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Biology Semester 1 Review

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A testable statement that suggests a possible answer to a question is called a(n):

a)

Theory

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Experiment

d)

Conclusion

2.

The variable that is changed or manipulated in an experiment is the:

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Control variable

d)

Experimental group

3.

A group in an experiment that serves as a comparison and does not receive the experimental treatment is called the:

a)

Experimental group

b)

Control group

c)

Dependent group

d)

Independent group

4.

A well-tested explanation for a wide range of observations that has been supported by evidence numerous times is a:

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Theory

c)

Hyperbole

d)

Experiment

5.

A student wants to test the effect of different colors of light on the growth of bean plants. Which of the following is the most appropriate and testable hypothesis for this experiment?

a)

Bean plants are a type of plant.

b)

Bean plants will grow better when exposed to red light rather than green light.

c)

If I grow plants, then they will get taller.

d)

Why do plants need light to grow?

6.

What is the independent variable on the graph titled "U.S. Households By Total Yearly Income" showing two lines labeled Percentage Above 75k(increasing)andPercentageBelow75k (increasing) and Percentage Below 10k (nearly constant) across years 1967–2007?

a)

Time

b)

Percentage above $75k

c)

Percentage below $10k

d)

US Households by Total Yearly Income

7.

Which is the final, important, step of the scientific method that allows others to view the data?

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Observe

c)

Draw conclusions

d)

Share results

8.

What does CER stand for?

a)

Claim, Evidence, Reasoning

b)

Conclusion, Experiment, Results

c)

Control, Evaluation, Repeatability

d)

Cause, Effect, Relationship

9.

A student observes that a plant seedling bends toward a light source. The student writes, "The plant is growing toward the light because its cells on the side away from the light elongate faster, causing the plant to bend." Which part of the CER framework is the student's final sentence?

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Evidence

c)

Claim

d)

Reasoning

10.

A biologist observes a bird feeding its chicks. The biologist's claim is that the bird is engaging in a behavior that ensures the survival of its species. What would be the most appropriate evidence to support this claim?

a)

The bird's nest is built high in a tree.

b)

The bird's beak shape is suited for cracking seeds.

c)

The chicks are growing larger and healthier over time.

d)

The bird has feathers and can fly long distances.

11.

Which characteristic of living things is best described by a sunflower turning its head to face the sun throughout the day?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Reproduction

c)

Responds to its environment

d)

Genetic material

12.

A student claims that a virus is not a living thing. Which of the following pieces of evidence would provide the strongest support for this claim?

a)

Viruses can change over time.

b)

Viruses have genetic material (DNA or RNA).

c)

Viruses must use a host cell's machinery to reproduce.

d)

Viruses are very small and can only be seen with an electron microscope.

13.

In a CER framework, what is the role of the 'reasoning' component?

a)

To provide data and observations.

b)

To state the main idea or conclusion.

c)

To ask a question to be investigated.

d)

To explain why the evidence supports the claim.

14.

A person shivers when they get cold. This is an example of which characteristic of living things?

a)

Regulation (homeostasis)

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Growth and development

d)

Reproduction

15.

A student observes a bacterial culture doubling in population every 20 minutes. What characteristic of living things is this an example of?

a)

Regulation (homeostasis)

b)

Cellular organization

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Reproduction

16.

A claim is made that plants require sunlight for photosynthesis. The evidence is that plants placed in the dark do not grow. What is the reasoning that connects this evidence to the claim?

a)

The plants were all the same size at the start of the experiment.

b)

Photosynthesis is the process that converts light energy into chemical energy for the plant to grow.

c)

Plants get their energy from the soil.

d)

The plant's color changes in the dark.

17.

Which characteristic of life is best demonstrated by the process of cellular respiration?

a)

Acquiring and using energy

b)

Regulation (homeostasis)

c)

Genetic material

d)

Growth and development

18.

A scientist studies a new organism and notes that it has a single cell. This observation directly supports which characteristic of living things?

a)

Growth and development

b)

Reproduction

c)

Cellular organization

d)

Genetic material

19.

Which scientist is credited with concluding that all plants are made of cells?

a)

Theodor Schwann

b)

Rudolf Virchow

c)

Matthias Schleiden

d)

Robert Hooke

20.

Which scientist has been called “the father of microbiology”?

a)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Matthias Schleiden

c)

Theodor Schwann

d)

Rudolf Virchow

21.

Which statement is NOT one of the three main principles of the Cell Theory?

a)

All known living things are composed of one or more cells.

b)

The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living things.

c)

All cells must contain a cell wall.

d)

All cells arise from pre-existing cells by division.

22.

What is the primary distinguishing feature of a prokaryotic cell compared to a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Presence of ribosomes

b)

Presence of a cell membrane

c)

Larger cell size

d)

Lack of a true nucleus

23.

Which of the following is a vital beneficial role of some prokaryotes in ecosystems?

a)

Causing infectious disease

b)

Nitrogen and carbon cycling

c)

Producing carbon dioxide through photosynthesis

d)

Digesting plastics in landfills

24.

In the human body, prokaryotes are essential for which process in the large intestine?

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Vitamin production

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Cellular respiration

25.

A prokaryote that causes disease, such as strep throat, is classified as a:

a)

Symbiont

b)

Decomposer

c)

Pathogen

d)

Producer

26.

Which chemical agent is commonly used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria on non-living surfaces?

a)

Antivirals

b)

Bleach

c)

Insulin

d)

Vaccines

27.

Antibiotics are effective against which type of microorganism?

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

28.

Antibiotic resistance occurs when:

a)

An individual's immune system stops responding to medication.

b)

An antibiotic begins to kill human cells along with bacteria.

c)

Bacteria evolve and are no longer killed by a particular antibiotic.

29.

Which of the following structures is found in all cells and is responsible for protein synthesis?

a)

Capsule

b)

Plasmid

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleoid

30.

The region of a prokaryotic cell that contains the main genetic material (DNA) but is not enclosed by a membrane is called the:

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Nucleoid

31.

Short, hair-like appendages on the surface of some prokaryotes that are primarily involved in attachment to surfaces or other cells (like during conjugation) are called:

a)

Flagella

b)

Pili

c)

Cell Walls

32.

A layer that provides structure and support around the perimeter of prokaryotic cells as well as some eukaryotic cells (plants) is the:

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Plasmid

c)

Cell wall

33.

A significant advantage of the prokaryotic mode of reproduction (binary fission) is that it:

a)

Introduces genetic variation quickly.

b)

Allows for extremely rapid population growth.

c)

Requires two parents.

34.

The ability of certain bacteria to form endospores under harsh conditions provides which advantage?

a)

Enhanced mobility

b)

Survival through long periods of environmental stress

c)

Increased ability to consume nutrients.

35.

A small, circular piece of DNA separate from the main chromosome, which often carries genes for antibiotic resistance, is known as a:

a)

Nucleoid

b)

Peptidoglycan

c)

Plasmid

36.

An important ecological disadvantage of prokaryotes is their simple, single-celled form, which prevents them from developing:

a)

The ability to perform cellular respiration.

b)

The ability to live in diverse habitats.

c)

Specialized tissues and organs for complex tasks.

37.

Scientists are engineering bacteria to help solve some of our most critical problems by which of the following ways?

a)

Producing new pharmaceuticals.

b)

Generating clean water.

c)

Creating sustainable building materials.

d)

Enhancing crop yields in infertile soil.

38.

What is homeostasis?

a)

The process of cells dividing.

b)

The ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment.

c)

The movement of substances across a cell membrane using energy.

d)

The way an organism interacts with its external environment.

39.

Which of the following is an example of the body working to maintain homeostasis?

a)

Eating food when you are hungry.

b)

Sweating to cool down on a hot day.

c)

Breathing in air that contains oxygen.

d)

Sleeping for eight hours a night.

40.

How does an increase in heart rate help maintain homeostasis concerning gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide?

a)

It causes the body to use less oxygen.

b)

It slows down the movement of gases in the blood.

c)

It increases the speed at which oxygen is delivered to cells and carbon dioxide is removed.

d)

It decreases the overall amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.

41.

Cell transport that does not require the cell to use its own energy (ATP) is called:

a)

Active transport.

b)

Bulk transport.

c)

Passive transport.

d)

Endocytosis.

42.

In cell transport, substances always move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This movement is described as moving:

a)

Against the concentration gradient.

b)

With the concentration gradient.

c)

Through a protein pump.

d)

By using ATP energy.

43.

Why do substances like glucose (a large sugar molecule) often need to cross the cell membrane using facilitated diffusion instead of simple diffusion?

a)

They are moving against the concentration gradient.

b)

They are too large or too polar (charged) to easily pass through the lipid bilayer.

c)

They need to move very quickly into the cell.

d)

The cell membrane is impermeable to all molecules.

44.

Imagine spraying air freshener in one corner of a room. After a few minutes, the scent is detectable across the entire room. This is a real-life example of:

a)

Osmosis.

b)

Active transport.

c)

Facilitated diffusion.

d)

Diffusion.

45.

Which factor would increase the rate of diffusion across a cell membrane?

a)

A very large molecule.

b)

A steeper concentration gradient (larger difference in concentrations).

c)

A very thick cell membrane.

d)

A lower temperature.

46.

Facilitated diffusion is different from simple diffusion because it requires:

a)

Energy (ATP).

b)

A vesicle.

c)

Transport proteins.

d)

A high-salt solution.

47.

Both simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are considered passive transport because they both:

a)

Do not require the use of ATP energy.

b)

Move substances from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

c)

Only move water molecules.

d)

Involve molecules binding to receptor proteins.

48.

What type of transport requires energy?

a)

Passive transport

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

49.

You put a cell into a solution, the cell grows. Is the solution hypotonic or hypertonic to the cell?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Not enough information

c)

Isotonic

d)

Hypertonic

50.

The cell shown in the diagram is in a solution that causes it to lose water. Identify the type of solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

51.

An ISOTONIC solution has a ______ concentration of solute (dissolved stuff) than inside the cell.

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

Equal

52.

A HYPOTONIC solution has a ______ concentration of solute (dissolved stuff) than inside the cell.

a)

Lower

b)

Equal

c)

Higher

53.

What would happen if someone gave you a 100% water IV drip?

a)

Your cells will shrivel

b)

Your cells will swell

c)

You'll be fine

54.

Why is it a bad idea to drink saltwater?

a)

It's hypertonic to your cells

b)

It's hypotonic to your cells

c)

It's isotonic to your cells

d)

None of the above

55.

If a balloon containing 5% salt solution is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt solution, the water is ______ compared to the cell.

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

All of the above

56.

Water can pass more quickly through a cell membrane with the help of a carrier protein.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

57.

Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Vesicle transport

58.

The primary structural component of the cell membrane is the:

a)

Cellulose layer

b)

Phospholipid bilayer

c)

Protein matrix

d)

Cholesterol sheet

59.

In the cell membrane, the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids are oriented:

a)

Facing the watery interior of the cell (cytoplasm).

b)

Facing the watery exterior of the cell.

c)

Toward the interior of the membrane, away from the water.

d)

Interspersed randomly throughout the two layers.

60.

Integral proteins (or transmembrane proteins) are characterized by:

a)

Being loosely bound to the surface of the membrane.

b)

Only being found on the inner surface of the membrane.

c)

Penetrating the hydrophobic core of the lipid bilayer.

d)

Primarily functioning in cell-to-cell recognition.

61.

Which term best describes the entire structure of the plasma membrane, emphasizing that its components are not fixed but move laterally?

a)

Fluid Mosaic Model

b)

Static Layer Model

c)

Fixed Protein Model

d)

Semi-Permeable Model

62.

Peripheral proteins are best described as proteins that:

a)

Cross the entire membrane.

b)

Are loosely bound to the surface of the membrane, either on the cytoplasmic or extracellular side.

c)

Only function to transport molecules.

d)

Are composed solely of carbohydrate chains.

63.

What is the primary function of transport proteins embedded in the cell membrane?

a)

Anchoring the cell to the extracellular matrix.

b)

Serving as enzymes to catalyze reactions.

c)

Regulating the passage of specific ions and molecules across the membrane.

d)

Functioning in cell-to-cell recognition.

64.

Carbohydrates, often attached to lipids (glycolipids) or proteins (glycoproteins) on the outer surface of the cell membrane, are primarily involved in:

a)

Maintaining the structural rigidity of the membrane.

b)

Cell-to-cell recognition, signaling, and identification.

c)

Facilitating active transport of large molecules.

d)

Storing energy for the cell.

65.

The term "mosaic" in the Fluid Mosaic Model refers to:

a)

The bilayer arrangement of the phospholipids.

b)

The diverse collection of proteins and other molecules embedded within the bilayer.

c)

The way cholesterol fits between the phospholipids.

d)

The formation of vesicles.

66.

The structure formed by a carbohydrate chain covalently bonded to a membrane protein is called a:

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Glycolipid

c)

Glycoprotein

d)

Lipoprotein

67.

Which of the following best describes the process by which pluripotent stem cells develop into cells with a distinct function?

a)

Mitosis without genetic variation

b)

Cell differentiation through selective gene activation

c)

Random cell mutation

d)

Chromosome replication

68.

Multipotent stem cells can most accurately be defined as:

a)

Cells that can develop into ANY cell type in the body

b)

Cells that can develop into multiple cell types within a specific tissue lineage

c)

Cells that cannot divide

d)

Cells that are only found in embryonic tissue

69.

During cell differentiation, how do cells with identical DNA become specialized?

a)

By completely removing unused genes

b)

Through external chemical manipulation

c)

By randomly expressing genetic information

d)

Through selective activation and inactivation of specific genes

70.

Which of the following best describes a zygote?

a)

A fertilized egg with a full complement of DNA

b)

A fertilized egg with half the amount of DNA

c)

An unfertilized egg with a full complement of DNA

d)

None of the above accurately describes a zygote

71.

The process of cell communication is critical in cell differentiation because:

a)

It allows cells to ignore genetic instructions

b)

It enables cells to receive signals about which genes to activate

c)

It prevents genetic mutations

d)

It stops cell division completely

72.

If a cell contains genes for producing insulin, liver enzymes, and muscle proteins, but only activates insulin-related genes, this represents:

a)

Genetic mutation

b)

Cell specialization

c)

Chromosome deletion

d)

Random gene expression

73.

The hierarchical organization of cells in a multicellular organism progresses from:

a)

Organ systems → tissues → cells → organs

b)

Cells → tissues → organs → organ systems

c)

Tissues → cells → organ systems → organs

d)

Organs → cells → tissues → organ systems

74.

Which of the following is not a tissue of the human body?

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Brain

d)

Muscle

75.

Pluripotent stem cells are considered unique because they:

a)

Contain more genetic material than other cells

b)

Can develop into any cell type in the body

c)

Are larger than specialized cells

d)

Cannot divide or reproduce

76.

The concept of cell communication suggests that:

a)

Cells operate in complete isolation

b)

Only nerve cells can communicate

c)

Cells constantly exchange molecular signals

d)

Communication occurs only during cell division

77.

Which organ system is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen, nutrients, and hormones throughout the body?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Cardiovascular system

c)

Nervous system

d)

Endocrine system

78.

Which of the following best describes the primary function of white blood cells?

a)

Oxygen transportation

b)

Immune defense

c)

Hormone regulation

d)

Waste filtration

79.

The human kidney's most critical function is:

a)

Producing hormones

b)

Filtering blood

c)

Generating red blood cells

d)

Regulating body temperature

80.

How do the nervous and endocrine systems interact to maintain homeostasis?

a)

They operate completely independently

b)

Through chemical and electrical signals

c)

Only through direct neural connections

d)

They have no meaningful interaction

81.

The primary function of the respiratory system's alveoli is:

a)

Blood filtration

b)

Hormone production

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Nutrient absorption

82.

Which of the following muscle types is voluntary?

a)

Smooth muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

All of the above

83.

The pancreas contributes to which two major body systems?

a)

Respiratory and circulatory

b)

Digestive and endocrine

c)

Nervous and muscular

d)

Skeletal and immune

84.

What is the primary role of the lymphatic system?

a)

Oxygen transportation

b)

Waste removal

c)

Immune defense

d)

Hormone production

85.

How do hormones from the endocrine system typically interact with target cells?

a)

Through direct physical contact

b)

By binding to specific receptors

c)

By destroying cell membranes

d)

Through electrical impulses

86.

Which of the following bones is part of your appendicular skeleton?

a)

Humerous

b)

Skull

c)

Sternum

d)

Ribs