

Asthma

b)

Anxiety

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypercholesterolemia

25.

A patient brought a prescription for medication with a direction of 50 mg TID X 10 days. The medication is available at a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters of solution should be supplied to the patient to complete the course of treatment?

a)

0.075

b)

0.085

c)

95

d)

75

26.

How long should dispensed prescription be kept on file and should schedule II prescriptions be kept with other medications that have been dispensed?

a)

5 years; keep schedule II prescriptions separate from other medications

b)

After the prescription is filled; it can be thrown away and there are no prescriptions on file

c)

2 years; keep schedule II prescriptions separate from other medications

d)

Forever; keep everything together

27.

A patient is ordered 25 mg of hydroxyzine to be taken TID for 20 days. How many capsules should be dispensed for this order, if pharmacy stocks 25 mg capsules?

a)

50 capsules

b)

60 capsules

c)

40 capsules

d)

30 capsules

28.

What is the brand name of lisinopril?

a)

Toprol

b)

Norvasc

c)

Diovan

d)

Zestril

29.

Which of the following patients should not be prescribed Lotensin (Benazepril)?

a)

a 65-year-old man

b)

a 95-year-old man

c)

a 7-year-old girl

d)

a 34-year-old pregnant woman

30.

What is the brand name of mirtazapine?

a)

Provigil

b)

Ambien

c)

Vyvanse

d)

Remeron

31.

What is something a patient taking Zolpidem might be told regarding this medication?

a)

This medication can interact with certain foods.

b)

This medication can cause weight loss.

c)

Take this medication with food.

d)

Take this medication when you are already in bed.

32.

Which is not a common ADR with Adderall?

a)

insomnia

b)

amnesia

c)

headache

d)

decreased appetite

33.

When is the prescriber's DEA number required on prescriptions?

a)

on prescriptions for all controlled medications only

b)

on prescriptions for C-II medications only

c)

never

d)

all the time

34.

If a patient is receiving an infusion at a rate of 250 mL/h, and the IV is made in 1000 mL bag, how many bags will be needed to last this patient 24 hours?

a)

8 bags

b)

10 bags

c)

4 bags

d)

6 bags

35.

How long can insulin be kept at room temperature?

a)

21 days

b)

28 days

c)

14 days

d)

7 days

36.

What is an indication for progesterone?

a)

acne

b)

bacterial infection

c)

birth control

d)

abnormal menstrual cycles

37.

What food should be avoided when taking lovastatin?

a)

fish

b)

peanuts

c)

grapefruit

d)

dairy

38.

If an acetaminophen 80 mg suppository is prescribed q 6-8 hours PRN, what is the maximum number of suppositories the patient can receive in a day?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

39.

What is the brand name of prednisone?

a)

Combivent

b)

ProAir

c)

Fluticasone

d)

Deltasone

40.

Which of the following medications is a schedule III medication?

a)

heroin

b)

clonazepam

c)

morphine

d)

anabolic steroids

41.

What is the drug class for promethazine?

a)

analgesic

b)

antiviral

c)

antibiotic

d)

antiemetic

42.

When can a medication that is scheduled III–IV be refilled?

a)

up to 5 times within 6 months

b)

up to 6 times within a year

c)

as many times as the patient needs

d)

never

43.

What is the brand name for alprazolam?

a)

BuSpar

b)

Keppra

c)

Xanax

d)

Ativan

44.

Which of the following is a possible ADR of clonidine?

a)

hypokalemia

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

hypotension

45.

For DEA, which function of organization applies?

a)

protects the health of the public through investigation of the prevention and control of diseases

b)

responsible for protecting the public by ensuring safety of medications, food, devices, and cosmetics

c)

regulates legal trade in narcotics/controlled substances

d)

Covers the administration of medicare/medicaid as well as HIPAA.

e)

division of the US Dept of labor that ensures safety and health of workers by setting/enforcing standards in the workplace

46.

For FDA, which function of organization applies?

a)

protects the health of the public through investigation of the prevention and control of diseases

b)

responsible for protecting the public by ensuring safety of medications, food, devices, and cosmetics

c)

regulates legal trade in narcotics/controlled substances

d)

Covers the administration of medicare/medicaid as well as HIPAA.

e)

division of the US Dept of labor that ensures safety and health of workers by setting/enforcing standards in the workplace

47.

For OSHA, which function of organization applies?

a)

protects the health of the public through investigation of the prevention and control of diseases

b)

responsible for protecting the public by ensuring safety of medications, food, devices, and cosmetics

c)

regulates legal trade in narcotics/controlled substances

d)

Covers the administration of medicare/medicaid as well as HIPAA.

e)

division of the US Dept of labor that ensures safety and health of workers by setting/enforcing standards in the workplace

48.

For CDC, which function of organization applies?

a)

protects the health of the public through investigation of the prevention and control of diseases

b)

responsible for protecting the public by ensuring safety of medications, food, devices, and cosmetics

c)

regulates legal trade in narcotics/controlled substances

d)

Covers the administration of medicare/medicaid as well as HIPAA.

e)

division of the US Dept of labor that ensures safety and health of workers by setting/enforcing standards in the workplace

49.

For CMS, which function of organization applies?

a)

protects the health of the public through investigation of the prevention and control of diseases

b)

responsible for protecting the public by ensuring safety of medications, food, devices, and cosmetics

c)

regulates legal trade in narcotics/controlled substances

d)

Covers the administration of medicare/medicaid as well as HIPAA.

e)

division of the US Dept of labor that ensures safety and health of workers by setting/enforcing standards in the workplace

50.

What is the indication for Benzonatate?

a)

hyperglycemia

b)

arthritis

c)

hypertension

d)

cough

51.

What is the brand name for spironolactone?

a)

Microzide

b)

Aldactone

c)

Cardizem

d)

Norvasc

52.

Rx: Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID × 10 days. On hand: Amoxicillin 250 mg capsules. How many capsules will be given over the duration of the treatment?

a)

20 tablets

b)

50 tablets

c)

30 tablets

d)

60 tablets

53.

Which of the following is nearly always an ingredient in combined oral contraceptive pills?

a)

norethindrone

b)

levonorgestrel

c)

ethinyl estradiol

d)

norgestimate

54.

Select the correct controlled substance schedule for Narcotics.

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

55.

Select the correct controlled substance schedule for Benzodiazepines and Sedatives.

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

56.

Select the correct controlled substance schedule for Cough Medicines & Anti Diarrheals.

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

57.

Select the correct controlled substance schedule for Anabolic Steroids.

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

58.

What is the brand name for sumatriptan?

a)

Levaquin

b)

Mobic

c)

Flagyl

d)

Imitrex

59.

How many milligrams are 1 grain?

a)

15

b)

100

c)

30

d)

60

60.

What is the brand name fluoxetine?

a)

Cymbalta

b)

Wellbutrin

c)

Celexa

d)

Prozac

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