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Leadership Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How is Leadership defined according to the sources?

a)

The process of closely supervising employees to achieve short-term objectives.

b)

The influencing process of leaders and followers to achieve organizational objectives through change.

c)

The process of maintaining the current system and focusing on the task.

d)

The process of using formal position power (title) to control subordinates.

2.

What is the essence of leadership?

a)

Delegation.

b)

Monitoring.

c)

Influencing.

d)

Controlling.

3.

What are the three levels of Analysis of Leadership Theory?

a)

Individual, Functional, Organizational.

b)

Individual, Group, Organizational.

c)

Dyadic, Group, Management.

d)

Technical, Interpersonal, Decisional.

4.

According to the comparison between Management and Leadership, what is the characteristic focus of management?

a)

Change, innovation, negotiation.

b)

Maintaining current system, focus on task.

c)

Creating a new vision, focus on people.

d)

Inspiring, motivating.

5.

Which statement about Leadership is NOT TRUE?

a)

Leadership is about leading people through relationships.

b)

Your ability to influence others can be developed.

c)

Leadership should be shared.

d)

Leadership is not viewed as a competitive advantage.

6.

Which skill involves the ability to use methods and techniques to perform a task?

a)

Interpersonal Skills.

b)

Decision Making Skills.

c)

Technical Skills.

d)

Communication Skills.

7.

For Middle Managers, how is the need for the three core skills distributed?

a)

Greater need for technical skills.

b)

Greater need for interpersonal and decision-making skills.

c)

Balanced need for all three skills.

d)

Greater need for technical and interpersonal skills.

8.

Which managerial role is performed when providing information to people outside their organizational unit?

a)

Disseminator role.

b)

Spokesperson role.

c)

Monitor role.

d)

Negotiator role.

9.

Which managerial role involves leaders interacting with people outside their unit?

a)

Leader role.

b)

Spokesperson role.

c)

Liaison role.

d)

Monitor role.

10.

Which level of analysis is also called the "dyadic process" and focuses on the leader’s relationship with individual followers?

a)

Group level of analysis.

b)

Organizational level of analysis.

c)

Individual level of analysis.

d)

Management level.

11.

Regarding whether leaders are born or made, what conclusion is supported by the sources?

a)

Leaders are entirely born with innate ability.

b)

Leaders are entirely made through learning.

c)

Leaders are born with some ability and then develop that ability.

d)

Research supports that leadership cannot be taught.

12.

In what way is a leader potentially different from a manager?

a)

Leaders typically focus on maintaining the current system.

b)

Leaders are less likely to interact with people outside their unit.

c)

Leaders are born with all necessary skills.

d)

Leaders focus on change and innovation.

13.

Managers have title and authority, but a leader does not have to be a manager. Which statement best explains the difference between managers and leaders?

a)

Managers focus on people.

b)

Managers have title and authority, but a leader does not have to be a manager.

c)

Leaders focus on the task.

d)

Managers always lead teams.

14.

Which level of analysis is positioned at the bottom because group and organizational performance are based on its performance?

a)

Group level.

b)

Individual level.

c)

Organizational level.

d)

Dyadic level.

15.

The Disturbance-handler role belongs to which main category of managerial roles?

a)

Informational role.

b)

Decisional role.

c)

Interpersonal role.

d)

Leader role.

16.

The processes of influencing and setting objectives are fundamentally about what outcome?

a)

Maintaining the current system.

b)

Focusing on people.

c)

Change.

d)

Achieving short-term goals.

17.

Which Big Five personality dimension includes Dominance and Extraversion?

a)

Surgency.

b)

Agreeableness.

c)

Adjustment.

d)

Conscientiousness.

18.

What are the four components of Emotional Intelligence (EI)?

a)

Self-Awareness, Self-Confidence, Self-Management, Relationship Management.

b)

Self-Awareness, Social Awareness, Self-Management, Relationship Management.

c)

Power, Achievement, Affiliation, Self-Awareness.

d)

Self-Confidence, Self-Esteem, Social Awareness, Flexibility.

19.

According to the Leader Motive Profile (LMP) Theory, which combination of the three needs (Achievement, Power, Affiliation) predicts leadership success?

a)

High Achievement, Low Power, High Affiliation.

b)

High Power, Low Affiliation, Moderate Achievement.

c)

High Power, High Achievement, Low Affiliation.

d)

High Affiliation, Low Achievement, Moderate Power.

20.

Which combination of needs is associated with a person who has a high need for power, moderate achievement, and lower affiliation?

a)

Need for Power (High), Achievement (High), Affiliation (High).

b)

Need for Power (High), Achievement (Moderate), Affiliation (Lower).

c)

Need for Achievement (High), Power (Low), Affiliation (Moderate).

d)

Need for Power (Moderate), Achievement (High), Affiliation (Low).

21.

Managers who adhere to Theory X tend to focus on which objective?

a)

Complete tasks.

b)

Develop people.

c)

Using intrinsic motivation.

d)

Using democratic methods.

22.

Which theory attempts to explain and predict followers' behavior and performance based on the leader’s attitudes toward and expectations of followers?

a)

The impact of the situation on behavior.

b)

The Pygmalion effect.

c)

Self-concept theory.

d)

Achievement Motivation Theory.

23.

How are Ethics defined?

a)

Mandatory legal rules to be followed.

b)

The standards of right and wrong that influence behavior.

c)

The internal values a person has about themselves.

d)

Compliance with organizational rules.

24.

Ellen Kullman’s success at DuPont, partly attributed to her Agreeableness, was exemplified by which behavior?

a)

She had high energy and determination (Surgency).

b)

She relied more on her personal relationships than her power as CEO to get the job done.

c)

She was very dependable (Conscientiousness).

d)

She had self-control and self-confidence (Adjustment).

25.

What is Self-concept?

a)

Belief in one's capabilities in a specific situation (Self-efficacy).

b)

The positive or negative attitudes people have about themselves.

c)

The leader's recognition of their own strengths and weaknesses.

d)

Moral development.

26.

Which personality dimension includes Dependability and Integrity?

a)

Agreeableness.

b)

Surgency.

c)

Conscientiousness.

d)

Openness.

27.

According to Theory X, what is the nature of people?

a)

Capable of self-management, responsible.

b)

Lazy, avoid responsibility.

c)

Seek job satisfaction.

d)

Driven by intrinsic motivation.

28.

Which Big Five personality dimension includes Flexibility and Intelligence?

a)

Surgency.

b)

Openness.

c)

Adjustment.

d)

Agreeableness.

29.

What is the goal of the Stakeholder Approach to Ethics?

a)

Maximize shareholder profit.

b)

To create a win-win situation for relevant parties affected by the decision.

c)

Focus only on laws and internal regulations.

d)

Use personalized power to achieve ethical goals.

30.

If a leader has a socialized need for power, what is their likely tendency?

a)

Rely more on formal position power (CEO).

b)

Rely more on relationships and use participative management.

c)

Focus solely on climbing the corporate ladder.

d)

Have a high need for affiliation.

31.

According to Theory Y, which management method do managers tend to use?

a)

Authoritarian, tightly controlled.

b)

Democratic, empowering.

c)

Focus primarily on money and material rewards.

d)

Focus primarily on completing tasks.

32.

Which factors affect Ethical Behavior in organizations?

a)

Income, Job position, Vision.

b)

Personality Traits and Attitudes, Moral Development, The Situation.

c)

Position power, Locus of control, Self-concept.

d)

Organizational culture, Strategy, Authoritarianism.

33.

Which University of Iowa leadership style involves the leader making decisions, telling employees what to do, and closely supervising them?

a)

Democratic leadership style.

b)

Free leadership style/Delegative style.

c)

Authoritarian leadership style.

d)

Participative leadership style.

34.

The University of Michigan Leadership Model is described as what type of model?

a)

Two-dimensional.

b)

Uses a continuum, making it one-dimensional.

c)

Identifies four distinct leadership styles.

d)

Focuses on Structure and Consideration.

35.

In the University of Michigan Leadership Model, which aspect refers to the extent to which the leader focuses on meeting employee needs and developing relationships?

a)

Structure.

b)

Job-centered.

c)

Employee-centered.

d)

Task-oriented.

36.

Which statement is the main contribution of the behavioral leadership models (Michigan, Ohio State)?

a)

A task-oriented leadership style is best in all situations.

b)

There is always one best leadership style in all situations.

c)

There is no one best leadership style in all situations.

d)

These models only apply to top-level managers.

37.

The Ohio State University Leadership Model identifies four leadership styles based on the combination of which two behaviors?

a)

Task and Relationship.

b)

Structure and Consideration.

c)

Autocratic and Democratic.

d)

Job-centered and Employee-centered.

38.

Which category of motivation theory focuses on explaining and predicting behavior based on people’s needs?

a)

Process Motivation Theories.

b)

Reinforcement Theory.

c)

Content Motivation Theories.

d)

Expectancy theory.

39.

According to Herzberg's Two-factor Theory, which of the following is considered a Hygiene Factor?

a)

The work itself.

b)

Achievement.

c)

Recognition.

d)

Company policies.

40.

Which Process Motivation Theory focuses on understanding how people choose behavior to fulfill their needs, often through comparison of inputs and outcomes?

a)

Acquired needs theory.

b)

Equity theory.

c)

Hierarchy of needs theory.

d)

Two-factor theory.

41.

Which form of reinforcement involves rewarding employees by removing negative/undesirable consequences?

a)

Positive reinforcement.

b)

Negative reinforcement/Avoidance.

c)

Punishment.

d)

Extinction.

42.

In the Motivation Process, what element appears immediately after behavior is performed and loops back because behavior is learned through it?

a)

Need.

b)

Motive.

c)

Consequence.

d)

Satisfaction.

43.

The University of Iowa Leadership Styles identify which three styles?

a)

Job-centered, Employee-centered, Relationship-oriented.

b)

Low Structure & High Consideration, High Structure & High Consideration, Low Structure & Low Consideration, High Structure & Low Consideration.

c)

Autocratic, Democratic, Free leadership/Delegative.

d)

Decide, Consult, Facilitate, Delegate.

44.

Which University of Iowa leadership style involves the leader rarely using authority to influence subordinates and allowing subordinates to choose their own methods of work?

a)

Autocratic style.

b)

Democratic style.

c)

Free leadership/Delegative style.

d)

Relationship-oriented style.

45.

Which motivation theory overlooks the internal state of the individual and focuses on what happens to the individual when they take some action?

a)

Acquired Needs Theory.

b)

Equity theory.

c)

Reinforcement Theory.

d)

Two-factor theory.

46.

According to the Acquired Needs Theory, people are motivated by which needs?

a)

Pay, Job security, Advancement.

b)

Achievement, Power, Affiliation.

c)

Work environment, Relationship, Achievement.

d)

Pay, Recognition, Working conditions.

47.

According to the Hierarchy of Needs Theory, leaders must meet employees’ lower-level needs for what purpose?

a)

So these needs dominate the motivational process.

b)

So these needs do not dominate the motivational process.

c)

To immediately transition to self-actualization needs.

d)

To increase punishment reinforcement.

48.

Fines/penalties, demotions, and similar actions are examples of which type of reinforcement?

a)

Positive reinforcement.

b)

Avoidance.

c)

Punishment.

d)

Extinction.

49.

Fiedler’s Contingency Leadership Model is used to determine what about a person’s leadership style?

a)

Whether it is behavior-oriented or trait-oriented.

b)

Whether it is Task-Oriented or Relationship-Oriented.

c)

Whether it is Democratic or Authoritarian.

d)

Whether it is Directive or Supportive.

50.

What are the situational variables in Fiedler’s Contingency Leadership Model?

a)

Decision-making style, Follower maturity, Task Structure.

b)

Leader-Member Relations, Task Structure, Positional Power.

c)

Achievement, Power, Affiliation.

d)

Pay, Recognition, Working conditions.

51.

What is a key weakness of Fiedler’s Contingency Leadership Model?

a)

It recognizes the situation's impact on leadership.

b)

Leader style is fixed.

c)

It is too simple and easy to understand.

d)

It doesn't address follower needs.

52.

Which model focuses on who makes the decision based on the use of boss-centered versus subordinate-centered leadership?

a)

Contingency Leadership Model.

b)

Path-Goal Model.

c)

Leadership Continuum Model.

d)

Normative Model.

53.

In the Path-Goal Model, which leadership styles are used to adapt leadership to follower motivation?

a)

Task-Oriented, Relationship-Oriented.

b)

Authoritarian, Democratic.

c)

Directive, Supportive, Participative, Achievement-Oriented.

d)

Decide, Consult, Facilitate, Delegate.

54.

In the Path-Goal Model, which situational variables are related to the subordinate (follower) factors?

a)

Task structure, Formal authority, Work group.

b)

Authoritarianism, Locus of control, Ability.

c)

Leader-Member Relations, Task Structure.

d)

Directive, Supportive, Participative.

55.

Which weakness is associated with the Path-Goal Model?

a)

Recognizes the situation's impact on leadership.

b)

Leader style is fixed.

c)

Ignores leader's influence on follower needs.

d)

The decision-making process can be cumbersome.

56.

In the Normative Model, which leadership style allows the group to diagnose the problem and make the decision within stated limits?

a)

Decide.

b)

Consult.

c)

Facilitate.

d)

Delegate.

57.

According to Fiedler’s model, a Task-motivated leader gains satisfaction primarily from what?

a)

Forming and maintaining relationships with followers.

b)

Task completion.

c)

Positional Power.

d)

Authoritarianism.

58.

Who developed the Leadership Continuum Model?

a)

Robert House.

b)

Paul Hersey and Kenneth Blanchard.

c)

Robert Tannenbaum and Warren Schmidt.

d)

Fred Fiedler.

59.

Which term describes the degree to which employees defer to others, wanting to be told what to do and how to do the job?

a)

Locus of control.

b)

Authoritarianism.

c)

Formal authority.

d)

Path clarification.

60.

The contingency leadership model variables include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

the leader.

b)

the followers.

c)

the situation.

d)

the task.

61.

Which model focuses on decision quality and leader confidence when making a choice?

a)

Contingency Leadership Model.

b)

Leadership Continuum Model.

c)

Path-Goal Model.

d)

Normative Model.

62.

How is Power defined?

a)

The actual use of influence over followers.

b)

The leader’s potential influence over followers.

c)

The process of sharing authority (empowerment).

d)

The ability to monitor and control work.

63.

What are the two main sources of power?

a)

Legitimate Power and Reward Power.

b)

Personal Power and Position Power.

c)

Expert Power and Referent Power.

d)

Position Power and Information Power.

64.

Which statement about Personal Power is NOT TRUE?

a)

It is derived from the leader’s behavior and is granted by the followers.

b)

Nonmanagers can also have Personal Power.

c)

Referent Power is a type of Personal Power.

d)

It is delegated down the chain of command from top management.

65.

Which type of power is used when a leader asks others to do something within the scope of their job and often uses the Consultation influencing tactic?

a)

Coercive Power.

b)

Reward Power.

c)

Legitimate Power.

d)

Expert Power.

66.

To increase Reward Power, what should a leader do?

a)

Increase management experience.

b)

Allow others to make decisions (empowerment).

c)

Let people know you control rewards and state your criteria for giving rewards.

d)

Develop personal relationships.

67.

If you want to persuade others, which influencing tactic involves giving praise before asking for what you want?

a)

Rational Persuasion.

b)

Inspirational appeals.

c)

Ingratiation.

d)

Consultation.

68.

Which type of power is based on the user’s personal relationships with others, relying on loyalty and friendship?

a)

Legitimate Power.

b)

Reward Power.

c)

Referent Power.

d)

Expert Power.

69.

Expert Power is often used in conjunction with which influencing tactic?

a)

Inspirational appeals.

b)

Exchange.

c)

Rational persuasion.

d)

Coalition.

70.

To increase Connection Power, what should a leader do?

a)

Have information flow through you.

b)

Develop your people skills.

c)

Expand your network to managers with power and join the 'right' associations.

d)

Gain authority to use punishment.

71.

Coercive Power is also referred to by which influencing tactic?

a)

Rational persuasion.

b)

Inspirational appeals.

c)

Pressure influencing tactic.

d)

Consultation.

72.

In Negotiation, what is the most critical element for developing skill?

a)

Ensuring it is a zero-sum game.

b)

Focusing on winning at any cost.

c)

Following the steps in the negotiation process.

d)

Relying solely on Position Power.

73.

Reward Power is based on which factor related to the leader?

a)

Formal position.

b)

The ability to control the getting and allocating of resources.

c)

The level of respect from followers.

d)

The level of user’s skill and knowledge.

74.

Mai, the head of the marketing department, wants to motivate staff to achieve new product sales goals without creating a tense atmosphere. What kind of power should Mai use to achieve her goals?

a)

Legitimate power.

b)

Coercive power.

c)

Reward power.

d)

Information power.

75.

Which power is based on the user’s skill and knowledge?

a)

Referent Power.

b)

Information Power.

c)

Expert Power.

d)

Position Power.

76.

Which statement about Politics in an organization is NOT TRUE?

a)

Politics is a medium of exchange.

b)

A negative connotation often surrounds politics.

c)

Organizations can eliminate politics if they choose.

d)

Politics are inherently neither good nor bad.

77.

What is the primary purpose of “Negotiation planning”?

a)

To set clear goals, objectives, and strategies for the negotiation process.

b)

To avoid negotiation altogether.

c)

To win at any cost, even if it means manipulating the other party.

d)

To dominate the conversation and control the negotiation.

78.

When does true communication occur?

a)

When the sender transmits information.

b)

When the receiver provides feedback.

c)

Only when all parties understand the message (information) from the same perspective (meaning).

d)

When the leader gives instructions.

79.

In the Message-Receiving Process, how is listening defined?

a)

The process of thinking and decoding the message (Analyzing).

b)

The process of giving feedback (Checking understanding).

c)

The process of giving a speaker your undivided attention.

d)

The process that begins with developing rapport.

80.

In the Oral Message-Sending Process, which step involves asking direct questions and/or paraphrasing?

a)

Develop rapport.

b)

Giving feedback.

c)

Decoding the message.

d)

Listening attentively.

81.

When receiving criticism (feedback), what should you do to turn it into an opportunity for improvement?

a)

Argue to defend your viewpoint.

b)

Stay calm, don’t get defensive, and don’t blame others.

c)

Ignore feedback that you feel is unfair.

d)

Wait for the formal 360-degree feedback process.

82.

What is Coaching defined as?

a)

A process only for athletes.

b)

The process of giving motivational feedback to maintain and improve performance.

c)

A process where a more-experienced manager helps a less-experienced protégé (Mentoring).

d)

A process of resolving conflict through negotiation.

83.

How does Mentoring primarily differ from general Coaching?

a)

Mentoring is a form of coaching focused on providing sound career advice and helping develop leadership skills.

b)

Coaching is only for low-performing individuals.

c)

Mentoring does not require specific feedback.

d)

Coaching only provides descriptive feedback.

84.

When does Conflict exist?

a)

When the psychological contract is met.

b)

Whenever people are in disagreement and opposition.

c)

Only between the leader and follower.

d)

When there is an imbalance of power.

85.

Descriptive feedback can be based on which elements?

a)

Only facts.

b)

Can be based on facts (observed and proven) or inferences (unproven).

c)

Should be given as late as possible.

d)

Only based on inferences.

86.

In the Coaching Model to improve performance, what is the fourth (final) step?

a)

Transmit your message.

b)

Check the receiver’s understanding.

c)

Get a commitment and follow up.

d)

Argue to defend your viewpoint.

87.

Which of the following is an important step to ensure an employee is behaving as desired after discussing performance?

a)

Describe in detail the behavior to change.

b)

Tell the employee the desired performance.

c)

Ask the employee why they are not achieving performance.

d)

Follow up to ensure the employee is behaving as desired.

88.

What is 360-degree feedback?

a)

Feedback only from the supervisor.

b)

Feedback only from customers.

c)

Based on receiving performance evaluations from many people.

d)

Focuses only on listening skills.

89.

Regarding Written Communication guidelines, which voice should be preferred?

a)

Passive voice to increase formality.

b)

Active voice rather than passive voice.

c)

Long and complex sentences to impress.

d)

Skip editing if you have a good outline.

90.

Which conflict management style involves passive behavior?

a)

Negotiating.

b)

Accommodating.

c)

Forcing.

d)

Collaborating.

91.

In the Oral Message-Sending Process, stating your communication objective is which step?

a)

Step 1.

b)

Step 2.

c)

Step 3.

d)

Step 4.

92.

What is the role of feedback in verifying messages?

a)

Influencing with position power.

b)

Increasing work motivation.

c)

Having the receiver restate the message in his/her words (Paraphrasing).

d)

Giving instructions.

93.

According to LMX theory, which group includes followers with strong social ties to their leader, characterized by high mutual trust, respect, loyalty, and influence?

a)

Out-group.

b)

Pragmatic follower.

c)

In-group.

d)

Alienated follower.

94.

Leaders tend to influence the Out-group using which type of power?

a)

Expert, Referent, and Reward Power.

b)

Coercive Power.

c)

Legitimate Power.

d)

Informational Power.

95.

What is the term for the quality of the exchange relationship between a leader and a follower?

a)

Social Capital.

b)

LMX (Leader-member exchange).

c)

Social Identity.

d)

Followership.

96.

What behavior characterizes Proactive followers?

a)

Actively seek feedback about their role expectations.

b)

Wait only for instructions.

c)

Project a favorable image to the leader by ingratiating.

d)

Focus only on economic exchanges with the leader.

97.

What is the follower’s effort to project a favorable image to gain an immediate benefit or improve a long-term relationship with the leader called?

a)

Self-efficacy.

b)

Impression management.

c)

Ingratiation.

d)

Social capital.

98.

How are Effective Followers described, according to Kelley’s model?

a)

Low on critical thinking and low on involvement.

b)

High on critical thinking and high on involvement.

c)

High on involvement but low on critical thinking.

d)

Low on involvement but high on critical thinking.

99.

Which term describes a person’s beliefs in his or her capabilities to produce at a certain level of performance?

a)

Self-concept.

b)

Self-confidence.

c)

Self-efficacy: niềm tin cá nhân.

d)

External locus of control.

100.

What is the term for the behavior of followers that results from the leader-follower mutual influencing relationship?

a)

LMX.

b)

Followership.

c)

Dyadic theory.

d)

Organizational citizenship behavior.