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Biology EOC Review. MO

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
2.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
3.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
4.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
5.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
6.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
7.
In pea plants, the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. What key would demonstrate this?
a)
Tall = T
Short = S
b)
Tall = T
Short = t
c)
Tall = t
Short = T
d)
Tall = TT
Short = tt
8.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
9.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

Yy

b)

yY

c)

yy

d)

YY

10.

What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:3

c)

1:2:1

d)

2:2

11.

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

(A-Brown fur color; a-white fur color)

a)

50 % Brown fur and 50% White fur

b)

25 % Brown fur and 75% White fur

c)

75 % Brown fur and 25% White fur

d)

0% Brown fur and 100% White fur

12.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
(Click the picture to see it without the text)
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
13.
If you cross a black guinea pig with a white guinea pig and the offspring are gray, what type of dominant trait would that be.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
codependant
d)
cooperative
14.

B=Brown fur

b=tan fur

What percent of the offspring would be tan when you cross BbxBb?

a)

75%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

15.
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). If a rabbit has brown fur, what can you conclude about its genotype?
a)
It is BB.
b)
It is Bb
c)
It is brown
d)
It is bb.
16.
This punnett square shows a cross between
a)
A hybrid Parent and a Homozygous parent
b)
A heterozygous parent and a heterozygous parent
c)
Two homozygous parents
d)
Two Hybrid Parents
17.
This is an example of
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Mendelian Genetics
c)
Codominance
d)
Incomplete Dominance
18.
 One dog carries homozygous, long-haired traits (SS), and its mate carries homozygous short-haired traits (ss). Use a Punnett square to determine the probability of one of their offspring having long hair.
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
19.
Why are there no white rabbit babies?
a)
The white gene is not present in any of the babies.
b)
It takes two recessive genes to show the trait.
c)
Grey is a better color.
d)
Baby five will be white.
20.

Name the proteins on the surface of red blood cells.

a)

Antibodies

b)

Antigens

c)

Plasma

d)

Collagen

21.

What type of antigens can be found on the surface of RBC's when someone has blood type O?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

none

22.
What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?
a)
IBIB
b)
IAIB
c)
IB i
23.

In the image above, what is the percentage of the offspring has the possibility of inheriting blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

24.

Which of the following codes for blood type O?

a)

IA IA

b)

IB i

c)

IA IB

d)

ii

25.

What inheritance patterns makes the blood type AB possible?

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

multiple alleles

c)

codominance

d)

total dominance

26.

The four butterflies in the illustration represent the offspring in the F1 generation. Which statement is best supported by the phenotypes of these offspring?

a)

The F1 generation is composed only of males.

b)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will not be able to reproduce.

c)

The F1 generation is the result of a dihybrid cross.

d)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will experience a spontaneous mutation

27.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands. Which process and product are represented in the diagrams?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

28.
Name the process in the picture.
a)
transcription
b)
mitosis
c)
translation
d)
replication
29.
Name M.
a)
light dependent cycle
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
glucose
d)
Calvin cycle
30.
Name B.
a)
phosophate
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
nitrogen base
31.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

32.

Food webs such as the one shown were first used in 1927 by the animal ecologist Charles Elton. The food web below represents the feeding relationships among organisms in an Alaskan ecosystem. An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?

a)

Auklets

b)

Foxes

c)

Salmon

d)

Zooplankton

33.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

34.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve a way the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutions to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

35.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
36.

the section of dna has these bases:


TAG CAG TAC


which mRNA sequence is produced from this DNA section

a)

ATC GTC ATG

b)

AUC GUC AUG

c)

AUG CUG AUC

d)

UTC GTC UTG

37.

Viruses are considered nonliving because they need a host to reproduce.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

A cell _______ in a hypertonic solution because water moves _______ the cell.

a)

shrinks; out

b)

shrinks; in

c)

swells; out

d)

swells; in

39.

Passive transport requires ATP while active does not.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following follows the concentration gradient (high to low) but requires a transport protein?

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

active transport

41.

A phospholipid has two parts. What are they called?

a)

Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail

b)

Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail

42.
"Water Loving"
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
43.
"Water Fearing" 
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
44.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
45.
___________ form the two layers of the cell membrane. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
46.

Controls the passage of materials inside and outside of the cell.

a)

Cellmembrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Cell wall

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

47.

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a)

breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods

b)

stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates

c)

synthesizes proteins and other macromolecules

d)

regulates the movement of materials into and out of the cell

48.

Which term describes the relatively constant internal physical conditions of an organism?

a)

cell specialization

b)

homeostasis

c)

permeability

d)

unicellularity

49.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Cells are small because it allows a faster rate of chemical exchange.

b)

Cells are small because it allows a slower rate of chemical exchange.

c)

Cells are large because it allows a faster rate of chemical exchange.

d)

Cells are large because it allows a slower rate of chemical exchange.

50.

Which of the following molecules pass easily through the cell membrane, requiring little extra help or energy? Select all that apply.

a)

sodium

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

51.

Which of the following molecules don't pass easily through the cell membrane, requiring extra help or input of energy?

a)

sodium

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

52.

The ability to allow only certain molecules into or out of the cell.

a)

Semipermeability

b)

Permeability

c)

Impermeability

d)

Unpermeability

53.

Why is the cell membrane like a window screen?

a)

They both allow everything to pass through.

b)

Neither allow anything to pass through.

c)

They both allow certain things to pass through, while blocking the passage of others.

d)

They are not similar to each other at all.

54.

Which of the following is the function of the cell membrane? Select all that apply.

a)

Provides instructions to the cell and other organelles.

b)

Regulates compounds in and out fo the cell.

c)

Allows cells to communicate and interact with other cells.

d)

Breaks down wastes and other compounds.

e)

Protects the cell from its environment.

55.

Which of the following are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer and help substances pass through?

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

cholesterol

d)

carbohydrates

56.

What would be a good example of a primary consumer?

a)

carnivore

b)

detrivore

c)

decomposer

d)

herbivore

57.

The monkey would be a

a)

decomposer

b)

producer

c)

primary consumer

d)

secondary consumer

58.

A lion that eats a zebra that eats grass is a

a)

primary consumer

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

quaternary consumer

59.
Members of a species in a defined area
a)
Ecosystem
b)
community
c)
biodiversity
d)
population
60.
Study of interactions between organisms and their environment 
a)
niche
b)
community 
c)
ecology
d)
ecosystem
61.
Non-living factor that affects an ecosystem
a)
biotic factor
b)
abiotic factor
c)
food chain 
d)
biome
62.
A collection of organisms that belong to different populations but all live in the same area and interact with one another.
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Ecosphere
63.
Individuals that can breed with one another make up a
a)
species
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
64.
All of the living and nonliving things in an area that interact with each other are called a/an ______.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
65.
An individual belonging to a specific species
a)
Biotic
b)
Community
c)
Organism
d)
Reptile
66.
An area where an organism finds food, shelter and water in a specific arrangement
a)
niche
b)
biosphere
c)
biome
d)
habitat
67.
The living part of an ecosystem
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
c)
Mother Earth
d)
Flowers
68.
Two or more members of a particular species living and interacting in the same area
a)
Community
b)
Population
c)
Organisms
d)
Biosphere
69.
Series of steps in which organisms transfer energy by eating and being eaten
a)
foodweb
b)
consumer
c)
food chain
d)
omnivore
70.

An organism's place in the biotic environment and its role in an ecosystem is

a)

Habitat

b)

Habit

c)

Niche

d)

Community

71.

Which phase of Mitosis is shown in the picture?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

72.

Select the correct description for the picture

a)

Prophase: The cell PREPARES for cell division as chromosomes coil up.

b)

Metaphase: Chromosomes line up in the MIDDLE

c)

Anaphase: Chromosomes pull APART to ends of the cell.

d)

Teleophase: Chromosomes unwind and start to form TWO new cells.

73.

Pick the correct description for the picture

a)

Teleophase: Chromosomes unwind and start to form TWO new cells.

b)

Anaphase: Chromosomes pull APART to ends of the cell.

c)

Metaphase: Chromosomes line up in the MIDDLE

d)

Prophase: The cell PREPARES for cell division as chromosomes coil up.

74.

Select the correct description for the picture

a)

Prophase: The cell PREPARES for cell division as chromosomes coil up.

b)

Metaphase: Chromosomes line up in the MIDDLE

c)

Anaphase: Chromosomes pull APART to ends of the cell.

d)

Teleophase: Chromosomes unwind and start to form TWO new cells.

75.

What phase of Mitosis is shown in the picture?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

76.

What stage of Mitosis does this picture represent?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

77.

Select the correct description of the picture

a)

Prophase: The cell PREPARES for cell division as chromosomes coil up.

b)

Anaphase: Chromosomes pull APART to ends of the cell.

c)

Teleophase: Chromosomes unwind and start to form TWO new cells.

d)

Metaphase: Chromosomes line up in the MIDDLE

78.

What stage does the picture represent?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

79.

What phase of Mitosis represents the picture?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Cytokinesis

80.

What phase of Mitosis does the picture represent?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase

81.
a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

82.
a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Interphase

83.
a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

84.
a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

85.
a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

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