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Anatomy and Physiology Final Exam Review

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of the function of the body and body parts is called:

a)

anatomy

b)

botany

c)

physiology

d)

ecology

2.

Which of the following activities does NOT represent an anatomical study:

a)

making a section through the heart to observe its interior

b)

examining the surface of a bone

c)

viewing muscle tissue through a microscope

d)

studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

3.

Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans):

a)

superior and caudal

b)

inferior and caudal

c)

inferior and cephalad

d)

anterior and ventral

4.

Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans):

a)

superficial and proximal

b)

distal and proximal

c)

medial and distal

d)

posterior and intermediate

5.

Which of the following is NOT connective tissue:

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

blood

d)

skeletal muscle

6.

The most important minerals stored in bones are:

a)

calcium and iron

b)

sodium and phosphorus

c)

sodium and potassium

d)

calcium and phosphorus

7.

Which of the following are bone forming cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

canaliculi

c)

osteoclasts

d)

osteoblasts

8.

Which is the correct sequence going from simplest to most complex (levels of structural organization):

a)

cell; tissue; organ; organ system; organism

b)

tissue; cell; organ; organ system; organism

c)

organism; organ system; organ; cell; tissue

d)

cell; tissue; organ system; organ; organism

9.

Bone formation can be referred to as:

a)

osteoporosis

b)

rickets

c)

ossification

d)

osteoarthritis

10.

Osteons are characteristic of:

a)

articular cartilage

b)

spongy bone

c)

compact bone

d)

yellow marrow

11.

Three of the four answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception.

a)

humerus

b)

scapula

c)

fibula

d)

clavicle

12.

A compound fracture can be described as when:

a)

the bone is crushed

b)

the broken bone ends are forced into each other

c)

the broken bone is broken into many fragments

d)

the broken bone is exposed to the outside

13.

A fracture common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n):

a)

greenstick fracture

b)

impacted fracture

c)

spiral fracture

d)

depressed fracture

14.

Skeletal muscle is often attached to bone by strong cord-like structures called:

a)

ligaments

b)

fascicles

c)

Z discs

d)

tendons

15.

The muscle tissue type that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multi-nucleated cells with very obvious striations is:

a)

cardiac muscle only

b)

skeletal muscle only

c)

cardiac and skeletal muscle

d)

smooth muscle only

16.

Muscle tissue that has involuntary regulation of contraction is:

a)

cardiac and smooth muscle

b)

cardiac and skeletal muscle

c)

smooth muscle only

d)

skeletal and smooth muscle

17.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system:

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

maintenance of posture

c)

stabilization of joints

d)

generation of heat

18.

The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at the:

a)

motor unit

b)

neuromuscular junction

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

myofibril

19.

Which of the following functions do calcium ions perform during skeletal muscle contraction:

a)

increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma

b)

release the inhibition on Z discs

c)

expose myosin binding sites on the actin

d)

cause ATP binding to actin

20.

The mechanical force of contraction is generated by:

a)

shortening of the thick filaments

b)

shortening of the thin filaments

c)

a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones

d)

the "accordion-like" folding of thin and thick filaments

21.

Acetylcholine is:

a)

a source of energy for muscle contraction

b)

a component of thick myofilaments

c)

an oxygen-binding protein

d)

a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle

22.

The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction is to:

a)

make and store phosphocreatine

b)

synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments

c)

store ATP

d)

regulate intracellular calcium concentration

23.

Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract:

a)

sodium ions rush into the cell

b)

acetylcholine causes temporary permeability to sodium

c)

diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell

d)

operation of the sodium-potassium pump

24.

Which of the following muscle actions would NOT be classified as an isotonic contraction:

a)

pushing against a stationary wall

b)

lifting a glass of water to your mouth

c)

writing a letter

d)

throwing a ball

25.

Anaerobic glycolysis occurs without:

a)

ATP

b)

oxygen

c)

lactic acid

d)

carbon dioxide

26.

The term central nervous system refers to the

a)

brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves

b)

brain and cranial nerves

c)

spinal cord and spinal nerves

d)

brain and spinal cord

27.

The peripheral nervous system consists of:

a)

the brain and spinal cord

b)

the spinal nerves and cranial nerves

c)

the cranial nerves only

d)

the spinal nerves only

28.

Which of these cells is NOT a type of neuroglia found in the central nervous system:

a)

astrocytes

b)

microglia

c)

Schwann cells

d)

oligodendrocytes

29.

The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:

a)

axons

b)

dendrites

c)

neurilemmas

d)

Schwann cells

30.

White matter refers to myelinated fibers in the:

a)

central nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

autonomic nervous system

d)

somatic nervous system

31.

Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are:

a)

myelinated

b)

sensory

c)

unmyelinated

d)

motor

32.

The ability to respond to a stimulus is termed:

a)

polarized

b)

irritability

c)

depolarized

d)

conductivity

33.

The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called:

a)

an ion

b)

an action potential

c)

a neurotransmitter

d)

nerve glue

34.

The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as _____ while the shallow grooves are termed _____.

a)

sulci; gyri

b)

gyri; sulci

c)

ganglia; gyri

d)

tracts; ganglia

35.

Afferent nerves are called _____, and motor nerves are called _____.

a)

motor nerves; sensory nerves

b)

peripheral nerves; cranial nerves

c)

sensory nerves; efferent nerves

d)

mixed nerves; motor nerves

36.

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the:

a)

central nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

autonomic nervous system

d)

somatic nervous system

37.

Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system:

a)

smooth muscle

b)

cardiac muscle

c)

skeletal muscle

d)

most glands

38.

The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the:

a)

central nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

c)

autonomic nervous system

d)

motor division

39.

Blood cell formation in adults occurs in all of the following except the:

a)

flat bones of the skull

b)

flat bones of the pelvis

c)

proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur

d)

shaft of the femur

40.

Blood cell formation is called _____ and occurs in red bone marrow:

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

hemostasis

c)

hemolysis

d)

agglutination

41.

The matrix of blood is called:

a)

erythrocytes

b)

lymphocytes

c)

plasma

d)

platelets

42.

The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called:

a)

homeostasis

b)

coagulation

c)

hemostasis

d)

agglutination

43.

A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies:

a)

antigen

b)

antibody

c)

interleukin

d)

fibrinogen

44.

The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is:

a)

type A

b)

type B

c)

type AB

d)

type O

45.

The universal recipient has blood type:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

46.

Which area of the heart receives blood from the systemic veins:

a)

right ventricle

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

left atrium

47.

Pulmonary veins:

a)

transport oxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

transport blood rich in carbon dioxide to the lungs

c)

transport oxygenated blood to the heart

d)

return blood to the right atrium of the heart

48.

The superior vena cava empties:

a)

deoxygenated blood into the right atrium

b)

deoxygenated blood into the right ventricle

c)

oxygenated blood into the left atrium

d)

oxygenated blood into the right atrium

49.

The path of blood within the systemic vascular system is:

a)

arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins

b)

arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins

c)

arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules

d)

arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins venules

50.

Veins:

a)

carry blood away from the heart

b)

branch into smaller vessels called arterioles

c)

transport oxygen-rich blood

d)

often have valves to prevent the back flow of blood

51.

In which of the following blood vessels is blood pressure the highest:

a)

veins

b)

capillaries

c)

arteries

d)

vena cavas

52.

What structure in the heart divides the left ventricle from the right ventricle:

a)

interventricular septum

b)

interatrial septum

c)

bicuspid valve

d)

tricuspid valve

53.

The thick layer of the heart wall that contains contractile cardiac muscle tissue is the:

a)

endocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

pericardium

d)

myocardium

54.

The sinoatrial node (pacemaker) is located in the:

a)

aorta

b)

right atrium

c)

left atrium

d)

right ventricle

e)

apex

55.

The conducting passageways of the respiratory system include all the following structures except the following:

a)

nose

b)

trachea

c)

pharynx

d)

alveoli

e)

bronchi

56.

The respiratory conducting passageways perform all of the following functions except:

a)

allow air to reach the lungs

b)

purify air

c)

humidify air

d)

exchange gases

57.

What is the role of mucus in the nasal cavity:

a)

increase the air turbulence in the nasal cavity

b)

trap incoming bacteria and other foreign debris

c)

separate the oral from the nasal cavity

d)

act as a resonance chamber for speech

58.

The flap of elastic cartilage that protects food from entering the larynx when swallowing is the:

a)

glottis

b)

Adam's apple

c)

thyroid cartilage

d)

epiglottis

59.

Exchange of both oxygen and carbon dioxide through the respiratory membrane occurs by:

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

active transport

60.

Air moving in and out of the lungs is called:

a)

internal respiration

b)

inspiration

c)

external respiration

d)

pulmonary ventilation

61.

The bluish cast that results from inadequate oxygenation of the skin and mucosa is called:

a)

cyanosis

b)

xanthosis

c)

melanosis

d)

albinism

62.

Which one of the following represents the correct order through which food passes in the alimentary canal:

a)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

b)

mouth, esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

c)

pharynx, mouth, esophagus, stomach large intestine, small intestine

d)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

63.

Which one of the following is NOT one of the functions of the kidneys:

a)

manufacture urine

b)

convert vitamin D from its inactive form to its active form

c)

dispose of metabolic wastes

d)

produce hormones that assist digestion

64.

The kidneys are aided in the excretion of fluids by the:

a)

lungs

b)

skin

c)

lungs and skin

d)

skin and hair

65.

Uric acid, a nitrogenous waste product, results from the metabolism of:

a)

nucleic acids

b)

proteins

c)

amino acids

d)

salt

66.

Urine is transported from the bladder to the outside of the body by the:

a)

ureter

b)

collecting duct

c)

distal convoluted tubule

d)

urethra

67.

Each spermatid and ovum have:

a)

23 pairs of chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

2n chromosomes

d)

46 chromosomes

68.

Fertilization usually occurs in the:

a)

ovary

b)

uterus

c)

vagina

d)

fallopian tubes

69.

The process by which a mature egg is ejected from the ovary is called:

a)

ejaculation

b)

menses

c)

fertilization

d)

ovulation

70.

The tiny ball of 16 cells found freely floating in the uterine cavity is called a:

a)

blastocyte

b)

zygote

c)

morula

d)

trophoblast

71.

All the organ systems are laid down, at least in rudimentary form, and the embryo looks distinctly human by the _____ of embryonic development:

a)

first week

b)

second week

c)

fourth week

d)

eighth week

72.

The tendency of the body's systems to maintain a relatively constant or balanced internal environment is called:

a)

hemostasis

b)

irritability

c)

homeostasis

d)

conductivity

73.

Rids the body of nitrogen-containing wastes:

a)

digestive system

b)

respiratory system

c)

urinary system

d)

endocrine system

74.

Fast acting control system; responds to internal changes and external stimuli:

a)

cardiovascular system

b)

nervous system

c)

lymphatic system

d)

integumentary system

75.

Rids the body of nitrogen-containing wastes:

a)

digestive system

b)

respiratory system

c)

urinary system

d)

endocrine system

76.

Controls the body with chemicals called hormones:

a)

integumentary system

b)

lymphatic system

c)

endocrine system

d)

urinary system

77.

Removes carbon dioxide from the blood:

a)

cardiovascular system

b)

respiratory system

c)

lymphatic system

d)

endocrine system

78.

Provides for conception and childbearing:

a)

reproductive system

b)

endocrine system

c)

cardiovascular system

d)

muscular system

79.

Moves limbs; allows for facial expressions:

a)

skeletal system

b)

muscular system

c)

integumentary system

d)

nervous system

80.

Breaks down food into small particles that can be absorbed:

a)

urinary system

b)

cardiovascular system

c)

muscular system

d)

digestive system

81.

Helps to cleanse the blood and contains cells involved in immunity:

a)

lymphatic system

b)

endocrine system

c)

cardiovascular system

d)

respiratory system

82.

Delivers oxygen and nutrients to the body cells and tissues:

a)

respiratory system

b)

cardiovascular system

c)

digestive system

d)

integumentary system

83.

Provides support and levers on which the muscular system can act:

a)

skeletal system

b)

muscular system

c)

nervous system

d)

integumentary system

84.

Protects underlying organs from drying out and mechanical damage:

a)

muscular system

b)

endocrine system

c)

urinary system

d)

integumentary system